The early sign of pit viper envenomation is syncope and bleeding at distal sites. thus, option A is correct.
What is Suprapubic catheter?
A Suprapubic catheter has been used for the drainage of urine from the bladder and it consists of a hollow flexible tube and a client is admitted with a head injury and has large amounts of clear, colorless urine draining from the urinary catheter.
A suprapubic catheter is used for long-term continuous drainage and is inserted through a small incision above the pubic area. Suprapubic bladder drainage diverts urine from the urethra when injury, stricture, prostatic obstruction, or abdominal surgery has compromised the flow of urine through the urethra.
Therefore, The physiological response is possibly causing the increased urine output Suprapubic catheter.
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There are so many of us you will probably have a hard time seeing just one of us. I am small but i have a big job. I make compounds that build your muscles, fight disease, transports oxygen, and speed up your metabolism. What am i?.
Answer:
BLOOD CELLS RBC it has hemoglobin with helps in oxygen transportation and RBC that improves metabolism and fight disease
a client is experiencing some renal secretion abnormalities, for which diagnostics are being performed. which substance is typically reabsorbed in urine?
Normally, amino acids and glucose are reabsorbed and not eliminated through the urine.
In most cases, amino acids and glucose are reabsorbed and not expelled in the urine. Typically, water, sodium, chloride, bicarbonate, potassium, urea, creatinine, and uric acid are present in the filtrate that is released as urine. The filtered waste that is produced is known as urine.
Humans and many other creatures produce urine as a liquid waste product of their metabolism. The ureters transport urine from the kidneys to the bladder. Urine is discharged from the body through the urethra as a result of urination.
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a major complication of prolonged bed rest is an increased risk of kidney stones. the nurse knows that this is most likely related to:
One of the major complications of long-term bed rest is an increased risk of kidney stones. The nurse knows that this is most likely related to saturation of the urine with calcium salts.
What are the main causes of kidney stones?Kidney stones are due to excessive degrees of calcium, oxalate, and phosphorus withinside the urine. These minerals are commonly observed in urine and do now no longer purpose troubles at low degrees. Certain foods may increase the chances of developing kidney stones in people who are prone to developing kidney stones.
What are the symptoms of kidney stones?• Severe pain on both sides of the lower back.
• More vague or persistent abdominal pain.
• Hematuria.
• Nausea or vomiting.
• Fever and chills.
• Bad smell and cloudy urine.
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a client is receiving a continuous tube feeding. which accurately describes an aspect of this procedure?
For continuous feeding, a feeding pump is utilized.
Which posture is ideal for a person who is using a gastrostomy tube for enteral feedings?Nurses should appropriately cleanse the enteral tube before and after feedings. Position: When clinically practicable, the infant should be put upright since lying prone or supine during feeding increases the risk of aspiration.
During enteral feeding, elevating the head of the bed reduces the possibility of aspiration and permits the formula to enter the client's intestines.
When starting enteral feedings, keep an eye on the patient's tolerance for food. Check the abdomen by palpating for stiffness, distention, and discomfort and auscultating for bowel sounds. Be aware that patients who report feeling nauseous or full after a meal may have a higher GRV.
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the nurse leader teaches the student nurse about stamp (staring, tone and volume of voice, anxiety, mumbling, pacing) assessment. during the session, the leader mentions rapid speech and dilated pupils. which component is responsible for these two conditions?
The nurse leader teaches the student nurse about stamp (staring, tone, volume of voice, anxiety, mumbling, pacing) assessment. during the session, the leader mentions rapid speech and dilated pupils avoiding the use of personal intuition over facts.
Anxiety is a sense of worry, dread, and uneasiness. it might cause you to sweat, feel restless and worrying, and feature a rapid heartbeat. it could be a normal response to pressure. for instance, you may feel annoyed whilst confronted with tough trouble at paintings, earlier than taking a check, or earlier than making a crucial decision.
Tough studies in formative years, early life, or maturity are common triggers for tension troubles. Going via strain and trauma whilst you're very young is probable to have a specifically big impact. studies that may cause tension issues to consist of such things as physical or emotional abuse.
To diagnose an anxiety disorder, a health practitioner performs a bodily exam, asks about your symptoms, and recommends a blood check, which facilitates the health practitioner to decide if another situation, which includes hypothyroidism, may be causing your signs. The health practitioner may additionally ask about any medicines you take.
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an older adult client diagnosed with postherpetic neuralgia suffers from chronic pain and difficulty sleeping. what is the nurse's best initial suggestion to improve this client's sleep pattern?
The nurse's best initial recommendation for enhancing this client's sleep cycle is guided imagery.
Postherpetic neuralgia is brought on by what?Chickenpox and shingles are both brought on by the varicella-zoster virus. In post-herpetic neuralgia, the virus injures the nerves that run beneath the skin in the afflicted area. The term "neuralgia" refers to pain that develops as a result of inflammation or damage to the nerves.
Postherpetic neuralgia: How is it treated?For post-herpetic neuralgia, amitriptyline and duloxetine are the two most often recommended antidepressants. Typically, a modest dose will be used to begin, and if there are any positive effects or negative ones, the amount may be raised. The full results might not be felt for a few weeks.
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a client receiving penicillin therapy reports mouth irritation and a sore throat to the nurse. inspection reveals a red, swollen tongue with ulcerations. the nurse suspects a fungal superinfection and prioritizes which nursing diagnosis as most appropriate for this client?
We get up to five doses of the suspect penicillin, each increasing in strength until the desired dose is reached.
What is penicillin allergy?Doctor will determine that you are not allergic to that type of penicillin if take the therapeutic dose without experiencing any side effects. We can take the medication exactly as directed
Doctor may advise a graded challenge with a kind of penicillin or cephalosporin that is less likely — because of known chemical features to result in an allergic reaction if you are allergic to one type of penicillin.
Doctor would then be able to choose an antibiotic that is safe to take.
Therefore, We get up to five doses of the suspect penicillin, each increasing in strength until the desired dose is reached.
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the total of all amounts due to a physician, from all patients, for services rendered or procedures performed is called the
The total of all amounts due to a physician from patients for services rendered or procedures performed is called the accounts receivable.
What do you understand by accounts receivable?
Account receivable services include management of reports dealing with insurance, write-offs, bad debt reviews, collection analysis, and ratio analysis. It also contains an analysis of insurance contracts to ensure healthcare providers are being reimbursed correctly.
The recording and processing of financial transactions relating to sales and customers is called accounts receivable . The opportunities span over a number of roles such as: billing analyst who liaise with the organization's sales teams to carry out invoicing of customers.
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the reigstered nurse is caring for an older client who fractured pelvis from a fall. which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider
The reigstered nurse is caring for an older client fractured pelvis from a fall. assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider Stiffness in joints is an early sign of contractures and muscle atrophy related to inactivity and immobility.
A pelvic fracture is a spoil in a single or extra of your bones for your pelvis. Pelvic fractures are an unusual type of fracture that may range from mild to excessive. whilst slight pelvic fractures typically don't require surgical treatment, extreme fractures ought to be fixed with surgery.
With a broken pelvis you cannot walk, take a seat or pass well with out pain. The pelvis protects the bladder, intestines and many crucial blood vessels. a few of the critical leg muscular tissues and stomach muscular tissues attach to the pelvis and permit for frame movement and feature.
Slight, solid pelvic fractures typically heal well with remedy without lengthy-term headaches. intense and unstable pelvic fractures which are as a result of high-impact occasions together with automobile accidents should bring about headaches together with extreme bleeding and organ and/or nerve harm.
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the nurse is caring for an older client. which finding should the nurse expect to note in this client while evaluating renal function?
Blood pressure. Even at rest, the kidneys generally receive 20% to 25% of the cardiac output. Adequate renal perfusion is required for good kidney function.
Blood pressure, which is an indirect representation of the sufficiency of cardiac output, is the best way to evaluate perfusion. The heart rate influences cardiac output, however it can be influenced by variables other than kidney function. Level of consciousness and jugular vein distention are unrelated concepts.
It refers to the flow of fluid through the renal ducts, which can be reduced by low blood pressure, electrolyte imbalances, hypertension (high blood pressure), obesity, and kidney stones. A phrase used to indicate the efficiency with which the kidneys function. The kidneys filter waste and excess water from the blood (as urine) and aid in the balance of chemicals in the body (such as sodium, potassium, and calcium).
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a nurse is caring for a client with diabetic glomerulosclerosis. the presence of which substance in the urine would be used in diagnosing this condition?
In a case whereby a nurse is caring for a client with diabetic glomerulosclerosis the presence of albumin in the urine would be used in diagnosing this condition .
How can the presence of diabetic glomerulosclerosis be known ?It should be noted that thed Microalbuminuria can be regarded as one of the predictor of future diabetic nephropathies which can as well be seen as an evidence of glomerular damage.
The albumin can be described as the large protein molecule, that can be used in the process of determining the presence of the diabetic glomerulosclerosis this is because when the solution is been passed through the glomerular filtration process this albumin will not pass through like other substance.
And once this is unable to pass , it can be recorded that there would be a high tendency that the albumin is present and this can help to indicate the availability of the diabetic glomerulosclerosis
Therefore the option A is correct.
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Check the complete question:
A nurse is caring for a client with diabetic glomerulosclerosis. The presence of which substance in the urine would be used in diagnosing this condition?
A. albumin
B. potassium
C. sodium
D. hemoglobin
a nurse is working with the parents of a newborn girl. the parents have a 2-year-old boy at home. which statement would the nurse include when teaching these parents?
If a nurse is working with the parents of a newborn girl and the parents have a 2-year-old boy at home, then the statement that the nurse would include when teaching these parents is "Ask your 2-year-old to pick out a special toy for his sister."
What is important to develop cognitive skills and friendships in children?It has been shown that stimulation is a fundamental issue to develop cognitive skills and friendships in children, thereby it is advisable to promote activities in children in this regard.
Therefore, with this data, we can see the importance of developing cognitive mental skills and friendships in children, which is an essential issue for his or her development before adolescence.
Complete question:
A nurse is working with the parents of a newborn girl. The parents have a 2-year-old boy at home. Which statement would the nurse include when teaching these parents?
"Expect to see your 2-year-old become more independent when the baby gets home."
"Talk to your 2-year-old about the baby when you're driving him to day care."
"Ask your 2-year-old to pick out a special toy for his sister."
"Have your 2-year-old stay at home while you're here in the hospital."
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if a patient is taking fluconazole (diflucan) with an oral anticoagulant, the nurse will monitor for which possible interaction?
The nurse will monitor for Increased effects of oral anticoagulants possible interaction.
What are anticoagulants give examples?Warfarin, commonly known as Coumadin, and other anticoagulants like heparin slow down the clotting process in your body. Antiplatelets, including such aspirin and antiplatelet, stop platelets, which are blood cells, from congregating to form a clot. Most patients who have suffered a stroke or a heart attack take antiplatelets.
What dangers come with using an anticoagulant?Thromboembolism is frequently treated and prevented with anticoagulant drugs. Despite being very effective, they come with considerable risks of bleeding. Age, anemia, and renal illness are only a few of the individual clinical variables that have been associated to an elevated risk of bleeding.
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a 12-year-old child has had a traumatic head injury from playing in a football game. he is admitted to the emergency department and transferred to the pediatric intensive care unit. he has an iv of dextrose 5% in water at 21 ml/h and nasal oxygen at 2 l/min. the nurse is assessing the child at the beginning of the shift (2300 hours) and reviews the accompanying glasgow coma scale flow sheet. the nurse notes that the child responds to pain, is making incomprehensible sounds, and has abnormal flexion of the limbs. what should the nurse do first?
An intensive care unit nurse is attending to a patient who has a severe brain injury and elevated intracranial pressure.
Why was emergency Cancelled?Despite receiving high ratings, the show was suspended in 1977 after the sixth season because of concerns about the actor Robert Fuller's illness (due to him wanting to do other projects). The series returned in 1978 and 1979 as 6 movie specials, which are referred to as "Season Seven."
What is an emergency and examples?A 911 emergency occurs when someone need immediate assistance due to an injury or a life-threatening situation. For instance, dial 911 in the event of a fire. After an accident, excessive drinking, or a drug or medication overdose, someone is unconscious.
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the nurse is providing discharge education to an adult client who will begin a regimen of ocular medications for the treatment of glaucoma. how can the nurse best determine if the client is able to self-administer these medications safely and effectively?
The nurse can best determine if a patient going to begin a regimen of ocular medications for the treatment of glaucoma will be able to self-administer these medications by: asking the patient to demonstrate the instillation of her medications.
Ocular medications are the drugs that are administered into the eyes for any disease affecting the vision. Care should be taken while administering these medications so that the condition does not worsen and any sort of infection is not spread.
Glaucoma is an eye disease where the optic nerve becomes damaged. The function of optic nerve is to send the vision signals from the eye to the brain.
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which of the following categories of medications are used to treat clients diagnosed with bipolar (choose all that apply)? group of answer choices a. mood stabilizers b. antipsychotics c. antidepressants d. anticonvulsants
Mood stabilizers, antipsychotics, and antidepressants are the three primary types of medication used to treat bipolar illness, and there is sometimes debate about the safety and efficacy of these drugs in this context. The most recognizable phase of bipolar disorder is mania, which is also a major factor in disability, stigma, and cognitive impairment. The conventional form of treatment is lithium, although Combining medication and psychotherapy is the most successful treatment for bipolar disorder. Most people take multiple medications, such as an antipsychotic or an antidepressant together with a mood stabilizer.
With a number needed to treat (NNT) of 2 as opposed to 5 to 11 for other FDA-approved atypical antipsychotics, OFC may statistically be the most successful treatment for acute bipolar depression.
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which parenteral anticoagulant is the drug of choice in a critically ill patient diagnosed with disseminated intravascular coagulation?
Warfarin and heparin are oral and parenteral anticoagulants given to a critically ill patient diagnosed with disseminated intravascular coagulation.
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), an uncommon but deadly disorder, causes irregular blood clotting throughout the blood arteries of the body. If you have an injury or illness that interferes with your body's natural blood clotting mechanism, you might develop Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
DIC develops in two phases: excessive clotting and hemorrhage.
Blood clots spread throughout the blood arteries in the first stage of the clotting process. Blood flow might be decreased or blocked by the clots, which can harm organs.
As stage two of Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) develops, the excessive clotting depletes platelets and other clotting components necessary for blood coagulation. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) results in bleeding just below the skin, in the nose or mouth, or deep into the body without these platelets and clotting factors.
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a client admitted to the telemetry unit has a serum potassium level of 6.6 meq/l. which electrocardiographic (ecg) characteristic is commonly associated with this laboratory finding?
The electrocardiographic characteristic commonly associated with this laboratory finding is Peaked T waves.
The client has a high serum potassium level. The T-wave is an ECG feature that reflects ventricular repolarization. High serum potassium levels in the client can cause it to become large or spiky. The U-wave is an ECG waveform that can reflect the repolarization of the Purkinje fibers.
It is usually seen when the client's serum potassium level is low. The P-wave is an EKG characteristic that reflects the conduction of electrical impulses through the atria and is independent of the patient's serum potassium level. The QT interval is an ECG characteristic that reflects the time between ventricular depolarization and repolarization and is independent of the patient's serum potassium level.
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a nurse was administering a scheduled subcutaneous dose of heparin to a patient who has hiv when the needle penetrated the nurse's thumb. what prophylactic action should the nurse first take?
Wash the wounded location with soap and water to remove any dirt and debris.
Is getting into nursing school difficult?There is a ton of material to learn, challenging examinations, confusing schedules, and an endless supply of assignments. All of these characteristics may make it difficult for you to succeed academically. Nursing is a tremendously competitive job from the moment you begin the application process until you finish.
Is there a role for math in nursing?Although almost every institution requires at least one college-level math course, usually algebra, nursing in the "real world" generally just requires basic arithmetic skills.
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a client has just been started on opioid analgesia for pain control. the nurse assesses the client's level of sedation using a sedation scale and notes that the client is awake and alert. the nurse would assign which rating?
The nurse would assign which rating is 1.
A physiological response of sympathetic activation may indicate the presence of pain. Behaviors that may indicate pain include splinting, grimacing, moaning or groaning, slouched posture, and reluctance to move. Pain assessment in the Progressive Dementia Scale is a reliable assessment tool for people with dementia. It can be used for both nonverbal and verbal patients.
After the administration of analgesics, a re-evaluation will be performed to determine if the intervention was effective. Reassessment will occur within 60 minutes after drug administration. Effective methods of postoperative analgesia include prophylactic analgesia 24-hour analgesia PCA PRN administration breakthrough pain management and non-pharmacological interventions.
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a nurse is overheard in the hospital cafeteria making false, derogatory comments about a client. the nurse is guilty of:
A nurse is heard making false, disparaging remarks about a patient in the hospital cafeteria. The nurse violated people's privacy.
What is a role of a nurse?Nurses perform a variety of tasks including wound care, medication administration, routine physical exams, thorough medical history gathering, blood pressure or heart rate monitoring, diagnostic test execution, use of medical equipment, blood sample collection, and patient admission and discharge in accordance with physician directives.
What exactly does a nurse do all day?As a nurse practitioner, you can anticipate the following on your days: examining the vital signs. Direct patient care involves conducting physically and emotionally examinations, giving medication, and working with other members of the healthcare team to give all-encompassing care. Interpret diagnostic tests, including lab tests.
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what is the most common type of shock in children? a. hypovolemic c. neurogenic b. cardiogenic d. septic
a postoperative patient is admitted to the intensive care unit with hypovolemic shock. which nursing action does the nurse delegate to an experienced nursing assistant?
Nursing action the nurse delegate to an experienced nursing assistant is to Measure hourly urine output
What is hypovolemic shock ?Severe blood or other fluid loss renders the heart unable to pump enough blood to the body, resulting in hypovolemic shock, a life-threatening condition. Many organs may stop functioning after this kind of shock.
The nurse assigns the hourly urine output measurement on a patient in hypovolemic shock to an accomplished ICU UAP. Nursing assistant education covers monitoring hourly urine output and doesn't call for any unique clinical judgment. The results will be assessed by the nurse. Critical care nurses must use their clinical judgement when taking vital signs, checking oxygen saturation, and gauging a patient's mental state when they are critically ill because an urgent intervention might be required.Learn more about Hypovolemic shock here:
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which condition does the nurse anticipate in a patient with mild dementia with impaired physical function and lack of self-management.
What nurses do when caring for patients with mild dementia with impaired physical function and lack of self-management is to provide a safe place and communicate in simple, slow, and clear sentences.
Dementia is a group of conditions characterized by a decrease in at least two brain functions, such as loss of memory and judgment.
Symptoms of dementia include forgetfulness, limited social skills, and the ability to think so severely that it interferes with daily functioning.
However, medications and therapy can help manage the symptoms and some of the causes can be explained. Dementia is caused by damage to the brain's nerve cells in certain parts, thereby reducing the ability to communicate with other body nerves.
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the nurse is assessing clients on a cardiac unit. which client does the nurse assess most carefully for developing left-sided heart failure?
Clients at a cardiac unit are being evaluated by the nurse. A middle-aged woman with aortic stenosis is the patient the nurse evaluates most carefully for developing left-sided heart failure.
The heart's ability to pump blood is lost in left-sided heart failure. As a result, organs cannot get adequate oxygen. Complications of the condition include organ damage and right-sided heart failure. There are two distinct forms of left-sided heart failure: heart failure with systole: Your left ventricle, the bottom pumping chamber of your heart, is unable to adequately pump blood to your body. Heart failure with low ejection fraction is another name for it. Diastolic heart failure: The stiffness of the left ventricle prevents it from relaxing properly, which makes it challenging to fill with blood. The term cardiac failure with maintained ejection fraction is another name for this situation.
People who have coronary artery disease, heart attacks, high blood pressure, valvular heart disease, abnormal heart rhythms, and infiltrative illnesses like amyloid and sarcoid may experience left-sided heart failure. Additionally, certain cancer chemotherapy regimens that produce cardiotoxicity, diabetes, obesity, sleep apnea, advanced age, smoking, and heart-harming substances including certain medicines and energy drinks are risk factors for left-sided heart failure. Less frequently but nonetheless present are in several drugs used to treat various disease processes, including autoimmune illnesses and attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder.
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ohn is the compliance officer for abc medical group. if one of the providers ask john the meaning of the acronym cert, how should he reply? a. certified entry rate technology b. comprehensive error rate testing c. comprehensive error rate technology d. certified error rate technology
Certified error rate technology to one of the providers ask john the meaning of the acronym cert, how should he reply
What does the word CERT mean at its root?root, -cert- The word "cert" is derived from Latin and means "certain; sure; true." Words like "ascertain," "certain," "certificate," "certify," "concert," and "disconcerted" all have this meaning.
What roles does CERT play?US-CERT is in charge of identifying and minimizing cyberthreats and vulnerabilities, sharing information on cyberthreat warnings, and organizing incident response procedures.
How can CERT help victims of cyberattacks by offering services?the avoidance of cyberattacks against the nation's cyberspace. Taking action after a cyberattack to minimize damage and speed up recovery can ultimately reduce the country's susceptibility to cyberattacks. increasing the general public's understanding of cyberspace.
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why is ti necessary to include a note in the patient's chart when he does not show up for scheduled appointmetn
Answer:
It could be to prepare for potential legal consequences.
Explanation:
It can provide a record of whether the patients condition has worsened, but claims that providers refused to see them.
for a client who has a chest tube connected to a closed water-seal drainage system, the nurse should include which action in the care plan?
For a client that has a chest tube connected to a closed water seal drainage system, the nurse should include the action of measuring and documenting drainage in the collection chamber in the client's care plan.
In the case above, the patient has a chest tube connected to a closed water seal drainage system. In this case, the nurse that's tending to the patient should measure and document the amount of drainage regularly. The purpose is to detect abnormal drainage patterns. If excessive, it may indicate a hemorrhage. If decreased, it may indicate a blockage. Make sure that the collection chamber is kept below chest level.
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the nonnutritive chemical that is found in fruits and vegetables and have disease-preventing properties are known as . fshn
The non-nutritive chemical that is found in fruits and vegetables and have disease-preventing properties are known as Phytochemicals
What is Phytochemicals ?The amount of calories and other nutrients in non-nutritive substances is either zero or very low. They offer neither vitamins nor minerals. Artificial or non-caloric sweeteners frequently come to mind when discussing non-nutritive substances. In spite of the fact that they are not the only non-nutritive substances in existence, these ones are in fact not nutrients.
Additionally non-nutritive substances are phytochemicals. Phytochemicals are substances that are naturally present in plants, such as fruits and vegetables, and have the ability to improve one's health. Some phytochemicals are thought to guard against heart disease and cancer. Lycopene, for instance, which is present in red-orange fruits and vegetables and is thought to prevent prostate cancer.Learn more about Phytochemicals here:
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osteoporosis drugs are most commonly used in post-menopausal women. why is this population in most need of treatment? g
Because estrogen, a female hormone that aids in maintaining bone mass, is less present in women's bodies after menopause, they are more likely to develop osteoporosis.
What is drug explain?Substances that alter a person's physically or mentally state are known as drugs. They might have an impact on your senses, behaviour, comprehension, emotions, and brain function. They are so unpredictable and hazardous, particularly for young individuals. Drug results differ types of drugs and the user.
What purpose do drugs serve?Medicines are materials or molecules that alleviate symptoms, treat, stop, or prevent illness, or help with disease diagnosis. Doctors can now save and treat numerous diseases because of advances in medicine.
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