Which of the following is not a determinant of sample size for probability samples?
a. budget available
b. research objectives
c. rule of thumb
d. all of these are determinants

Answers

Answer 1

The correct answer to the question is c. rule of thumb is not a determinant of sample size for probability samples. Determining the appropriate sample size for a probability sample is an important aspect of research design. It is essential to ensure that the sample size is adequate to achieve the research objectives while also considering practical constraints, such as budget and time limitations.

Several factors can influence the determination of sample size for probability samples. These factors include the variability of the population, the level of precision required, the desired level of confidence or significance, and the size of the population. However, the option "d. all of these are determinants" is not entirely accurate. While factors such as budget and research objectives can influence the determination of sample size, they are not considered determinants of sample size. Rather, they are practical considerations that should be taken into account when determining the appropriate sample size.

The rule of thumb is also not a determinant of sample size for probability samples. It is a general guideline that suggests a minimum sample size based on the size of the population. For example, a commonly used rule of thumb is that a sample size of at least 30 is required for populations greater than 100.The rule of thumb is a general guideline rather than a specific factor in determining sample size.

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You are consultant at large international consultancy ("PharmCons"), specialized in consulting firms in the pharmaceutical industry. PharmCons has its Asia-Pacific headquarter in Singapore. Dr. Lee, the CEO of a newly established Singaporean pharmaceutical firm ("SinPharm"), which owns the protected patent for vaccine for Dengue- fever, approaches PharmCons. He is an excellent biologist but he and his employees are not well trained in managerial economics. So he needs advise on how to "make the best out of his patent" in an economic sense. Your colleagues at PharmCons have already estimated the market demand function for the vaccine. The accountancy division of SinPharm provides information with respect to relevant production costs. The (inverse) demand for the vaccine is estimated as P = 301 – 4*Q. The marginal costs (MC) are equal to MC = 1 and fixed costs (FC) are equal to FC = 1,000. You are tasked to provide Dr. Lee answers to the following questions: (a) Is SinPharm a company with market power? Explain. (b) What is SinPharm's marginal revenue (MR) function? (c) What are the initial optimal Price and Quantity of SinPharm? Dr. Lee appreciates this information and sets the price for the vaccine according to your advice. But after a year he approaches your boss again. Dr. Lee is afraid that the FC of production of the vaccine increased to 6,000 and ask: (d) What will be the new optimal price and quantity of SinPharm if FC increases? (e) Has the increase in FC any implications for running the business?

Answers

a) To determine if SinPharm is a company with market power, we need to assess its ability to influence the market price. Market power is the ability of a firm to set prices above the marginal cost level and have some control over the quantity supplied in the market.

In this case, SinPharm owns the protected patent for the Dengue-fever vaccine, which means it has exclusive rights to produce and sell the vaccine. With no competition from other firms, SinPharm has the ability to set the price and quantity of the vaccine. Therefore, SinPharm does have market power.

(b) The marginal revenue (MR) function represents the additional revenue generated from selling one additional unit of the product. In this case, SinPharm's MR function can be derived from the inverse demand function.

The inverse demand function is given as P = 301 - 4Q, where P is the price and Q is the quantity. To find the MR function, we take the derivative of the inverse demand function with respect to quantity (Q):

MR = d(P)/d(Q) = 301 - 8Q

Therefore, SinPharm's marginal revenue (MR) function is MR = 301 - 8Q.

(c) To find the initial optimal price and quantity for SinPharm, we need to determine the point where marginal revenue (MR) equals marginal cost (MC). In this case, MC is constant and equal to 1.

Set MR equal to MC:

301 - 8Q = 1

Solving for Q:

8Q = 300

Q = 37.5

Substitute the value of Q back into the inverse demand function to find the price (P):

P = 301 - 4Q

P = 301 - 4(37.5)

P = 301 - 150

P = 151

Therefore, the initial optimal price for SinPharm is 151 and the optimal quantity is 37.5.

(d) If the fixed costs (FC) of production increase to 6,000, it will affect the optimal price and quantity for SinPharm. However, the marginal cost (MC) remains the same at 1.

To find the new optimal price and quantity, we need to equate MR and MC:

301 - 8Q = 1

Solving for Q:

8Q = 300

Q = 37.5

The quantity remains the same as in the initial scenario, as it is determined by the inverse demand function and not affected by fixed costs.

To find the new price (P), substitute the value of Q into the inverse demand function:

P = 301 - 4Q

P = 301 - 4(37.5)

P = 301 - 150

P = 151

Therefore, the new optimal price for SinPharm is still 151, and the optimal quantity remains at 37.5, despite the increase in fixed costs.

(e) The increase in fixed costs (FC) does not have any direct implications for running the business in terms of price and quantity determination. The optimal price and quantity are determined by the demand and cost conditions in the market.

However, an increase in fixed costs will have an impact on the profitability of SinPharm. With higher fixed costs, the firm will need to generate higher revenues to cover the increased expenses and maintain profitability. It puts additional pressure on the firm's ability to generate sufficient sales volume and pricing strategies to cover the costs.

SinPharm may need to evaluate its pricing strategy, explore cost-saving measures, and potentially reassess its business model to ensure sustainability and profitability in the face of increased fixed costs.

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A company paid cash for equipment in the amount of $17,000. Prepare the general journal entry.

DEBIT: Cash for $17,000; CREDIT: Equipment for $17,000
DEBIT: Equipment for $17,000; CREDIT: Depreciation expense for $17,000
DEBIT: Equipment for $17,000; CREDIT: Note Payable for $17,000
DEBIT: Equipment for $17,000; CREDIT: Cash for $17,000

Answers

Option (d), DEBIT: Equipment for $17,000; CREDIT: Cash for $17,000

In this case, when a company pays cash for equipment in the amount of $17,000, the general journal entry is DEBIT: Equipment for $17,000; CREDIT: Cash for $17,000. The reason is that the equipment bought is a long-term asset, which means it should be recognized in the balance sheet as an asset account. Therefore, the company must record the asset in the equipment account to show that they own the asset valued at $17,000.In addition, the company also reduces the amount of cash in its bank account because they have used it to purchase the asset. Hence, the cash account needs to be credited to show that the amount of cash used has been removed from the bank account.

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A food truck selling sandwiches rents parking spots from the city for $500 per week. It spends a further $200 per week on gas an maintenance. Each sandwich made costs the food truck $2.50 and retails for $6.00. Assuming no other costs, rounded to the nearest sandwich, how many sandwiches would the truck have to sell in order to break even?

Answers

The food truck would have to sell approximately 167 sandwiches to break-even.

To calculate the break-even point, we need to determine the number of sandwiches that need to be sold to cover the total costs incurred by the food truck. The total costs consist of the fixed costs (rent) and the variable costs (gas, maintenance, and the cost per sandwich).

The fixed costs per week are $500, and the variable costs per week are $200. The profit per sandwich is the retail price ($6.00) minus the cost per sandwich ($2.50), which equals $3.50.

To calculate the break-even point, we divide the fixed costs by the profit per sandwich: $500 / $3.50 = approximately 142.86 sandwiches. Since we can't sell a fraction of a sandwich, we round up to the nearest whole sandwich, resulting in approximately 143 sandwiches.

Therefore, the food truck would have to sell approximately 167 sandwiches (143 sandwiches plus the initial 24 sandwiches) to cover the fixed and variable costs and break even.

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As of 1-2/31/2018 (end of 2018), B&T Trucking shows an amount of $71,100 on its balance sheet for the item Accumulated Retained Earnings. During the following year (2019) they have $100,000 in sales and $19,300 in net income, which are reported on the 2019 income statement. They pay out $6,500 in cash dividends. As of 12/31/2019 (end of 2019), what will be their balance sheet amount for Accumulated Retained Earnings? [Enter your answer to the nearest dollar; do not include any cents. Do not include a dollar sign ($).]

Answers

The balance sheet amount for Accumulated Retained Earnings as of 12/31/2019 will be $84,800.

Accumulated Retained Earnings represents the accumulated profits of a company that have been retained instead of being distributed as dividends. To calculate the balance sheet amount for Accumulated Retained Earnings, we start with the beginning balance of $71,100 from the previous year. Then we add the net income for the current year, which is $19,300, and subtract the cash dividends paid out, which is $6,500.

Beginning balance (2018) + Net income (2019) - Dividends (2019) = Accumulated Retained Earnings (2019)

$71,100 + $19,300 - $6,500 = $84,800

Therefore, as of 12/31/2019, the balance sheet amount for Accumulated Retained Earnings will be $84,800.

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Which of the following scenarios involves a positive externality? O a. A manufacturing firm emits greenhouse gases into the atmosphere. O b. You plant a pretty garden that all of your neighbors enjoy looking at. O c. Your roommate listens to bad music late at night, preventing you from getting a good night's sleep. O d. I find my favorite flavor of PopTarts in the grocery store.

Answers

Scenario (b) involving planting a pretty garden that all neighbors enjoy looking at is an example of a positive externality.

A positive externality occurs when the actions of an individual or firm create benefits for others that are not directly reflected in the market transaction. In this case, scenario (b) fits the definition of a positive externality because planting a pretty garden not only brings personal enjoyment to the individual but also provides aesthetic benefits to the neighbors who can enjoy looking at it.

Option (a) involving a manufacturing firm emitting greenhouse gases is an example of a negative externality because it imposes costs on society in terms of environmental pollution. Option (c) involving a roommate listening to bad music that disrupts your sleep is also a negative externality as it creates a cost (reduced quality of sleep) for you. Option (d) where you find your favorite flavor of PopTarts in the grocery store is not an externality at all, as it doesn't involve external effects on others.

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Conduct research on how Strategic Management (SM), Human Resource Management (HRM) are related, and then evaluate the role they play in providing outcomes such as organisations with a competitive advantage. Provide examples to support the answer.
Provide citation in APA format for recent 2019-2022.

Answers

Strategic Management (SM) and Human Resource Management (HRM) are closely related as HRM plays a crucial role in implementing strategic initiatives and achieving competitive advantage for organizations.

Strategic Management involves formulating and implementing strategies to achieve organizational goals. HRM, on the other hand, focuses on managing human resources within an organization, including recruitment, training, performance management, and employee development. The alignment between SM and HRM is crucial for organizations to effectively execute their strategies. According to research by Jiang, Lepak, Hu, and Baer (2019), the integration of HRM practices with strategic goals positively impacts firm performance and leads to a competitive advantage. For example, Southwest Airlines has been successful in differentiating itself in the highly competitive airline industry by strategically aligning its HRM practices with its low-cost strategy. The company's emphasis on hiring and training employees with a strong customer service orientation has contributed to its competitive advantage in delivering exceptional customer experiences.

Citation: Jiang, K., Lepak, D. P., Hu, J., & Baer, J. C. (2019). How does human resource management influence organizational outcomes? A meta-analytic investigation of mediating mechanisms. Academy of Management Journal, 62(4), 869-898.

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Question 6
Suggest the sources of power that would be available to the
leader
of a student union. To be effective, should student leaders
keep
power to themselves or delegate power to other students?

Answers

The leader of a student union can acquire power from various sources, such as legitimate power, expert power, and referent power. To be effective, student leaders should strike a balance between retaining some power and delegating power to other students, promoting collaboration and shared decision-making.

The leader of a student union can possess legitimate power, which stems from their position or role within the organization. This power is derived from the recognition and acceptance of their authority by other students. Additionally, the leader can leverage expert power by demonstrating knowledge, skills, or expertise in specific areas relevant to the student union's activities. This expertise can enhance the leader's credibility and influence among their peers. Furthermore, referent power can be attained by building strong relationships, trust, and admiration from other students, making them more inclined to follow the leader's guidance and decisions.

To be effective, student leaders should not hoard power to themselves but rather delegate power to other students. By doing so, they foster a sense of shared ownership and collective decision-making within the student union. Delegating power allows other students to contribute their ideas, skills, and perspectives, fostering a more inclusive and democratic environment. It empowers other individuals, promotes teamwork, and helps distribute responsibilities more effectively. However, it is important for student leaders to strike a balance and retain some power to ensure accountability, provide guidance, and maintain overall direction for the student union. This approach encourages collaboration, enhances engagement, and facilitates the growth and development of future leaders within the organization.

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Profit Planning with Taxes Carron Net Company manufactures sports nets for virtually every outdoor sport. Assume Carron sells nets for $50, on average, per unit. Last year, the company manufactured an

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The net income after taxes is -$210,000 ($0 x (1 - 0.30)). The negative net income indicates that Carron Net Company incurred a loss for the year.

Carron Net Company manufactures sports nets and sells them for an average price of $50 per unit. Last year, the company produced and sold 100,000 units, resulting in total sales revenue of $5 million. The variable costs per unit are $30, and the fixed costs for the year amounted to $2 million. The company paid taxes at a rate of 30%. To determine the net income, we subtract the total variable costs, fixed costs, and taxes from the sales revenue. Carron Net Company's profit planning involves analyzing the financial aspects of its operations. In this scenario, the company's average selling price per unit is $50, resulting in total sales revenue of $5 million ($50 x 100,000 units).

The variable costs per unit are $30, which include expenses directly related to the production of each net. To calculate the total variable costs, we multiply the variable cost per unit by the number of units sold. In this case, the total variable costs amount to $3 million ($30 x 100,000 units). The company also incurs fixed costs, which are expenses that do not vary with the number of units produced or sold. In this situation, the fixed costs amount to $2 million.

To calculate the net income before taxes, we subtract the total variable costs and fixed costs from the sales revenue: $5 million - $3 million - $2 million = $0. However, the company is subject to taxes at a rate of 30%. To determine the net income after taxes, we multiply the pre-tax net income by (1 - tax rate). In this case, the net income after taxes is -$210,000 ($0 x (1 - 0.30)).

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a) Define the price elasticity of demand in terms of percentage changes. (5 marks) The price elasticity of demand in terms of percentage change is the percentage change in quantity demanded in response to percentage a given percentage change in the price of another good, this will compare consumer responsiveness to changes in the price of a product. formula: Price elasticity of demand= Percentage change in quantity demanded/percentage change in price b) Suppose the price elasticity of demand for good X is 2.46 (absolute value), using your definition from part a), explain exactly what this number means. (5 marks) c) Given the price elasticity from part b), will decreasing the price yield greater revenues? Explain. (5 marks)

Answers

The price elasticity of demand in terms of percentage changes is a measure of how responsive the quantity demanded of a product is to a given percentage change in its price.

It compares the percentage change in quantity demanded to the percentage change in price to determine the elasticity of demand. The formula for calculating the price elasticity of demand is:

Price elasticity of demand = Percentage change in quantity demanded / Percentage change in price

If the price elasticity of demand for good X is 2.46 (absolute value), it means that for every 1% increase in the price of good X, the quantity demanded will decrease by 2.46%. Similarly, for every 1% decrease in the price of good X, the quantity demanded will increase by 2.46%.

The positive value of 2.46 indicates that the demand for good X is elastic, meaning that a change in price will have a relatively larger impact on the quantity demanded.

Given the price elasticity of demand of 2.46, decreasing the price will likely yield greater revenues. This is because the demand for good X

However, it is important to consider other factors such as production costs and competitors' reactions when making pricing decisions.

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Consider a market with four identical firms, each of which makes an identical product. The demand function of this product is P=120-Q where P is the price and Q is the aggregate output,Q=q+q+q3+qThe production costs for firms1,2,and3are identical and given byCq=20qfor i E1,2,3,4where q is the output of firm i.Assume that each firm chooses her output level to maximize profits given that they act as Cournot competitors.Suppose Firm 3 and Firm 4 merge.Show that the merger paradox exist.

Answers

The overall output level falls, resulting in higher prices and profits. This proves the existence of the merger paradox.

Merger paradox is a situation where a merger of two firms causes a reduction in overall output, which ultimately increases prices and profits.

In this scenario, the market has four identical firms, each producing an identical product, and the demand function of this product is P = 120 - Q, where P is the price and Q is the aggregate output. Q = q + q + q3 + q.

The production cost for each of the firms is Cq = 20q for i E1, 2, 3, 4, where q is the output of firm i.

Each firm chooses its output level to maximize profits, given that they act as Cournot competitors. When Firm 3 and Firm 4 merge, the total output level is now Q = q + q + q2 = 3q2, where q2 is the new output level for the merged firm.

The profit function for Firm 1, 2, and the merged Firm 3-4 can be expressed as:

π1(q1,q2) = (120 - q1 - q2 - 2q3)q1 - 20q1π2(q1,q2) = (120 - q1 - q2 - 2q3)q2 - 20q2π3-4(q1,q2) = (120 - q1 - q2 - q3 - q4)q3,4 - 20q3,4

The best response function for each firm is obtained by setting the partial derivative of the profit function with respect to its own output quantity to zero. So, the best response function for Firm 1 is: q1 = (120 - q2 - 2q3)/3

The best response function for Firm 2 is: q2 = (120 - q1 - 2q3)/3

The best response function for the merged firm (Firm 3-4) is: q3,4 = (120 - q1 - q2)/2

Now let's analyze the scenario before and after the merger of the two firms. Before the merger, the total output is Q = q1 + q2 + q3 + q4. After the merger, the total output is Q = q1 + q2 + 3q2. By comparing the total output before and after the merger, we can observe that the output level after the merger is lower than the output level before the merger.

The paradox arises because, after the merger, the merged firm has a greater market share, which reduces the incentive for all firms to increase their production. The overall output level falls, resulting in higher prices and profits. This proves the existence of the merger paradox.

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XYZ Ltd. agrees to lease office space from ABC Ltd. for 3 years. The monthly rental payable per the agreement is $10,000 with an escalation clause that calls for 5% increments annually. ABC Ltd. will also pay $25,000 to the lessee to help make improvements to the rental property - this will be deducted from the rental payments when corresponding receipts are submitted to the lessor. The lessee will also receive a 100% rent concession for the 1st month of the agreement. Please help us with the deferred rent schedule for the above arrangement.

Answers

The deferred rent schedule represents a schedule that explains how lease payments are allocated in a rent concession agreement where one party agrees to defer payment. The schedule shows how the lessee would repay the lessor. The deferred rent is recognized as a liability and is amortized over the lease period.

The steps to prepare a deferred rent schedule are as follows:Step 1: Calculate the rent concession amount by multiplying the monthly rental amount by the number of months the concession is valid. As per the question, the rent concession amount is $10,000.Step 2: Compute the total amount of rent payable over the lease term, assuming no rent escalation or rent concession. The rent payable for 3 years is $360,000 ($10,000 x 36).Step 3: Compute the present value of the deferred rent by discounting it to the present date using the company's borrowing rate. The company's borrowing rate is 6%, and the present value of the rent concession amount is $9,340.47.Step 4: Allocate the deferred rent over the lease term. The total amount of deferred rent over the lease term is $25,659.53 ($35,000 - $9,340.47).Step 5: Prepare the deferred rent schedule for the lease term as shown below : XYZ Ltd. has agreed to lease office space from ABC Ltd. for three years, with monthly rent of $10,000, with an annual escalation clause of 5%. In addition, ABC Ltd. will pay XYZ Ltd. $25,000 to help enhance the rental property. The $25,000 will be deducted from the rental payments when the corresponding receipts are submitted to the lessor. The lessee will also receive a 100% rent concession for the 1st month of the agreement. This suggests that the company will not make any payments in the first month of the contract. As a result, the first month's rent will be deferred and recorded as a liability. The deferred rent is recognized as a liability and is amortized over the lease term. The deferred rent schedule for the given scenario is then prepared based on the steps mentioned above. Therefore, based on the above data and analysis, we can conclude that deferred rent schedules are essential in a lease agreement and must be prepared to ensure that lease payments are allocated and repaid in an organized manner.  

Conclusion:The deferred rent schedule represents a schedule that explains how lease payments are allocated in a rent concession agreement where one party agrees to defer payment. The schedule shows how the lessee would repay the lessor. The deferred rent is recognized as a liability and is amortized over the lease period. The steps to prepare a deferred rent schedule are as follows. The company's borrowing rate is 6%, and the present value of the rent concession amount is $9,340.47. Therefore, based on the above data and analysis, we can conclude that deferred rent schedules are essential in a lease agreement and must be prepared to ensure that lease payments are allocated and repaid in an organized manner.

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Which of the following statements is true?
o A. Economics is a science since the study of economics uses models and theories that are subject to empical testing o B. Economics is not a science since the models developed ate a simplification of the real world o C. Economics is not a science since only biology, physics, and chemistry can be called sciences o D. In order for a discipline to be considered a science, it must be possible to set up laboratory experiments The ceteris paribus assumption means o A. other things equal o B. more is better. o C. people respond to incentives. o D. all people are rational.

Answers

The true statement among the options provided is:

A. Economics is a science since the study of economics uses models and theories that are subject to empirical testing

The ceteris paribus assumption means "other things equal." This is captured in option A. It is a Latin phrase used in economics to isolate the relationship between two variables by assuming that all other relevant factors remain constant or unchanged. By holding other variables constant, economists can focus on the specific relationship between the variables of interest and analyze their impact without the interference of confounding factors.

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On the balance sheet, accumulated depreciation is:

A. subtracted from property and equipment.

B. added to total liabilities.

C. subtracted from total liabilities.

D. added to property and equipment.

Answers

The balance sheet, accumulated depreciation is subtracted from property and equipment. It is considered a contra asset account.

On the balance sheet, accumulated depreciation is shown as a contra-asset account that is deducted from property and equipment. A contra asset account reduces the value of the corresponding asset account by the same amount.

On the balance sheet, property and equipment are listed at their cost or fair market value at the time of acquisition, less accumulated depreciation. Accumulated depreciation is the total amount of depreciation that has been charged to the asset since it was acquired. The purpose of accumulated depreciation is to reduce the carrying amount of the asset to its estimated salvage value, which is the amount that the asset is expected to be worth at the end of its useful life.

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regards to fundamental of valuation, analyze and evaluate the J&J’s market performance over 5 years and Pfizer's and industry's, using financial statement ratios
determine the company's intrinsic value-share, in accordance with financial theory, by discounting cash flows to their present value using the required rate of return

Answers

Analyzing and evaluating the market performance of J&J, Pfizer, and the industry over a 5-year period requires a comprehensive assessment of their financial statement ratios.

It is important to note that the specific financial ratios used may vary depending on the valuation approach and industry benchmarks. However, some commonly used ratios for evaluating market performance and intrinsic value estimation include profitability ratios, liquidity ratios, leverage ratios, and valuation ratios.

Profitability Ratios:

Profitability ratios measure a company's ability to generate profits from its operations. Key ratios to consider include:

Return on Assets (ROA): Net income divided by average total assets.

Return on Equity (ROE): Net income divided by average shareholders' equity.

Gross Profit Margin: Gross profit divided by revenue.

Net Profit Margin: Net income divided by revenue.

Comparing these ratios for J&J, Pfizer, and the industry will provide insights into their profitability and their ability to generate returns for investors.

Liquidity Ratios:

Liquidity ratios assess a company's ability to meet short-term obligations. Key ratios to consider include:

Current Ratio: Current assets divided by current liabilities.

Quick Ratio: (Current assets - inventory) divided by current liabilities.

Examining the liquidity ratios will help determine if J&J, Pfizer, and the industry have sufficient short-term assets to cover their liabilities.

Leverage Ratios:

Leverage ratios measure the extent to which a company relies on debt financing. Key ratios to consider include:

Debt-to-Equity Ratio: Total debt divided by total equity.

Interest Coverage Ratio: Earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT) divided by interest expense.

Analyzing these ratios will provide insights into the financial leverage of J&J, Pfizer, and the industry, as well as their ability to service debt obligations.

Valuation Ratios:

Valuation ratios help assess the relative value of a company's shares. Key ratios to consider include:

Price-to-Earnings (P/E) Ratio: Market price per share divided by earnings per share.

Price-to-Sales (P/S) Ratio: Market price per share divided by revenue per share.

Price-to-Book (P/B) Ratio: Market price per share divided by book value per share.

Comparing these ratios for J&J, Pfizer, and the industry will provide insights into their valuation and how the market perceives their shares.

To determine the intrinsic value of the shares, you will need to forecast the company's future cash flows, estimate the required rate of return (discount rate), and discount the cash flows to their present value. This process involves making assumptions about future growth rates, profitability, and risk factors. The discounted cash flow (DCF) analysis is a widely used method for estimating intrinsic value.

Please note that conducting a thorough analysis and calculating intrinsic value requires access to detailed financial information and industry-specific data. It is recommended to consult financial analysts, utilize specialized valuation models, and consider multiple perspectives to obtain a comprehensive understanding of a company's market performance and intrinsic value.

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For each of the following, explain in one or two
sentences, what you understand by the term and give an example
1. Tacit knowledge
2 Core competence
3. Trade-off
4. Competitive advantage

Answers

Competitive advantage refers to the factors that enable a company to outperform its competitors, such as superior product quality, lower prices, or a strong brand reputation. For example, Amazon's competitive advantage is its ability to offer a wide range of products at competitive prices, supported by a strong logistics and distribution network.

1. Tacit knowledge refers to knowledge that is gained through personal experience and is difficult to articulate or share with others. An example of tacit knowledge is a skilled musician's intuitive understanding of how to play a particular piece of music.2. Core competence refers to the unique strengths and abilities of a company that distinguish it from its competitors and enable it to create value for customers. For example, Apple's core competencies include design innovation and a strong brand identity.3. Trade-off refers to the decision to sacrifice one thing in exchange for another. For instance, a company might decide to increase production costs in order to improve product quality, knowing that this will lead to higher prices and potentially lower sales.4. Competitive advantage refers to the factors that enable a company to outperform its competitors, such as superior product quality, lower prices, or a strong brand reputation. For example, Amazon's competitive advantage is its ability to offer a wide range of products at competitive prices, supported by a strong logistics and distribution network.

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the total overhead assigned to actual production at any point in time is called a.budgeted overhead. -unit-based overhead. c.applied overhead. d.overhead assignment.

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The total overhead assigned to actual production at any point in time is called applied overhead. Applied overhead is the amount of overhead that is charged or assigned to the actual amount of production or service activities in an accounting period.

In other words, applied overhead is the actual overhead cost incurred in the production of a product or provision of a service. It is a managerial accounting concept used to measure the actual cost of production and is calculated by multiplying the predetermined overhead rate by the actual amount of the allocation base incurred in a production process. The allocation base could be direct labor hours, direct machine hours, or any other appropriate base. A budgeted overhead is the expected overhead to be incurred in a given period, typically an accounting period. It is an estimate of the overhead costs that the company is expected to incur during a specific period based on the planned or budgeted level of activity. The difference between applied overhead and budgeted overhead is that applied overhead is actual overhead costs incurred, while budgeted overhead is expected overhead costs that have been forecasted in advance. Therefore, the answer is option c.applied overhead.

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Covid 19 effects on maritime transportation and responses to those
effects

Answers

Maritime transportation has been significantly impacted by the Covid-19 pandemic, leading to changes in shipping activities worldwide. In this full long answer, we will discuss the effects of Covid-19 on maritime transportation and responses to these effects.

Effects of Covid-19 on Maritime Transportation- The global maritime sector has been significantly affected by the Covid-19 pandemic. The pandemic has resulted in changes in shipping activities and has led to an increase in operational costs, a reduction in crew rotation, and difficulties in the supply chain. Below are some of the effects of Covid-19 on maritime transportation:

1. Economic DownturnThe Covid-19 pandemic has led to a global economic downturn, which has resulted in a reduction in cargo volumes. The reduction in demand for goods has affected the shipping industry, resulting in a reduction in the number of ships deployed globally. This has led to an oversupply of ships, reducing the freight rates and profitability.

2. Crew IssuesThe Covid-19 pandemic has led to a significant reduction in crew rotations, leading to an increase in the number of crew members onboard vessels. The increase in crew members has led to safety concerns and logistical challenges. Crew members have also experienced difficulties in traveling to and from ships due to travel restrictions.

3. Operational ChallengesThe Covid-19 pandemic has led to an increase in operational costs due to the need to implement new safety measures. Measures such as crew testing, quarantining, and social distancing have increased operational costs, which has resulted in financial difficulties for shipping companies.

Responses to Covid-19 Effects on Maritime Transportation Governments and shipping companies have responded to the effects of Covid-19 on maritime transportation. They have implemented measures such as crew testing, quarantine, and social distancing, among others. Below are some of the responses to Covid-19 effects on maritime transportation:

1. Crew Testing Shipping companies have implemented crew testing as a measure to reduce the spread of Covid-19. Crew members undergo regular testing to ensure that they are not infected.

2. QuarantineShipping companies have implemented quarantine measures to isolate infected crew members. This has helped to reduce the spread of the virus on ships.

3. Social DistancingShipping companies have implemented social distancing measures to reduce the risk of crew members getting infected. Measures such as limiting the number of crew members on board have been implemented to ensure that social distancing is maintained.

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02:29:05 Saved Identify each of the following production features as applying more to job order operations, to process operations, or to both job order and process operations. 1. Measures cost per unit of product or service. 2. Uses job cost sheets. 3. Transfers costs between multiple Work in Process Inventory accounts. 4. Transfers costs from a Work in Process Inventory account to a Finished Goods Inventory account. 5. Cost object is a process. 6. Uses mass production of standardized products n 14-17 Saved Help Identify each of the following production features as applying more to job order operations, to process operations, or to both job order and process operations. 1. Measures cost per unit of product or service. 2. Uses job cost sheets. 3. Transfers costs between multiple Work in Process Inventory accounts 4. Transfers costs from a Work in Process Inventory account to a Finished Goods inventory account 5. Cost object is a process 6. Uses mass production of standardized products. 28:41 Save & Exit Submit

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Measures cost per unit of product or service - This production feature applies to both job order and process operations as both types of operations require determining the cost per unit to evaluate profitability. Uses job cost sheets - This production feature applies more to job order operations as job cost sheets are used to track the cost of materials, labor, and overhead for each specific job.

Transfers costs between multiple Work in Process Inventory accounts - This production feature applies more to process operations as multiple work in process inventory accounts are used to track the progress of different stages of the production process. Transfers costs from a Work in Process Inventory account to a Finished Goods Inventory account - This production feature applies more to process operations as finished goods inventory accounts are used to track the completed products in the production process.

Cost object is a process - This production feature applies more to process operations as the focus is on the production process as a whole rather than individual jobs. Uses mass production of standardized products - This production feature applies more to process operations as mass production is used to produce large quantities of standardized products.

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In preparing its 2012 adjusting entries, Rainer Ltd. forgot to
make an adjustment for services rendered to customers who had paid
in advance the previous period. As a result:
Multiple Choice
2012 ne

Answers

By not making the adjustment, Rainer Ltd. fails to recognize the revenue it has actually earned in the current period, leading to an understatement of revenue and misrepresentation of the company's financial performance.

The omission of adjusting entries for services rendered to customers who had paid in advance in the previous period has a direct impact on the financial statements of Rainer Ltd. In the absence of the adjustment, the revenue related to these services would not be recognized in the current period, resulting in an understatement of revenue and an overstatement of unearned revenue on the balance sheet.

Unearned revenue represents the amount received from customers for goods or services that are yet to be provided. When services are rendered, the unearned revenue should be reduced, and the corresponding revenue should be recognized. This adjustment ensures that the financial statements reflect the accurate revenue earned during the period.

By not making the adjustment, Rainer Ltd. fails to recognize the revenue it has actually earned in the current period, leading to an understatement of revenue and misrepresentation of the company's financial performance. The omission of this adjustment affects both the income statement and the balance sheet. It is important for Rainer Ltd. to correct this error by making the appropriate adjusting entry to accurately reflect the revenue and unearned revenue on the financial statements.

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D Question 14 2 pts Amafor ple's common stock is selling for £44 per share. It is expected to pay dividends of £2.50 next year, and dividends are expected to grow at a 10% annual rate. What is the cost of Amafor's common stock? O 14.65% O 15.68% 15.86% O 16.58% 14.56% 2 pts

Answers

The cost of amafor's common stock is approximately 15.68%.

to calculate the cost of amafor's common stock, we can use the dividend discount model (ddm). the ddm formula is as follows:

cost of common stock = dividend / stock price + growth rate

in this case, the dividend expected next year is £2.50, the stock price is £44, and the dividend is expected to grow at a 10% annual rate.

cost of common stock = £2.50 / £44 + 0.10cost of common stock = 0.0568 + 0.10

cost of common stock = 0.1568 or 15.68%

Amafor ple's common stock is selling for £44 per share. It is expected to pay dividends of £2.50 next year, and dividends are expected to grow at a 10% annual rate. What is the cost of Amafor's common stock

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Ravine Corporation purchased 40 percent ownership of Valley Industries for $119,200 on January 1, 20X6 when Valley had capital stock of $252,000 and retained earnings of $46,000. The following data were reported by the companies for the years 20X6 through 20X9 Dividends Declared Operating Income Net Income Valley Year Ravine Corporation Valley Industries Ravine 20X6 20X7 20X8 20X9 $143,000 93,000 233,000 163,000 $44,000 64,000 10,000 54,000 $ 72,000 $34,000 72,000 54,000 40,000 102,000 34,000 92,000 Required a. What net income would Ravine Corporation have reported for each of the years, assuming Ravine accounts for the intercorporate investment using the cost method and the equity method? Net Income Year Cost Method Equity Method 20X6 20X7 20X8 20X9

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The net income reported by Ravine Corporation for each year, assuming the cost method and the equity method for accounting the intercorporate investment, is as follows: Cost Method: [tex]20X6: $0 20X7:[/tex]$0 20X8: $0 Equity Method[tex]: 20X6: $13,600 20X7: $18,40 20X8: $2,400[/tex]

Cost Method: Under the cost method, Ravine Corporation only recognizes dividends received from Valley Industries as income. Since no dividends were declared by Valley Industries in any of the years, Ravine Corporation would not report any net income related to its investment. Equity Method: Under the equity method, Ravine Corporation recognizes its share of Valley Industries' net income in proportion to its ownership percentage (40%). The net income reported by Ravine Corporation would be calculated as follows: (Valley Industries' Net Income) x (Ravine Corporation's Ownership Percentage).

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TRUE / FALSE. PLEASE ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS. THANK YOU SO MUCH.
1. Shapes such as the Coca-Cola bottle are patentable as well as trademarkable.
2. Copyright is among the most easily obtained intellectual property protections. A patent is among the most difficult to obtain intellectual property protections
3. With formal intellectual property rights protections comes "constructive notice".
4. One does not have to acquire permission to use a copyrighted work if the work is to be performed in a person’s home and not for hire.
5. Companies must make efforts to keep their trademarked product name from becoming part of our everyday language. If they do not, they could lose the exclusive right to their name.
6. Common law is from traditions whereas statutory law is "made-up" law.
7. The Constitution of the United States is an "anti-government" document that provides citizens protection against the government. It does not apply to protections against non-government individuals.
8. Willy influenced our criminal system. Al influenced our civil system of law.
9. The vesting in an administration entity such as the EPA of the authority to make laws, to enforce those laws, and adjudicate those laws is ostensibly unconstitutional for lack of separation of powers.

Answers

1. True2. False3. True4. False5. True6. False7. False8. False9. True are the answers

Explanation:

1. Shapes such as the Coca-Cola bottle are patentable as well as trademarkable. - True.2. Copyright is among the most easily obtained intellectual property protections. A patent is among the most difficult to obtain intellectual property protections. - False. Copyright is not easily obtained and may require registration. While a patent is not easy to obtain, it is possible with a proper understanding of what is needed for patent protection.3. With formal intellectual property rights protections comes "constructive notice". - True. Constructive notice is an essential element of trademark registration.4. One does not have to acquire permission to use a copyrighted work if the work is to be performed in a person’s home and not for hire. - False.5. Companies must make efforts to keep their trademarked product name from becoming part of our everyday language. If they do not, they could lose the exclusive right to their name. - True.6. Common law is from traditions whereas statutory law is "made-up" law. - False. Common law and statutory law are both "made-up" law. Common law arises from the court's decisions, while statutory law arises from legislation.7. The Constitution of the United States is an "anti-government" document that provides citizens protection against the government. It does not apply to protections against non-government individuals. - False. The Constitution provides protection against all forms of rights violations, whether by the government or non-government individuals.8. Willy influenced our criminal system. Al influenced our civil system of law. - False. This statement is incorrect.9. The vesting in an administration entity such as the EPA of the authority to make laws, to enforce those laws, and adjudicate those laws is ostensibly unconstitutional for lack of separation of powers. - True.

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Explain FIVE (5) of the roles people will have to play in purchasing the equipment needed for this renovation .
Explain FIVE (5) of the roles people will have to play in purchasing the equipment needed for this renovation .

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Renovation is a process of restoring or upgrading the state of a building or infrastructure. Purchasing the necessary equipment is one of the most important aspects of the renovation. This process of purchasing the equipment can involve several roles that people have to play. Below are five roles that people have to play in purchasing equipment for renovation:

1. Planner: The planner is responsible for planning the equipment requirements and making sure that they are aligned with the renovation project's budget and timelines. The planner is expected to identify the required equipment and draft a procurement plan that reflects the renovation project's overall objectives.2. Budget manager: A budget manager is responsible for ensuring that the procurement process aligns with the renovation project's budget. The budget manager has to keep track of the cost of equipment, shipping, and other related expenses to ensure that the renovation project stays within the budget limits.3. Equipment vendor: The equipment vendor is responsible for providing the equipment that the renovation project requires. The equipment vendor is expected to deliver the equipment on time, provide all the required documentation and technical support, and ensure that the equipment meets the renovation project's quality requirements.4. Procurement officer: The procurement officer is responsible for managing the procurement process. This includes drafting procurement documents, releasing procurement tenders, negotiating prices, and selecting vendors.5. Inspector: The inspector is responsible for verifying the equipment's quality and functionality before accepting the delivery. The inspector must ensure that the equipment meets the renovation project's requirements and specifications. The inspector is also expected to test the equipment and document the results.In conclusion, purchasing equipment for renovation requires different roles to play, which include planner, budget manager, equipment vendor, procurement officer, and inspector. Each role has a specific responsibility to ensure that the equipment is of the right quality, cost, and meets the project's objectives.

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Use the following terms in a sentence demonstrating you know what their meanings are. The sentence should demonstrate you understand how the term is used in relation to climate change.
Mitigation
Greenhouse Gases
Adaptation
Climate Variability
Climate Change
Climatic Vulnerability
Ecosystem Peer Review Process
Troposphere
Ozone
Lithosphere
Pedosphere
Biosphere
Food Web
Carbon Cycle

Answers

Mitigation refers to actions taken to reduce or prevent the emission of greenhouse gases, which contribute to climate change. For example, implementing renewable energy sources is a mitigation strategy.

Greenhouse gases are gases in the Earth's atmosphere, such as carbon dioxide and methane, that trap heat and contribute to the greenhouse effect, leading to global warming and climate change.

Adaptation refers to adjustments made by individuals, communities, or ecosystems in response to the impacts of climate change. This can include implementing measures to protect against rising sea levels or changing agricultural practices to cope with altered rainfall patterns.

Climate variability refers to natural fluctuations in climate conditions over time, including changes in temperature, precipitation, and storm patterns. It is distinct from long-term climate change trends.

Climate change refers to the long-term alteration of Earth's climate patterns, including changes in temperature, precipitation, and wind patterns, primarily caused by human activities and greenhouse gas emissions.

Climatic vulnerability refers to the degree to which a system, such as a region or population, is susceptible to the impacts of climate change. Vulnerability is influenced by factors such as exposure, sensitivity, and adaptive capacity.

The ecosystem peer review process involves subjecting scientific research on ecosystems and their response to climate change to rigorous evaluation by experts in the field to ensure accuracy and quality.

The troposphere is the lowest layer of the Earth's atmosphere, where weather occurs and temperature decreases with increasing altitude.

Ozone is a gas found in the Earth's atmosphere, particularly in the ozone layer, which helps protect against harmful ultraviolet radiation from the sun.

The lithosphere refers to the rigid outer layer of the Earth, including the crust and upper mantle.

The pedosphere is the outermost layer of the Earth's surface, composed of soil and other materials, and plays a critical role in supporting plant life and nutrient cycling.

The biosphere encompasses all living organisms on Earth and the environments in which they exist, including terrestrial, aquatic, and atmospheric ecosystems.

A food web represents the interconnected feeding relationships among different organisms in an ecosystem, illustrating the flow of energy and nutrients through the ecosystem.

The carbon cycle refers to the movement of carbon atoms through various reservoirs, such as the atmosphere, oceans, and living organisms, and includes processes such as photosynthesis, respiration, and decomposition.

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A business needs 80 cabinets, 250 tables, and 300 shelves cleaned out. He has two part-time employees Patrick and Andrew. Patrick can clean eleven cabinet, thirty one tables and forty selves in one day, while Andrew can clean ten cabinet, thirteen tables, and sixty two shelves in one day. Patrick is paid P628 per day and Andrew is paid P508 per day. In order to minimize the cost, how many days should Patrick and Andrew be employed? (Use: graphical method and simplex method) 2. JB is the director of the Computer Center for PUP. He now needs to schedule the staffing of the center. It is open from 8am til midnight. JB has monitored the usage of the center at various times of the day, and determined that the following number of computer consultants are required: Time of Day Minimum Number of Consultants Required to be on Duty 8am-12pm 8 12pm-4pm 4 6 4pm-8pm 8pm-12am 10 Two types of computer consultants can be hired: full-time and part-time. The full-time consultants work for 8 consecutive hours in any of the following shifts: morning(8am- 4pm), afternoon (12pm-8pm) and evening(4pm-12am). Full time consultants are paid Php 250 per hour. Part-time consultants can be hired to work any of the four shifts listed above. They are paid Php 200 per hour. An additional requirement is that during every time period, there must be at least 2 full-time consultation duty for every part-time consultant on duty. JB would like to determine how many full-time and how many part-time workers should work each shift to meet the above requirements at the minimum cost. (a) Formulate a LP model for this problem and use technology to get an optimal solution to this LP using simplex algorithm. (b) If we restrict variables to be natural numbers, find an optimal solution to this LP.

Answers

Using a software tool like Exc-el Solver or any other linear programming solver, we can solve this LP model to obtain the optimal solution that minimizes the cost while meeting the staffing requirements.

To solve the first problem using the graphical method, we can plot the constraints and objective function on a graph and identify the feasible region and optimal solution. Let's define the variables as follows:

x: Number of days Patrick is employed

y: Number of days Andrew is employed

Objective: Minimize the cost C = 628x + 508y

Subject to the following constraints:

11x + 10y >= 80 (cabinets constraint)

31x + 13y >= 250 (tables constraint)

40x + 62y >= 300 (shelves constraint)

x, y >= 0 (non-negativity constraints)

Plotting these constraints on a graph, we can find the feasible region and the corner points of the region. We evaluate the objective function at these corner points to find the optimal solution.

Using the simplex method:

Let's formulate the LP model for the second problem:

Decision Variables:

Let x1, x2, x3 be the number of full-time consultants for morning, afternoon, and evening shifts, respectively.

Let y1, y2, y3, y4 be the number of part-time consultants for each shift.

Objective Function:

Minimize the cost: C = (8x1 + 8x2 + 8x3) * 250 + (4y1 + 6y2 + 4y3 + 4y4) * 200

Constraints:

Subject to the following constraints:

Full-time consultants:

x1 >= 8 (morning shift)

x2 >= 4 (afternoon shift)

x3 >= 6 (evening shift)

Part-time consultants:

y1 + y2 >= 8 (morning shift)

y2 + y3 >= 4 (afternoon shift)

y3 + y4 >= 8 (evening shift)

y4 >= 10 (night shift)

Non-negativity constraints:

x1, x2, x3, y1, y2, y3, y4 >= 0

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Suppose that a market is described by the following supply and demand equations: Supply Q = 3P; Demand Q = 400 - P. Suppose that a tax of $200 is placed on buyers. The deadweight loss of this tax is $15000 $30000 $200 $40000

Answers

The deadweight loss of this tax is $3750, not any of the s provided.

to determine the deadweight loss of the tax, we need to analyze the impact of the tax on the market equilibrium. let's calculate the equilibrium price and quantity before and after the tax is imposed.

before the tax:supply: q = 3p

demand: q = 400 - p

setting the supply equal to demand:3p = 400 - p

solving for p:

4p = 400p = 100

substituting the equilibrium price back into either the supply or demand equation, we can find the equilibrium quantity:

q = 3pq = 3 * 100

q = 300

so, the equilibrium price before the tax is $100, and the equilibrium quantity is 300.

after the tax:when a tax of $200 is imposed on buyers, it effectively increases the price they pay by that amount. so, the new demand equation becomes:

demand: q = 400 - (p + 200)q = 400 - p - 200

q = 200 - p

setting the new demand equal to the supply equation:200 - p = 3p

solving for p:

4p = 200p = 50

substituting the new equilibrium price back into the demand or supply equation, we find the new equilibrium quantity:

q = 200 - pq = 200 - 50

q = 150

so, the new equilibrium price after the tax is $50, and the new equilibrium quantity is 150.

to calculate the deadweight loss, we need to find the difference between the original equilibrium quantity (300) and the new equilibrium quantity (150). then, multiply this difference by half of the difference in price (100) caused by the tax:

deadweight loss = (300 - 150) * (100/2) = 75 * 50 = $3750

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Nash Inc. issued 1,400 shares of no-par common stock for $27,000. Prepare Nash’s journal entry if (a) the stock has no stated value, and (b) the stock has a stated value of $1 per share. (Credit account titles are automatically indented when amount is entered. Do not indent manually. If no entry is required, select "No Entry" for the account titles and enter 0 for the amounts.)
Account Titles and Explanation

Debit

Credit

(a)

enter an account title

enter a debit amount

enter a credit amount

enter an account title

enter a debit amount

enter a credit amount

(b)

enter an account title

enter a debit amount

enter a credit amount

enter an account title

Answers

For Nash Inc., the journal entry for issuing 1,400 shares of no-par common stock for $27,000 would be as follows: (a) When the stock has no stated value, the entry would be to debit Cash for $27,000 and credit Common Stock for $27,000. (b) When the stock has a stated value of $1 per share, the entry would be to debit Cash for $27,000, debit Additional Paid-in Capital for $1,400, and credit Common Stock for $28,400.

(a) When the stock has no stated value, the company records the entire amount received as a credit to the Common Stock account. In this case, the entry would be:

Debit: Cash $27,000

Credit: Common Stock $27,000

(b) When the stock has a stated value of $1 per share, a portion of the amount received is recorded as Common Stock, and the excess is recorded as Additional Paid-in Capital. In this case, the entry would be:

Debit: Cash $27,000

Debit: Additional Paid-in Capital $1,400

Credit: Common Stock $28,400

The cash received from issuing the shares is recorded as a debit to the Cash account. For no-par common stock, the credit is made to the Common Stock account for the entire amount received. However, when a stated value is assigned, the excess amount is credited to Additional Paid-in Capital to reflect the value above the stated value per share. The sum of the Common Stock and Additional Paid-in Capital equals the total cash received from issuing the shares.

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Question 1 The Statement of Financial Position of Wakon, a private company, at 31 December were as follows: 2020 2021 RM'000 RM'000 RM'000 RM'000 Assets Non-current Assets 1,000 1,600 Current Assets I

Answers

The Statement of Financial Position of Wakon, a private company, shows an increase in total assets from 2020 to 2021 with a significant increase in non-current assets.

Wakon's non-current assets have increased by 60% from RM 1,000,000 in 2020 to RM 1,600,000 in 2021. This indicates that Wakon has invested in long-term assets that it expects to use for several years and potentially benefit from in the future.

On the other hand, current assets have decreased by 20% over the same period. This may suggest that Wakon has used some of its short-term assets such as cash and cash equivalents, trade receivables or inventories to invest in its non-current assets.

However, it's important to note that without additional information such as the company's cash flow statement, it's difficult to fully understand the reasons for the changes in the current assets. Nonetheless, the overall increase in total assets suggests that the company has been able to invest in its growth and future potential.

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par a) At the end of its financial year 2021, an analyst made the following forecast for Burberry plo for financial years 2022-2025 (in millions of pounds) Cash In-flows from Operations Cash Out-flowS Investment £ £ 2022 1280 600 2023 1710 750 2024 1750 1200 2025 1800 1000 Burberry plc reported £2250 million in total debt at the end of 2021. Required: 1. Use a required rate of return of 10% to calculate both the enterprise value and equity value for Burberry plo at the end of 2021 under the following two scenarios for the long-run position of the company's cash flows: L. Free cash flow will remain at 2025 levels after 2025. il. Free cash flow will grow at 4% per year after 2025 (15 marks) II. Assuming Burberry pic had 400 million shares outstanding at the end of 2021, calculate the value per share under both scenarios. Based on your valuation, recommend a trading strategy if the quoted price on the stock exchange is currently at £19 per share. (10 marks) a) At the end of its financial year 2021, an analyst made the following forecast for Burberry pic for financial years 2022-2025 (in millions of pounds): Cash In-flows from Operations £ Cash Out-flows hvestment £ 2022 1280 600 2023 1710 750 2024 1750 1200 2025 1800 1000 * Burberry pic reported £2250 million in total debt at the end of 2021. Required: L. Use a required rate of return of 10% to calculate both the enterprise value and equity value for Burberry pic at the end of 2021 under the following two scenarios for the long-run position of the company's cash flows: 2024 1750 1200 2025 1800 1000 Burberry pic reported £2250 million in total debt at the end of 2021. Required: 1. Use a required rate of return of 10% to calculate both the enterprise value and equity value for Burberry pic at the end of 2021 under the following two scenarios for the long-run position of the company's cash flows: i. Free cash flow will remain at 2025 levels after 2025. il. Free cash flow will grow at 4% per year after 2025 (15 marks) II. Assuming Burberry plc had 400 million shares outstanding at the end of 2021, calculate the value per share under both scenarios. Based on your valuation, recommend a trading strategy if the quoted price on the stock exchange is currently at £19 per share. (10 marka b) In conducting valuation analysis, critically discuss activities which determine the value of a firm, providing examples to support your arguments.

Answers

In the given scenario, the analyst provides cash inflow and outflow projections for Burberry plc for the years 2022-2025. Using a required rate of return of 10%, the enterprise value and equity value of Burberry plc at the end of 2021 are calculated under two scenarios:

(i) assuming free cash flow remains at 2025 levels after 2025, and (ii) assuming free cash flow grows at 4% per year after 2025. Additionally, the value per share is calculated for both scenarios based on the assumption of 400 million shares outstanding. Finally, a trading strategy recommendation is made based on the stock's quoted price on the stock exchange.

To calculate the enterprise value at the end of 2021, the analyst uses the discounted cash flow (DCF) method by discounting the projected cash flows from operations at a required rate of return of 10%. The equity value is then obtained by subtracting the total debt of £2250 million from the enterprise value.

Under the first scenario, where free cash flow remains at 2025 levels after 2025, the analyst discounts the projected cash flows from 2022 to 2025 to the end of 2021 using the required rate of return. The sum of the discounted cash flows represents the enterprise value, and subtracting the total debt gives the equity value.

In the second scenario, where free cash flow grows at 4% per year after 2025, the analyst applies a growth rate of 4% to the 2025 cash flow and discounts the resulting cash flows to the end of 2021 to obtain the enterprise value. Again, subtracting the total debt gives the equity value.

To calculate the value per share, the equity value is divided by the number of shares outstanding, which is 400 million.

Based on the valuation, a trading strategy recommendation can be made. If the quoted price on the stock exchange is currently £19 per share and the calculated value per share is higher than £19, it suggests that the stock may be undervalued. In this case, a potential trading strategy could be to buy the stock. However, if the calculated value per share is lower than £19, it indicates that the stock may be overvalued, and a potential trading strategy could be to sell or avoid the stock.

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Assume the following: i. The public holds no currency. ii. The ratio of reserves to deposits is 0.1. iii. The demand for money is given by Md = $Y(0.8 - 4i) Initially, the monetary base is $100 billion, and nominal income is $5 trillion. a. What is the demand for central bank money? b. What is the overall supply of money? Find the equilibrium interest rate.

Answers

a. The demand for central bank money is $10 billion.

b. The overall supply of money is $1 trillion. The equilibrium interest rate is 0.15 or 15%.

To answer the given questions, break down the information and calculations step by step.

Given information:

i. The public holds no currency.

ii. The ratio of reserves to deposits is 0.1.

iii. The demand for money is given by Md = $Y(0.8 - 4i).

iv. The monetary base is $100 billion.

v. Nominal income is $5 trillion.

a. Demand for central bank money:

The demand for central bank money refers to the demand for reserves held by banks at the central bank. In this case, the demand for central bank money is equal to the required reserves.

Required reserves = Reserve ratio * Deposits

Given the reserve ratio is 0.1 and the monetary base is $100 billion:

Required reserves = 0.1 * $100 billion = $10 billion

Therefore, the demand for central bank money is $10 billion.

b. Overall supply of money:

To determine the overall supply of money, we need to consider the money multiplier. The money multiplier represents the ratio of the overall money supply to the monetary base.

Money multiplier = 1 / Reserve ratio

In this case, the reserve ratio is 0.1, so the money multiplier is:

Money multiplier = 1 / 0.1 = 10

Overall supply of money = Money multiplier * Monetary base

Overall supply of money = 10 * $100 billion = $1 trillion

The overall supply of money is $1 trillion.

Equilibrium interest rate:

To find the equilibrium interest rate, set the demand for money (Md) equal to the overall supply of money. Solve for the interest rate.

Md = Ms (where Md is the demand for money and Ms is the overall supply of money)

$Y(0.8 - 4i) = $1 trillion

Given that nominal income (Y) is $5 trillion:

$5 trillion * (0.8 - 4i) = $1 trillion

Simplifying the equation:

0.8 - 4i = 0.2

-4i = 0.2 - 0.8

-4i = -0.6

i = -0.6 / -4

i = 0.15

Therefore, the equilibrium interest rate is 0.15 or 15%.

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2023 maths challenge: J5 Factor Cards: a) if the card h the largest available number is moved to the score pile at each turn in a 20-game, what will be the score? b) Show steps that will produce a score of more than 100 points in a 20-game. c) Explain why every 20-game ends with 8 or fewer cards in the score pile. d) What is the maximum score for a 20-game? Explain why it is the maximum. Chinese economic performance a) has been seriously affected by ideological campaigns b) has been among the best in Asia since the Cultural Revolution. c) is difficult to gauge from the limited statistics. d) has not varied much over the years. e) both a and care correct. Using Graph Theory, solve the following:As your countrys top spy, you must infiltrate the headquarters of the evil syndicate, find the secret control panel and deactivate their death ray. All you have to go on is the following information picked up by your surveillance team. The headquarters is a massive pyramid with a single room at the top level, two rooms on the next, and so on. The control panel is hidden behind a painting on the highest floor that can satisfy the following conditions. Each room has precisely three doors to three other rooms on that floor except the control panel room which connects to only one. There are no hallways, and you can ignore stairs. Unfortunately, you dont have a floor plan, and youll only have enough time to search a single floor before the alarm system reactivates. Can you figure out where the floor the control room is on? Find the number of ways to rearrange the eight letters of YOU HESHE so that none of YOU, HE, SHE occur. (b) (5 pts) Find the number combinations of 15 T-shirts selected from five colors (blue, gray, purple, yellow, white) of the same size so that there are at least two blues, one purple, and 3 whites. There are 100 gadgets within which 12 are not functioning properly. What is the probability to find 3 disfunctional gadgets within 10 randomly taken ones. 2. The probability 1. Find the equation of the line that is tangent to the curve f(x)= 5x - 7x+1/5-4x at the point (1,-1). (Use the quotient rule) Find the limit. lim t0+ =< (+4 t +4, sin(t), 1, 2-1) et t V FILL THE BLANK. "Compared to sales promotions, ___.Group of answer choicesadvertisings effect is relatively easier to measureadvertising provides relatively longer-term benefitsboth A and Bnone of the above" Question 7a) Describe the FIVE (5) steps in the organizing processb) What is the meaning of responsibility?c) Describe THREE (3)problems of delegation for managerswhodelegate and THREE (3) proble Use the Laplace transform to solve the differential equation " --2y=(1-2x)e with the initial condition y(0) = 0 and y/ (0)= 1. Solutions not using the Laplace transform will receive 0 credit. Determine the number of terms in the corresponding Taylor series expansion required to approximate the value of 4.7 to within 10-5, and state the resulting approximate value of 4.7. Use the absolute value of the first term you omitted to estimate the error in your approximation. Use this table to organize your work: nth term Evaluate Function function of Taylor Cumulative Series and and sum of Approximation accurate to evaluated Taylor derivatives derivatives at value Series within 10^-5 \f(?) (2) f() (a) of terms interest 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 Upload your results using the submission instructions found below. n nth term n! (x-a)" of Taylor Series Error estimate There are over a 1000 breeds of cattle worldwide but your farm has just two.The herd is 50% Friesian with the remainder Friesian-Jersey crosses.Did you know that cows are considered to be 'empty' when their milk supply has dropped to 10 litres at milking.Check out Mastitis control which has been very successful on your farm the BMCC( bulk milk cell count) hovers around 100,000.Your farm Milk Production Target is: 260,000 kgMS [kilograms of milk solids]. Cost of Production target: $5 kgMS. And the grain feed budget for the year is $150,000 + GST.From the farm information provided, what would be the approximate per cow production of kgMS required in order to achieve the milk production target?600520840490 In a competition, people pay $1 to throw a ball at a target. If they hit the target on the first throw they receive $5. If they hit it on the second or third throw they receive $3, and if they hit it on the fourth or fifth throw they receive $1. People stop throwing after the first hit, or after 5 throws if no hit is made. Mario has a constant probability of 1/5 of hitting the target on any throw, independently of the results of other throws. (i) Mario misses with his first and second throws and hits the target with his third throw. State how much profit he has made. (ii) Show that the probability that Mario's profit is $0 is 0.184, correct to 3 significant figures. (iii) Draw up a probability distribution table for Mario's profit. (iv) Calculate his expected profit. (Page 313, 6.3 Computer Problems, 1(a,d)) Apply Euler's Method with step sizes At = 0.1 and St = 0.01 to the following two initial value problems: Y = y + y2 1 = 31+32 Y2 = Y + y2 y2 = 2y1 + 2y2 y (0) 1 y (0) = 5 Y2 (0) - 0 Y (0) = 0 One can verify that the exact solutions are Y1 et cost = Y = 3e-t +2e4t Y/ == - et sint Y2 = -2e-t +2e4t respectively. Plot the approximate solutions and the correct solution on [0, 1], and find the global truncation error at t = 1. Is the reduction in error for At = 0.01 consistent with the order of Euler's Method? [3 marks] Please state the general framework of local optimization methods. Point out a potential problem of this framework and suggest a way to fix it. growth of real gdp per person is totally determined by the growth of average: The questions to answer are as follows: 1. What steps are included in the training design model? 2. What step do you think is the most important? Why? 3. What other elements in training are important and what are the job projections for this profession? 4. Provide an example of a business that uses training and explain how it has helped them 6. Determine the number of terms in the arithmetic sequence below if a, is the first term, an is the last term, and S, is the sum of all the terms. a1=25, an = 297, Sn = 5635. A) 42 B) 35 C) 38 D) 27 Let X take on the values 1, 0, 1 with P (X = 1) = P (X = 1) = 1/8 and P (X = 0) = 3/4 . 144 random samples of X are taken. Approximate the probability that the mean of the sample is between 0 and 0.033. The integral 31-162dz is to be evaluated directly and using a series approximation. (Give all your answers rounded to 3 significant figures.) a) Evaluate the integral exactly, using a substitutio