Which of the following is NOT a type of connective tissue proper?

A) loose connective tissue

B) dense connective tissue

C) hyaline cartilage

D) adipose tissue

Answers

Answer 1

The following is NOT a type of connective tissue proper: Hyaline cartilage. The correct option is C

Connective tissue is the tissue responsible for holding tissues and organs together and providing structural support to the body. Blood, bone, cartilage, and fat are examples of connective tissue. It contains several cells, including fibroblasts, which secrete the extracellular matrix, including collagen and elastin. It also has ground substance and fibers (i.e., reticular, elastic, and collagen fibers).

Connective tissue proper is a type of connective tissue. It includes loose and dense connective tissues, and they both include a variety of fibrous tissue types. Loose connective tissue is a type of connective tissue proper. It is made up of cells and fibers suspended in a gelatinous substance. Loose connective tissue is found throughout the body and serves to connect other tissue types. Dense connective tissue is another type of connective tissue proper. It has densely packed collagen fibers and is used to connect bones to muscles or muscles to muscles. It can be found in ligaments and tendons. Adipose tissue is also a type of connective tissue proper.

It is a loose connective tissue that is found throughout the body and is used to store fat. It has several critical roles in the body, including insulation, energy storage, and hormone production. Hyaline cartilage is not a type of connective tissue proper. It is a type of cartilage that is found in the nose, trachea, and larynx. It is made up of cells called chondrocytes and collagen fibers.

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Related Questions







12. The study of influences on our perception is called A. similarity. B. closure. C. semiotics. D. stable figure. Mark for review (Will be highlighted on the review page)

Answers

The study of influences on our perception is called semiotics.

Semiotics is the study of signs and symbols and their interpretation and meaning. It explores how we perceive and understand various signs, including visual, auditory, linguistic, and cultural signs, and how they shape our perception of the world around us.

In the context of perception, semiotics examines how different factors influence our interpretation and understanding of sensory information. It looks at how our cultural background, language, social context, and personal experiences affect the way we perceive and assign meaning to the signs and symbols we encounter.

Semiotics considers the role of context, symbolism, and communication in shaping our perception. It recognizes that perception is not solely determined by the physical properties of stimuli but is also influenced by cognitive and cultural factors. By studying semiotics, researchers and scholars gain insights into the complex processes involved in perception and how meaning is constructed in our interactions with the world.

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which respiratory complication is appropriate when performing discharge teaching for the parents of an infant with a upper respiratory infection

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When performing discharge teaching for the parents of an infant with an upper respiratory infection, it is appropriate to include the respiratory complication of bronchiolitis. An upper respiratory infection (URI) is a common infection that affects the nose, throat, larynx (voice box), and sinuses.

It is often caused by viruses such as the common cold or influenza, although bacteria can also be the cause. Symptoms of a URI may include congestion, runny nose, coughing, sneezing, sore throat, and fever. The infection is usually self-limiting, but it can lead to more severe complications such as Bronchiolitis.

It is a respiratory illness that affects infants and young children. It is characterized by inflammation of the bronchioles, which are the small air passages that lead to the lungs. The inflammation causes swelling and narrowing of the bronchioles, making it difficult for air to flow in and out of the lungs. Bronchiolitis is usually caused by a viral infection, most commonly respiratory syncytial virus (RSV).

Discharge teaching is a process that occurs when a patient is discharged from a hospital or other healthcare facility. It involves educating the patient and their family members on how to manage their condition at home, including how to take medications, recognizes symptoms of complications, and seek medical attention.

Bronchiolitis is a common complication of upper respiratory infections in infants and young children. It is important to include this information in discharge teaching because parents need to be aware of the signs and symptoms of bronchiolitis so that they can seek medical attention if their child's condition worsens. Early recognition and treatment of bronchiolitis can help prevent more serious complications, such as pneumonia or respiratory failure.

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Which of the following are the lens-shaped pieces of tissue that are produced in cups ona liverwort thallus and become detached to develop independently?

A)protonemata
B)gemmae
C)"leaves"
D)buds
E)None of these answers are correct.

Answers

The lens-shaped pieces of tissue that are produced in cups on a liverwort thallus and become detached to develop independently are referred to as gemmae. Gemmae are small, multicellular structures that serve as a mode of vegetative propagation in liverworts.

They are formed in a cup-like structure called a gemma cup or gemma receptacle. Gemmae are typically small, lens-shaped, and greenish-brown in color. When mature, they detach from the thallus and develop independently into new individuals. The bryophytes, or the non-vascular plants, are a group of plants that include the mosses, liverworts, and hornworts. They are characterized by their lack of vascular tissue, which means that they do not have true roots, stems, or leaves. Instead, they have a simple structure known as a thallus, which is a flattened, stem-like structure that is attached to the ground by rhizoids.

The liverworts are a group of bryophytes that are characterized by their flattened, ribbon-like thalli. They reproduce vegetatively by means of gemmae, which are small, lens-shaped pieces of tissue that are produced in cups on the liverwort thallus. These cups are known as gemma cups or gemma receptacles. The gemmae are formed by mitosis and cell division and are covered by a layer of protective cells called the gemma cupule. When mature, the gemmae detach from the thallus and are dispersed by rainwater or other means. Once they come into contact with suitable substrate, they develop into new liverwort individuals.

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cardica muscle fibers remain depolarized longer than skeletal muscle fibers because

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Cardiac muscle fibers remain depolarized longer than skeletal muscle fibers because cardiac muscle fibers have slow calcium channels.The muscles that form the walls of the heart are called cardiac muscles.

The heart pumps blood to all of the body's organs. The cardiac muscle fibers are found in the walls of the heart's atria and ventricles and are made up of actin and myosin filaments that allow the muscle to contract and relax. The reason why cardiac muscle fibers remain depolarized longer than skeletal muscle fibers is that they have slow calcium channels.Calcium Channels in Cardiac Muscle FibersCalcium channels are proteins that transport calcium ions across the plasma membrane of cells. Calcium channels in cardiac muscle fibers allow calcium ions to enter the cells during an action potential, resulting in the depolarization of the membrane.

Depolarization is the process by which a cell's membrane potential becomes less negative, resulting in the contraction of the muscle.Calcium channels in cardiac muscle fibers are slower than those in skeletal muscle fibers. As a result, cardiac muscle fibers remain depolarized longer than skeletal muscle fibers. This increases the amount of time the heart has to pump blood out of its chambers, ensuring that the body receives an adequate blood supply. Therefore, cardiac muscle fibers remain depolarized longer than skeletal muscle fibers because cardiac muscle fibers have slow calcium channels.

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Course Home Extrafud mufber Secondary Primary Secondary afferent 100 tout, length, and position Golgi tendon orgaforce Reset Help ATP An action potential arrives at the axon terminal and triggers terminal to open channels in the axon decreases Ca2 When muscle contracts, the actin filaments slide past the myosin and the length of the muscle troponin ligand Glycerination removes ions and ATP and exposes the binding sites on the actin. myosin Both muscle contraction and relaxation require ATP lons as a source of energy The solution caused the greatest contraction At the neuromuscular junction, acetylcholine binds to end plate gated ion channels in the motor During muscle contraction, Ca? binds to on the actin filament.

Answers

When an action potential arrives at the axon terminal, it triggers the opening of channels in the axon. This causes a decrease in Ca2+ ions. During muscle contraction, the actin filaments slide past the myosin, and the length of the muscle decreases. This process is facilitated by the binding of Ca2+ ions to troponin on the actin filament. To prepare for muscle contraction, glycerination removes ions and ATP and exposes the binding sites on the actin. This allows myosin to bind to actin and initiate muscle contraction. Both muscle contraction and relaxation require ATP as a source of energy. ATP binds to myosin, causing it to detach from actin and allowing for muscle relaxation. At the neuromuscular junction, acetylcholine binds to end plate gated ion channels in the motor neuron. This triggers the release of Ca2+ ions into the muscle cell, leading to muscle contraction. The solution that caused the greatest contraction would be the one that had the highest concentration of Ca2+ ions, as Ca2+ is essential for muscle contraction.

About Muscle

Muscle is a tissue in the body of humans and animals that functions as an active means of movement that moves bones. Muscles are classified into three types namely striated muscles, smooth muscles and cardiac muscles. Muscles cause the movement of an organism as well as the movement of the organs in that organism. One of the main functions of muscle tissue is to assist the movement of the human body, therefore, in general, muscle tissue attaches to bones. Both function to regulate muscle contraction and relaxation. Based on its function and shape, there are three types of muscles that make up the human muscular system, namely skeletal muscles, smooth muscles, and cardiac muscles.

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Match each vitamin or mineral to a symptom of its deficiency

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This is the matching of vitamins/minerals to symptoms of their deficiency:

Vitamin A → Poor wound healingZinc → Thinning bonesCalcium → Problems with fluid balancePotassium → Vision problems

What are these deficiencies?

Vitamin A: Vitamin A is essential for wound healing. A deficiency in vitamin A can lead to poor wound healing, as well as other problems such as night blindness and dry skin.

Zinc: Zinc is essential for bone health. A deficiency in zinc can lead to thinning bones, as well as other problems such as impaired immune function and delayed wound healing.

Calcium: Calcium is essential for bone health. A deficiency in calcium can lead to thinning bones, as well as other problems such as muscle cramps and osteoporosis.

Potassium: Potassium is essential for fluid balance. A deficiency in potassium can lead to problems with fluid balance, as well as other problems such as muscle weakness and heart arrhythmias.

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true or false: the bones and teeth of organisms are capable of not decaying and often become fossils. if false, make it a correct statement

Answers

False: The bones and teeth of organisms are capable of decaying and do not often become fossils.

The statement that bones and teeth of organisms are capable of not decaying and often becoming fossils is incorrect. In reality, the process of fossilization is a rare occurrence that requires specific conditions for the preservation of organic remains.

While bones and teeth have the potential to fossilize under certain circumstances, they are not inherently resistant to decay.

After an organism dies, its soft tissues, including muscles and organs, start decomposing relatively quickly. However, bones and teeth can withstand decay for a longer period of time due to their mineralized structure.

Over time, through a process called diagenesis, the organic materials in bones and teeth are gradually replaced by minerals, such as calcium phosphate, which leads to fossilization.

Fossilization is a complex and rare process that involves the burial of remains in sedimentary layers, the presence of minerals for replacement, and the absence of certain environmental factors that would cause rapid decay.

These specific conditions must align for bones and teeth to have a chance of becoming fossils, making it an infrequent event in the preservation of ancient life.

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this part of the brain receives many signals that influence food intake control:

Answers

The hypothalamus is the part of the brain that receives many signals that influence food intake control is that the hypothalamus is the part of the brain that receives many signals that influence food intake control. The hypothalamus is a small part

 the brain that plays a crucial role in maintaining the body's internal balance. It's positioned at the base of the brain and is responsible for controlling several critical physiological functions, including body temperature, blood pressure, thirst, and hunger.The hypothalamus is primarily responsible for regulating hunger and food intake. It does this by receiving inputs from different sources and integrating them to regulate food intake.

The hypothalamus receives inputs from the digestive system, blood, and nervous system, and it integrates these signals to influence food intake. The hypothalamus is the part of the brain that receives many signals that influence food intake control. The hypothalamus regulates food intake by integrating inputs from different sources, including the digestive system, blood, and nervous system. By doing so, it plays a crucial role in maintaining the body's internal balance.

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What do fibrous strands observed within a vessel lumen indicate? Superficial thrombophlebitis Infectin Acute deep vein thrombosis Chronic venous obstruction

Answers

The fibrous strands that are observed within a vessel lumen indicate chronic venous obstruction.

What is Chronic Venous Obstruction?

Chronic venous obstruction is a disorder that occurs when a blockage in the veins causes blood to accumulate. This is caused by an underlying medical condition or an injury to the veins. This causes blood to stagnate, resulting in inflammation and other complications. This can lead to venous hypertension, which can cause blood to be pushed back into the skin and tissues, causing them to swell. Chronic venous obstruction can lead to a variety of symptoms, including leg swelling, skin discoloration, and ulcers.

Fibrous Strands: Fibrous strands, also known as fibrous cords, are tiny fibrous bands that grow between muscles and tendons. These strands form after an injury, such as a pulled muscle or a sprained ankle. Fibrous strands can be quite uncomfortable, especially when they're first forming. However, with time, they will normally soften and break down on their own.

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what do you think causes the plant to come out of dormancy and become active

Answers

The main factors that cause the plant to come out of dormancy and become active are temperature, light, and water. Plants go dormant when environmental conditions become harsh or unfavorable.

They become inactive and stop growing. They conserve their energy and nutrients until favorable conditions return and they can start growing again. The factors that cause the plant to come out of dormancy and become active are temperature, light, and water. Temperature: Temperature is one of the primary factors that triggers the plant to come out of dormancy and start growing again. As the temperature increases, the plant's metabolic processes increase, and it starts producing energy and nutrients that it needs for growth and development. Light: Light is another factor that influences the plant's dormancy and activity.

The photoreceptors in the plant's leaves detect the changes in day length and intensity of light. This information is transmitted to the plant's internal clock, which controls its growth and development. When the days start getting longer, and the light intensity increases, the plant starts producing more chlorophyll, which it needs for photosynthesis.Water:Water is also essential for the plant to come out of dormancy and start growing again. As the soil becomes moist, the plant's roots start absorbing water, which triggers the growth of the shoots. The water also dissolves the nutrients that the plant needs for growth and development.Plants are highly adaptable, and they can go dormant and become active multiple times throughout their life cycle. The factors that influence their dormancy and activity are temperature, light, and water.

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Which STD/STI infects the mucous membranes and causes discharge and painful urination?

A.
Scabies

B.
Gonorrhea

C.
HPV

D.
HIV/AIDS

Answers

The correct answer is B because that’s the only disease that effects you when you pee

What strategy is proven effective in blocking the transmission of microbes from contaminated food (reservoir) to immunocompromised patients (susceptible hosts)?

Answers

The strategy proven effective in blocking the transmission of microbes from contaminated food to immunocompromised patients is proper food handling and hygiene practices.

Implementation of proper food handling practices, including thorough cooking, avoiding cross-contamination, and practicing good personal hygiene, significantly reduces the risk of transmitting harmful microbes from contaminated food to vulnerable individuals. These measures help prevent the ingestion of pathogens and minimize the potential for foodborne illnesses.

By adhering to strict food safety protocols and emphasizing hygiene practices, such as handwashing, maintaining clean cooking surfaces, and separating raw and cooked foods, the transmission of microbes from contaminated food to immunocompromised patients can be effectively blocked. This approach plays a crucial role in safeguarding the health and well-being of susceptible individuals and mitigating the risks associated with foodborne pathogens.

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(−)ssRNA is transcribed into (+)ssRNA using which of the following?
DNA polymerase encoded by the host cell
DNA polymerase encoded by the virus
RNA polymerase encoded by the host cell
RNA polymerase encoded by the virus

Answers

(-)ssRNA is transcribed into (+)ssRNA using RNA polymerase encoded by the virus. RNA Polymerase is an enzyme that is responsible for catalyzing the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template in transcription processes. It is essential in translating the genetic information encoded in DNA to a language that cells can use to produce the proteins that carry out various biological functions.

In (+)ssRNA viruses, such as SARS-CoV-2, their genome is simply one long strand of (+)ssRNA. On the other hand, in (-)ssRNA viruses, like the influenza virus, the RNA is in a negative sense strand, implying that it cannot be used directly as a template for protein synthesis. Therefore, in order to translate the genetic code into a protein, RNA Polymerase must transcribe the (-)ssRNA into a (+)ssRNA template which can be used to create proteins.More than 100 RNA-dependent RNA polymerases (RdRps) encoded by viruses have been identified.

These RNA-dependent RNA polymerases are classified into the following categories: Positive-sense RNA viruses that have a large RNA genome: These viruses encode RdRps for replication of their genomes, as well as for sub-genomic RNA synthesis. Negative-sense RNA viruses that have a large RNA genome: These viruses encode an RdRp for replication of their genomes. Positive-sense RNA viruses that have a small RNA genome: These viruses have a shorter genome than the other two types of viruses.

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a stimulus traveling toward a synapse appears to open calcium ion channels at the presynaptic end, which in turn promotes fusion of synaptic vesicles to the axonal membrane. a) true b) false

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A stimulus traveling toward a synapse appears to open calcium ion channels at the presynaptic . A synapse is a structure or junction that allows a neuron to pass an electrical or chemical signal to another neuron or to the target efferent cells.

A stimulus traveling toward a synapse appears to open calcium ion channels at the presynaptic end. Calcium ions that enter the axonal terminal through voltage-gated calcium channels cause the synaptic vesicles to fuse with the axonal membrane, releasing neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft.

The fusion of vesicles to the axonal membrane occurs via a calcium-mediated reaction. Calcium entry into the presynaptic terminal causes the synaptic vesicles to fuse with the axonal membrane and release their contents into the synaptic cleft.

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Explain what a feedback is. (for climate)
Explain what positive and negative feedbacks are. (for
climate)
Give and explain at least two examples of positive feedbacks in
the Earth’s climate system.

Answers

Feedback is the process by which a certain effect is amplified or counteracted by the inputs that initiated it. In the context of climate, feedback refers to the way in which Earth's climate system responds to changes, whether those changes are initiated by natural or human factors. Positive and negative feedbacks are two types of feedback in climate.

Positive feedback amplifies the initial response of the climate system to external factors, resulting in further changes that reinforce the initial response. This may lead to runaway effects in the climate system. A simple example of positive feedback in the Earth's climate system is the ice-albedo feedback. When snow and ice melt, the albedo (reflectivity) of the surface decreases. This means that less sunlight is reflected back into space and more is absorbed by the Earth, leading to further warming. This, in turn, causes more melting, which further reduces albedo, and so on.

Negative feedback counteracts the initial response of the climate system to external factors, resulting in changes that dampen the initial response. This may lead to a stabilizing effect on the climate system. A simple example of negative feedback in the Earth's climate system is the carbon cycle feedback. When atmospheric CO2 levels increase, more CO2 is absorbed by the oceans and terrestrial ecosystems. This, in turn, reduces the amount of CO2 in the atmosphere, leading to less warming.

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Communication junctions between the cells of cardiac muscle are:


A
Intervertebral disk

B
Intervertebral foramen

C
Intercalated discs

D
Interneurons

Answers

The communication junctions between the cells of cardiac muscle are called intercalated discs. option (c) is the correct answer.

Intercalated discs are unique features found in cardiac muscle tissue. They are specialized cell-to-cell junctions that connect individual cardiac muscle cells, known as cardiomyocytes.

These discs are responsible for transmitting electrical signals and facilitating mechanical coupling between adjacent cells, allowing them to function as a synchronized unit during cardiac contractions.

Intercalated discs consist of two main components: desmosomes and gap junctions. Desmosomes are mechanical junctions that provide structural support and prevent the separation of neighboring cells under the mechanical stress of contraction.

Gap junctions, on the other hand, are specialized protein channels that allow for the passage of ions and small molecules between cells, enabling the rapid spread of electrical signals throughout the cardiac muscle tissue.

The presence of intercalated discs ensures efficient and coordinated contraction of the heart muscle, contributing to its ability to pump blood effectively. These unique communication junctions are a distinguishing feature of cardiac muscle and play a crucial role in the proper functioning of the cardiovascular system.

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Drug Dosages. Thomas Young has 5 iggested the followiLe rule for caiculating the dosage of medicine for chidren 1 to 12 yr ofd. If a denctes the aduit. dosage (in midigrams) and if t is the child's ago (in years), then the child's dosage is given by the following function.
D(t)= at/t+12 Suppose the adult dosage of a substance is 280mg. Find an expression that gives the rate (in mg/year) of change of a child's cosage with respect to the child's age. D′(t)= What is the rate of change (in mg/year) of a child's dosage with respect to his or her age for a 3 -yr-old child? A 12 -yr-old child? (flound your answer to three decimal placesi) 3-yr-old _____ mg/year 12-yriold _____ mg/year

Answers

Given data: Adult dosage of a substance is 280mg. Rule for calculating dosage for children between 1 to 12 years of age is given by the function, D(t) = a * t / t + 12. To find the rate of change of this function with respect to the child's age, we need to differentiate the function with respect to t.

Let's differentiate this function with respect to t. d/dt [ D(t) ]= d/dt [ a * t / t + 12 ]

Using quotient rule,= [ a * (t + 12) - a * t ] / ( t + 12 )²= a / ( t + 12 )²

Thus, the rate of change of child's dosage with respect to child's age is given by D'(t) = a / ( t + 12 )².

Hence, the required expression is D'(t) = 280 / ( t + 12 )².

Now, substituting t = 3,

we get, D'(3) = 280 / (3 + 12)²

= 280 / 225

= 1.244 mg/year

Substituting t = 12,

we get, D'(12) = 280 / (12 + 12)²

= 280 / 576

= 0.486 mg/year

Therefore, the rate of change of a child's dosage with respect to his or her age for a 3-yr-old child is 1.244 mg/year and for a 12-yr-old child is 0.486 mg/year. We are given the formula, D(t) = a * t / t + 12, which represents the dosage for a child as a function of their age, t. To find the rate of change of this function with respect to the child's age, we need to differentiate the function with respect to t.

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what evidence do psychologists put forth in support of the validity of intelligence tests?

Answers

Psychologists support the validity of intelligence tests through evidence such as test-retest reliability, construct validity, predictive validity, factor analysis, cross-cultural validity, and neurological correlates.

Psychologists provide several lines of evidence to support the validity of intelligence tests. Here are some key points:

1. Test-retest reliability: Intelligence tests demonstrate consistent results upon repeated administration. Individuals tend to receive similar scores when taking the same test on different occasions, indicating the reliability of the test.

2. Construct validity: Intelligence tests are designed to measure the construct of intelligence, which is supported by extensive research and theoretical models. The tests capture cognitive abilities, problem-solving skills, and mental agility, reflecting the underlying concept of intelligence.

3. Predictive validity: Intelligence test scores have been shown to predict important real-world outcomes, such as academic achievement, job performance, and even health outcomes. People with higher scores on intelligence tests tend to perform better in these areas, indicating the predictive validity of the tests.

4. Factor analysis: Through factor analysis, psychologists have identified a general factor, known as the g factor, which represents overall intelligence. This g factor has been found to be correlated with performance across various cognitive tasks, providing evidence for the construct validity of intelligence tests.

5. Cross-cultural validity: Intelligence tests have been developed and validated across different cultures and languages. Studies have shown that the tests measure intelligence consistently across diverse populations, supporting their cross-cultural validity.

6. Neurological evidence: Research using brain imaging techniques has revealed that intelligence is associated with specific brain regions and neural networks. The neural correlates of intelligence align with the cognitive abilities measured by intelligence tests, providing converging evidence for their validity.

It's important to note that while intelligence tests have substantial support for their validity, they are not without limitations. Factors such as cultural bias, limited scope, and individual differences can influence test performance. Psychologists continue to refine and improve intelligence tests to enhance their validity and address potential biases.

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Internal and external respiration depends on several factors. Which of the following is NOT an important factor in gas exchange?

A. partial pressure of the gases
B. the molecular weight of the gas
C. available surface area
D. rate of blood flow through the tissue

Answers

The factor that is NOT important in gas exchange is the molecular weight of the gas. Gas exchange is the process by which oxygen from the air enters the bloodstream and carbon dioxide from the bloodstream exits into the air.

It occurs between the alveoli of the lungs and the capillaries that surround them. Both internal and external respiration depend on several factors.The following factors are essential in gas exchange:Partial pressure of gases: This is the amount of pressure exerted by a specific gas in a mixture of gases.

It is one of the most important factors in determining the rate of diffusion.Available surface area: This is the total area across which gas exchange occurs. The larger the surface area, the more gas exchange can occur.Rate of blood flow through the tissue: This is the amount of blood that flows through the capillaries per unit time. If the rate of blood flow is low, gas exchange will be slow.

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the epidermis (outer layer of the skin) needs to be tough and resistant to shearing and stretching. the type of intercellular junction best suited for this need is a/an ________.

Answers

The epidermis (outer layer of the skin) needs to be tough and resistant to shearing and stretching. the type of intercellular junction best suited for this need is a/an desmosome junction.

The type of intercellular junction best suited for the toughness and resistance to shearing and stretching in the epidermis is the desmosome junction. Desmosomes are specialized cell structures that provide strong adhesion between neighboring cells.

Desmosomes are specialized junctions found in tissues that undergo mechanical stress, such as the epidermis (outer layer of the skin).They consist of transmembrane proteins called cadherins, which extend from the cell membrane and connect with cadherins of adjacent cells.
Inside the cell, cadherins are linked to intermediate filaments, such as keratin, forming a sturdy anchoring structure.The strong connection between cells provided by desmosomes allows them to resist mechanical forces like shearing and stretching.This intercellular junction helps to maintain the integrity of the epidermis, preventing the separation or tearing of cells when subjected to external forces.Desmosomes are particularly abundant in areas of the body prone to mechanical stress, such as the skin, where they contribute to its toughness and resilience.

In summary, desmosome junctions are crucial for the epidermis to withstand shearing and stretching forces, maintaining the integrity of the outer layer of the skin.

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21) Secretion of progesterone stimulates ________.A) contraction of uterine musclesB) preparation of the mammary glands for lactationC) secretory activity of the uterine myometriumD) development of the female secondary sex characteristics

Answers

Secretion of progesterone stimulates the preparation of the mammary glands for lactation. Option B is the correct answer.

Progesterone is a hormone produced by the ovaries during the menstrual cycle. Its main function is to prepare the body for pregnancy and support early pregnancy if it occurs. One of the key roles of progesterone is to stimulate the development and preparation of the mammary glands for lactation. It promotes the growth of milk-producing cells in the mammary glands and prepares them for milk production. This ensures that the mammary glands are ready to produce and secrete milk after childbirth. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

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penicillins are typically effective against gram-positive bacteria, but are less effective against gram-negative bacteria. this is because the cell walls of gram-positive bacteria are relatively thin and composed primarily of peptidoglycan, which is the target of penicillins

Answers

The reason penicillins are typically effective against gram-positive bacteria but less effective against gram-negative bacteria is due to the difference in their cell walls. Gram-positive bacteria have relatively thin cell walls that are primarily composed of peptidoglycan. Peptidoglycan is the target of penicillins, which means these antibiotics can easily penetrate the cell wall and disrupt the synthesis of peptidoglycan. This leads to the weakening and eventual lysis of the bacteria. On the other hand, gram-negative bacteria have a more complex cell wall structure. Their cell walls are thicker and contain an outer membrane that acts as a barrier. This outer membrane is not easily penetrated by penicillins, making it more difficult for these antibiotics to reach the peptidoglycan layer. Additionally, gram-negative bacteria have enzymes called beta-lactamases that can break down penicillins, further reducing their effectiveness. To summarize, the differences in cell wall composition and structure between gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria explain why penicillins are typically more effective against gram-positive bacteria. The thin, peptidoglycan-rich cell wall of gram-positive bacteria makes it easier for penicillins to target and disrupt the bacterial cell, while the thicker and more complex cell wall of gram-negative bacteria provides more resistance to these antibiotics.

About Penicillins

Penicillins is a group of β-lactam antibiotics used in the treatment of infectious diseases due to bacteria, usually of the Gram positive type. Penicillin is a type of drug that belongs to the category of antibiotics. This drug works to treat infections in the body that occur due to bacteria. This means that penicillin cannot be used to treat infections caused by worms, fungi or viruses. Penicillin is a group of antibiotics produced from the Penicillium fungus. The discovery of penicillin was credited to Scottish scientist and Nobel laureate Alexander Fleming in 1928.

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A well-nourished 80-kg person stores approximately ___ g of carbohydrates.

Select one:
a. 90
b. 300
c. 500
d. 1600

Answers

A well-nourished 80-kg person stores approximately 500 g of carbohydrates. Carbohydrates are the primary macronutrient responsible for providing energy to the body. They are stored in the body in two forms: glycogen and fat. Glycogen is the stored form of carbohydrates that is stored in the liver and muscles.

The body can store approximately 2000 calories worth of glycogen. Once this is depleted, the body will then start to break down fat stores for energy. Fat is the second macronutrient that the body uses for energy. Glycogen is stored in the body in small amounts. It is stored in the liver and muscles. The liver can store up to 100 g of glycogen, while the muscles can store up to 400 g of glycogen. This means that a well-nourished 80-kg person stores approximately 500 g of carbohydrates.

This is important because carbohydrates are the primary source of energy for the body. The body needs carbohydrates to function properly. When carbohydrates are consumed, they are broken down into glucose, which is then transported to the liver and muscles for storage as glycogen. When the body needs energy, the glycogen is broken down into glucose and used for energy.

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Fluoroquinolones have a black-box warning regarding ________ even months after treatment. Select one:

a. renal dysfunction

b. hepatic toxicity

c. tendon rupture

d. development of glau

Answers

Fluoroquinolones have a black-box warning regarding tendon rupture even months after treatment. Fluoroquinolones are a type of antibiotic that is used to treat a variety of bacterial infections.

The drug is classified as a synthetic broad-spectrum antibiotic that works by inhibiting bacterial DNA synthesis.The Black-box warningFluoroquinolones, according to the FDA, carry a black-box warning due to their potential to cause serious side effects, including tendinitis and tendon rupture. Because of their effectiveness and possible adverse effects, fluoroquinolones should only be used as a last resort when other, less hazardous alternatives are ineffective.

Flouroquinolones are available as oral tablets, eye drops, and eardrops. They are used to treat a wide range of infections, including respiratory and urinary tract infections, and in some cases, to treat bacterial infections that are resistant to other antibiotics.

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1. Using the line of nucleic bases provided complete the complimentary DNA base pair strand?
TATCGAGCCGTATGACGATGAACGAATTCCTAA
2. How many base pairings did you make?
3. Using the line of DNA nucleic bases provided complete the copy as messenger RNA (mRNA) to leave the nucleus and go to a ___________ site for the ordering of specific amino acids and production of _______________.

Answers

To complete the complementary DNA base pair strand, we need to match each nucleic base with its complementary base. The complementary bases are:

A -> T

T -> A

C -> G

G -> C

Using this information, we can complete the complementary DNA base pair strand:

ATAGCTCGGCATACTGCTACTTGCTTAAGGATT

We made a total of 34 base pairings.

To convert the DNA sequence into mRNA, we need to replace each DNA base with its corresponding mRNA base. The conversion rules are as follows:

A -> U

T -> A

C -> G

G -> C

Using these rules, the mRNA sequence would be:

UAUCGAGCCGUAUGACGAUGAACGAAUUCUAA

The mRNA leaves the nucleus and goes to a ribosome site for the ordering of specific amino acids and the production of proteins.

in most people, the __________ is specialized for withdrawal or escape. a)somatic nervous system right b)prefrontal cortex left c)prefrontal cortex d)reticular activating system

Answers

The correct option among the given options is option D, reticular activating system. What is the reticular activating system

The Reticular Activating System (RAS) is a bundle of neurons that begins in the lower part of the brainstem and reaches up to the midbrain. It is located in the core of the brainstem, near the brain's spinal cord, and is part of the brainstem's reticular formation. This system controls a person's sleep-wake cycle. It is accountable for alerting a person's brain when they see, hear, feel, or touch something that requires attention.

In most people, the reticular activating system is specialized for withdrawal or escape. It monitors the environment for danger, prompting people to fight or take flight when they detect a threat. The reticular activating system is responsible for alertness, wakefulness, and the conscious state of the human brain. Therefore, the correct option is D, reticular activating system.

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Which of the following is the proper designation for the pluripotential stem cell that is a precursor for both myeloid and lymphoid cell lines?

A. CFU-S
B. CFU-GEMM
C. G-CSF
D. CFU-GM

Answers

The proper designation for the pluripotential stem cell that is a precursor for both myeloid and lymphoid cell lines is CFU-GEMM.

What are CFU-GEMM cells?

CFU-GEMM cells stand for Colony-forming units-granulocyte, erythrocyte, monocyte, and megakaryocyte. CFU-GEMM cells are the common myeloid precursor for all granulocyte and monocyte lineages.

CFU-GEMM is the most primitive stem cell, able to produce progeny that give rise to red blood cells, monocytes, platelets, granulocytes, and B and T lymphocytes.

They are pluripotent stem cells that can self-renew and differentiate into various cell types in the body. They are the cells that are targeted when transplanting hematopoietic stem cells. Therefore, the proper designation for the pluripotential stem cell that is a precursor for both myeloid and lymphoid cell lines is CFU-GEMM.Answer: B. CFU-GEMM.

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when energy is transferred between trophic levels, the amount of available energy lost is aboutAt each step up the food chain, only 10 percent of the energy is passed on to the next level, while approximately 90 percent of the energy is lost as heat

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When energy is transferred between trophic levels, there is a significant amount of energy lost as it moves up the food chain. At each step, only around 10 percent of the energy is passed on to the next level, while approximately 90 percent of the energy is lost as heat.

This loss of energy occurs due to various factors. One major factor is the metabolic processes of organisms. Organisms at each trophic level use a portion of the energy they obtain for their own metabolic needs, such as respiration, movement, and growth. This energy is converted into heat and lost to the environment.

Another factor contributing to energy loss is the inefficiency of energy transfer. When organisms consume other organisms, they do not obtain all the energy stored in the consumed organism. Some energy is lost during digestion, absorption, and assimilation. Additionally, not all parts of the organism are consumed, resulting in energy loss.

To illustrate this concept, let's consider a simple food chain. Suppose we have grass as the primary producer, rabbits as primary consumers, and foxes as secondary consumers. The grass captures energy from the sun through photosynthesis and stores it in its tissues. When a rabbit eats the grass, it obtains only about 10 percent of the energy stored in the grass. Then, when a fox preys on the rabbit, it obtains only about 10 percent of the energy stored in the rabbit.

This pattern continues as we move up the food chain. As a result, the amount of available energy decreases significantly at each trophic level. This energy loss limits the number of trophic levels that can be supported in an ecosystem, as there is not enough energy available to sustain a large number of top-level predators.

Understanding the concept of energy loss between trophic levels is crucial in studying ecosystems and the flow of energy within them. It helps us comprehend the energy dynamics, population dynamics, and the interdependence of organisms within an ecosystem.

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a research proposal can be strengthened considerably by presenting results from a pilot study of the research question. a) true b) false

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The given statement, “a research proposal can be strengthened considerably by presenting results from a pilot study of the research question” is true.

A research proposal is a document that outlines a research project's main ideas. It is a blueprint for conducting research that lays out the objectives, methods, and anticipated results. A research proposal is an overview of research that is expected to be conducted. It outlines a plan of action that will be followed to complete a research project. The pilot studyA pilot study is a preliminary investigation that is conducted to test the feasibility of a proposed research project.

It is a small-scale study that is carried out to refine the methodology and identify any potential problems that might arise when conducting the actual study. The pilot study is also conducted to determine if any changes are required to the research protocol to improve the study's design and execution. Presenting results of a pilot study A research proposal that includes results from a pilot study of the research question will be significantly strengthened.

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how do ecological communities change over time ecological communities are defined at a given point in time; any change leads to reclassification of the community.

Answers

Ecological communities change over time ecological communities are defined at a given point in time; any change leads to reclassification of the community is through succession.

Succession can be primary, occurring in areas where no previous community existed, or secondary, following disturbance in an existing community. During succession, pioneer species, such as lichens or mosses, colonize a disturbed area. As these species modify the environment, they make it more suitable for other, more competitive species to establish. Over time, the community composition changes as different species replace one another, this process continues until a stable, mature community is reached, called a climax community.

Ecological communities can also change in response to external factors like climate change or human activities. For example, a change in temperature or precipitation patterns may alter the distribution of species within a community. Similarly, human activities like deforestation or pollution can disrupt ecosystems and lead to shifts in community composition. In summary, ecological communities change over time through succession, climate change, and human activities, these changes result in the reclassification of the community as different species become dominant.

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