Answer:
all of the above
Explanation:
When an original consent form has been lost, the only steps that must be taken are that study staff report the loss immediately to the IRB, the sponsor, and get another signed as soon as possible.A. TRUE
B. FALSE
2According to 45 CFR 46 Subpart B, when research involves pregnant women as participants, both mother and father must always be informed about any potential impact of the research on the fetus.A. TRUE
B. FALSE
3Because of being incarcerated, prisoners may not be able to make a voluntary decision about participating in a clinical trial.A. TRUE
B. FALSE
4To document that the research participant has voluntarily agreed to participate in the study, the research participant must:A. Pass a test of comprehension.
B. Meet with the institution's Institutional Review Board (IRB).
C. Sign and date the Informed Consent Form.
D. All of the above.
5Of the following factors, which one does not influence the capacity to consent?A. Age
B. Cognitive (mental) impairment
C. Illness
D. Financial factors
1. A - TRUE An IRB is a properly constituted organization that has been officially established to examine and oversee biomedical research involving human participants in accordance with FDA standards.
An IRB has the power to approve, demand changes be made (to achieve approval), or disapprove research in accordance with FDA standards. The rights and welfare of human research subjects are safeguarded in large part by this group review.
2. An IRB is a legally recognized body that has been created for the purpose of evaluating and supervising biomedical research involving human subjects in compliance with FDA regulations. According to FDA guidelines, an IRB has the authority to approve, demand adjustments be made (to seek approval), or reject research. This group review substantially protects the rights and welfare of human research subjects.
3. According to the NIH, "the standards necessitate additional protections for the safety of inmates in research since it may not be possible for convicts to make a truly voluntary and unassisted decision whether or not to engage as subjects in research. 45 CFR 46, Subpart C contains certain protections.
4. Informed Consent Form: Sign and date.
5. The ability to consent is unaffected by the financial factor.
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pair up the nucleotide bases with their complementary partners.
Purine guanine always pairs with pyrimidine cytosine in a DNA sequence, while purine adenine always pairs with pyrimidine thymine. This is called base pairing rule in DNA.
What is Chargaff's rule?
According to Chargaff's criteria, guanine and cytosine should be equal in amount in the DNA of every species and organism, and adenine and thymine should be equal in amount. Additionally, there should be a 1:1 stoichiometric ratio between the purine and pyrimidine bases (A+G=T+C).
What is the base pairing rule of DNA and RNA?
The bases of DNA and RNA are also joined by chemical bonds and follow precise base pairing principles. Adenine (A) pairs with uracil (U) in DNA/RNA base pairing, and cytosine (C) pairs with guanine (G). When an RNA polymerase creates a complementary mRNA copy of a DNA "template" sequence, DNA is converted to mRNA.
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heterozygous individuals perpetuate some alleles that have lethal effects in homozygous individuals. a mutated allele (ml ) associated with taillessness in manx cats (left) is an example. cats homozygous for this allele (mlml ) typically die before birth due to severe spinal cord defects. in a case of incomplete dominance, cats heterozygous for the ml allele and the normal, unmutated allele (m) have a short, stumpy tail or none at all. two mlm cats mate. what is the probability that any one of their surviving kittens will be heterozygous?
Because MLML is deadly, the likelihood that any one kitten among the survivors will be heterozygous is 2/3. A mating of two ML cats results in 1/4 MM, 1/2 MLM, and 1/4 MLML.
A cell, a nucleus, or an individual organism is said to be heterozygous if it has different or non-identical alleles for a specific trait at the same loci on homologous chromosomes. Contrary to homozygous, in which the alleles are identical, it signifies that the alleles that code for the same gene or trait are different. A diploid is a living being or a cell having two chromosomal groups. The first pair is from the mother, while the second is from the father. A homologous paternal chromosome exists for every maternal chromosome.
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Lipids are large complex molecules called
These are referred to as macromolecules. The majority of macromolecules are polymers, which are lengthy chains of monomeric components.
The structure and function of all four kinds of big biological molecules will next be investigated: carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids.
Large organic molecules, known as macromolecules in biological systems, can contain hundreds or thousands of atoms. The majority of macromolecules are polymers,
which are molecules made up of a single unit (monomer) repeated multiple times. Four of the six electrons in carbon are accessible for bonding with other atoms.
The structure and function of all four kinds of big biological molecules will next be investigated: carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids.
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if dna is damaged or incompletely replicated in s phase, the inhibition of which of these molecules prevents the cell from entering m phase?
Inhibition of Cdc25 molecules stops the cell from entering m phase if DNA is damaged or incompletely replicated in the s phase.
What exactly is DNA?Deoxyribonucleic Acid is the name given to DNA. It is an organic substance with a distinct molecular make-up. All prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells contain it.
There are three distinct DNA types:
A-DNA is a right-handed double helix that resembles the structure of B-DNA.
B-DNA: A right-handed helix, this is the most frequent DNA configuration.
Z-DNA: Z-DNA is a left-handed DNA whose double helix winds zigzag to the left. Andres Wang and Alexander Rich made the find.
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which step in the figure contains compact bone
The step in the figure contains compact bone is Osteoblasts in the periosteal layer form .
What is compact bone ?
The characteristic of the exterior surface of a mature bone. Compact bone, also known as cortical bone, is a type of dense bone in which the osteocytes, or bone cells, are only found in very small spaces (lacunae) that are solidly filled with organic ground substance and inorganic salts. In contrast to cancellous bone, which has a sponge-like appearance and multiple big voids and is located in the marrow space (medullary cavity) of a bone, compact bone, which accounts for 80% of the human skeleton, makes up the remaining 20%. Most bones contain both kinds. The long bones of the arm and leg, as well as other bones where its greater strength and stiffness are required, are mostly made of compact bone, which surrounds cancellous bone in the shape of a shell.
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the partially digested fluid that passes from the stomach into the small intestine is a. bile. b. mucus. c. saliva. d. feces. e. chyme.
The partially digested fluid that passes from the stomach into the small intestine is e. chyme.
Chyme: The food stays in the stomach for 4-5 hours. The chyme is the food that thoroughly mixes with the stomach's acidic gastric juice through the muscular wall's churning motions. The food is ready to enter the small intestine once chyme has formed.
Chyme has two main functions: first, it makes food more surface area so that digestive enzymes can finish their work, and second, it makes various digestive glands release their secretions. Enzymes cannot function properly unless they are in close proximity to their substrate molecules.
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polysynaptic reflexes involve multiple synapses while monosynaptic reflexes only involve a single synapse. true/false
It is accurate to say that while monosynaptic reflexes only involve a single synapse, polysynaptic reflexes involve several synapses.
How do polysynaptic reflexes work?It is the type of reflex that involves several synapses. There may be one or many interneurons involved in the reflex arc. As a result, afferent and efferent neurons communicate indirectly and broadly.
Describe the monosynaptic reflex.Definition/Introduction. The monosynaptic stretch reflex, also known as the muscle stretch reflex and deep tendon reflex, is a reflex arc that enables clear communication between the sensory and motor neurons that innervate the muscle.
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which statement best explains why crossing-over during meiosis causes variation in genes in a population?
Answer:
Crossing Over
Explanation:
Crossing over is a cellular process that happens during meiosis when chromosomes of the same type are lined up.
axons of motor neurons of the ssomatic and autonomic nervous system senf fibers via the
Motor neuron axons of the autonomic and somatic nervous systems are connected to them by cholinergic fibers.
What do you call a motor neuron's axon?Motor neuron axons, or efferent fibers, convey information away from the central nervous system.The somatic system (SNS) and the parasympathetic (visceral) nervous system are the two main efferent systems (ANS).Skeletal muscles are innervated by somatic neurones, which are part of the somatic nervous system.
Where can you find motor axons?Sensory and/or motor axons, which are projections of a nerve cell bodies make up peripheral nerves.These nerve cell bodies are found in the dorsal horns of the spinal cord or brain stem, dorsal root ganglia (neurones), autonomic ganglion (autonomic neurons), and autonomic ganglia (neurogenic neurons) of the nervous system.
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which process produces the highest number of reduced electron carriers and thus the greatest potential for generating atp?
The majority of the ATP generated during cellular respiration is produced during the glycolysis stage.
Of the three major stages of cellular respiration, the electron transport chain produces the most ATP. Per glucose molecule, glycolysis results in the net production of 2 ATP.
The first step is to capture and destabilize the glucose, the second is to split it into two molecules with three carbons, and the third is to extract the energy from the chemical bonds of the glucose to produce a small number of ATP molecules, as well as pyruvate and NADH molecules.
A total of 2 ATP is produced during the glycolysis process, which converts glucose into pyruvate and energy (Glucose + 2 NAD+ + 2 ADP + 2 Pi --> 2 Pyruvate + 2 NADH + 2 H+ + 2 ATP + 2 H2O). Phosphorylation is made possible by the hydroxyl groups. Glucose 6-phosphate is the specific kind of glucose used in glycolysis.
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which of the following is not true about the earliest primate-like fossils? a) they were rodent-like, resembling tropical squirrels b) they had large brains relative to living primates c) some exhibited a nail instead of a claw on the hallux or big toe d) they exhibited primate-like cuspal patterns on their molar teeth
The most primitive primate known from reliable fossil evidence is Dryomomys. (Only isolated teeth and jaw fragments from the ape Purgatorius, which dates back 65 million years, have been discovered.
Which of the following concerning the oldest fossils that resemble primates is untrue?Palaeontologists have discovered the earliest primate skeleton ever discovered, which belonged to an animal that lived among trees 55 million years ago in what is now central China.
Can you describe the appearance of the early primates?Proto-primates are the first mammals that resembled primates. They were around the size of squirrels and looked like tree shrews. The fossil data now available is widely dispersed and comes primarily from North Africa.
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some sizable regions of different chromosomes of the human genome are more than 99 percent nucleotide identical with one another. these regions were overlooked in the production of the draft genome sequence of the human genome because of their high level of similarity. of the techniques discussed in this chapter, which would allow genome researchers to identify the existence of such duplicate regions?
The human reference genome has only covered the euchromatic portion of the genome since it was first published in 2000, leaving significant heterochromatic portions incomplete.
In order to address the remaining 8% of the genome, the Telomere-to-Telomere (T2T) Consortium has created the T2T-CHM13, a 3.055 billion base pair sequence of the entire human genome. This sequence corrects errors in earlier references, adds nearly 200 million base pairs of new sequence, and contains 1956 predicted genes, 99 of which are predicted to be protein-coding.
The completed areas, which open up these intricate regions of the genome to variational and functional studies, include all centromeric satellite arrays, recent segmental duplications, and the short arms of all five acrocentric chromosomes.
The Genome Reference Consortium (GRC) first published the current human reference genome in 2013 and most recently updated it in 2019. This reference, which has been continuously developed for the past 20 years, has its roots in the publically financed Human Genome Project.
The GRC assembly was made from sequenced bacterial artificial chromosomes (BACs) that were ordered and oriented along the human genome by means of radiation hybrid, genetic linkage, and fingerprint maps, in contrast to the rival Celera effort and most contemporary sequencing projects based on "shotgun" sequence assembly.
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the timing of a mutation during development has negligible effects on the severity of the genetic defect. State True or False your answer:
a. True
b. False
The severity of something like the genetic abnormality is little impacted by the time of a mutation through development. This assertion is untrue.
What does mutation entail?( myoo -TAY-shun) Any modification to a cell's DNA sequence. Mistakes in cell division can result in mutations, as can exposure to environmental DNA-damaging substances .Mutations might be deadly, helpful, or ineffectual.
Is it better or worse to have mutations?Depending on the situation or place, the impacts of mutation might be advantageous, detrimental, or neutral. The majority of non-neutral mutations are harmful. The effect of including a mutation and its likelihood of being unhealthy increase generally with the number of nitrogenous bases that are altered by the mutation.
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which of the following is not an artery that branches off the aortic arch?
The right atrioventricular artery isn't an artery that breaks off the aortic arch; it is not a straight branch of the aorta.
What are arteries and what do they do?Arteries: Your body receives oxygen-rich blood from the heart through these robust, muscular blood veins. They don't carry a lot of blood, but they can handle a lot of stress and stress from your blood flow. Only 10% – 15% of the blood in your body at any given moment is in the arteries.
What does artery and vein mean?Blood channels called arteries carry oxygen-rich blood from the heart to the rest of the body. Blood arteries called veins return low-oxygen blood from the body to the heart.
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Chemicals that enhance urinary output are called
Chemicals that enhance urinary output are called diuretics.
What are diuretics?
Diuretics, often known as water tablets, assist your kidneys in excreting more water and salt through your urine. Diuretics work by removing surplus fluid from the body and lowering blood pressure. Diuretics are also beneficial if you have excess fluid accumulating as a result of heart failure or other medical conditions.
What is a diuretics used for?
Water pills, often known as diuretics, are frequently used to treat high blood pressure.
What are the most common diuretics?
chlorthalidone.
hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide)
metolazone.
indapamide.
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imagine an antibiotic is administered to a sick patient. the antibiotic treatment kills 99% of the infectious bacteria. the remaining bacteria that survived the treatment are able to reproduce, and their offspring are also resistant to that antibiotic treatment. this process is known as .
The bacteria have high genetic variability and high reproductive rates.
Antibiotics are drugs that combat infections due by bacteria in human beings and animals by way of either killing the bacteria or making it hard for the microorganism to grow and multiply. bacteria are germs.
The primary forms of antibiotics consist of Penicillins, for example, phenoxymethylpenicillin, flucloxacillin, and amoxicillin. Cephalosporins, for instance, cefaclor, cefadroxil, and cefalexin. Tetracyclines, for instance, tetracycline, doxycycline, and lymecycline.
Antibiotics are for bacterial infections best. This consists of infections such as bloodstream infections, skin abscess/impetigo, bacterial pneumonia, urinary tract infections, streptococcal pharyngitis, and a few center ear infections.
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at 40x, how many individual blood cells can be seen in the viewing field?
40x magnifies the viewing field to reveal 583.33 distinct blood cells. Due to their rounded shape, blood cells may be recognized. They don't have cell walls as plant cells do.
At a total magnification of 40x (a scanning microscope), there may be counted 583.33 unique blood cells. The diameter of a 40x viewing field of view is 4200 m, whereas the normal size of a red blood cell is 6.2-8.2 m (7.2 m). So, 583.33 is the response. Blood cells appears as separate cells without nuclei when seen using a light microscope at a magnification of 40X.
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when a large amount of h accumulates between the inner and outer mitochondria membranes, this describes:
Chemiosmosis is characterized by a significant buildup of h between the inner and outer mitochondrial membranes.
Protons, also known as hydrogen ions, will diffuse from an area with a high proton concentration to an area with a low proton concentration. Using an electrochemical gradient of protons across a membrane, ATP can be produced. The term "chemiosmosis" refers to a process that is similar to osmosis in that it involves the passage of water across a selective membrane.By means of chemiosmosis, ATP is produced by the enzyme ATP synthase. In order to create ATP, it phosphorylates adenosine diphosphate (ADP) by using the free energy difference created by protons passing across the membrane. In mitochondria and chloroplasts, as well as in the majority of bacteria and archaea, ATP is produced by chemiosmosis. For instance, during photosynthesis, an electron transport chain in the stroma (fluid) of chloroplasts pumps H+ ions (protons) into the thylakoid gaps across the membrane. As protons travel through ATP synthase, the energy that has been saved is used to photo-phosphorylate ADP, creating ATP.
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What is the K value for the Cimetidine inhibition? a)0.48 pM b) 500 pM c)240 pM d)115 pM
The K value for the Cimetidine inhibition is the concentration of inhibitor needed to reduce the activity of an enzyme by 50%. In this case, the K value for the Cimetidine inhibition is d) 115 pM (picomolar).
The K value for the Cimetidine inhibition was determined through an in vitro experiment, where the enzyme activity was measured in the presence of varying concentrations of Cimetidine. The K value was determined to be 115 pM when the enzyme activity was reduced by 50%.
Cimetidine is a histamine H2 receptor antagonist, which inhibits the action of histamine on the gastric parietal cells of the stomach, thereby reducing the production of gastric acid. As such, Cimetidine is commonly used to treat peptic ulcers and other gastric acid-related disorders.
In conclusion, the K value for the Cimetidine inhibition is 115 pM (picomolar). This value is important for understanding the effectiveness of Cimetidine in inhibiting gastric acid production, and is a key factor in determining the appropriate dosage of Cimetidine for treating particular medical conditions.
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Tumor mutational load predicts survival after immunotherapy across multiple cancer types
a. True
b. False
Despite the fact that TMB is linked to better survival in patients receiving ICI across a wide range of cancer types, there might not be a single accepted definition of high TMB. The statement is true.
What is Tumor?When cells become damaged or old, they die and are replaced by new cells. Erroneous or damaged cells start to multiply and mature when they shouldn't when this regular process fails. These cells can expand into tumor tissue growths. Tumors may or may not be malignant (benign).Tumors that are both benign and malignant are possible (cancer). Benign tumors can grow significantly, but they do not invade or spread to nearby tissues or to other parts of the body. A cancerous tumor may encroach on nearby tissues or spread there. They can also spread to various parts of the body through the lymphatic and circulatory systems.Learn more about Tumour here:
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a nosocomial infection is group of answer choices always present, but is inapparent at the time of hospitalization. only a result of surgery. acquired during the course of hospitalization. always caused by pathogenic bacteria. always caused by medical personnel.
The nosocomial infection is group of answer choices always present in the acquired during the course of hospitalization.
They might also additionally arise in distinctive regions of healthcare delivery, which includes in hospitals, long-time period care facilities, and ambulatory settings, and can additionally seem after discharge. HAIs additionally consist of occupational infections that could have an effect on staff.
Nosocomial infections are infections sufferers accumulate even as admitted to a health-care facility and typically broaden forty eight hours or later after admission. These infections can result in severe issues like sepsis or even death.
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a patient has a problem that causes decreased signaling in the efferent neurons in his reflex control of ventilation. which would you predict? decreased neurotransmitter release secreted from neurons and decreased muscle contraction.
Somatic motor and skeletal , At specialized synapses known as neuromuscular junctions, the somatic motor neuron interacts with and activates skeletal muscle cells.
When a neural impulse reaches a motor neuron's synaptic terminal, voltage-gated calcium channels open.
Neurotransmitter release from the presynaptic terminal involves a number of complex steps, including:
depolarization of the terminal membrane, activation of voltage-gated Ca2+ channels, Ca2+ entry, a change in the conformation of docking proteins, and fusion of the vesicle to the plasma membrane, with subsequent neurotransmitter release into the synaptic cleft. Several disorders and biological contaminants alter the neurotransmitter release systems.Learn more about to neurons visit here;
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the accumulation of toxic chemicals up a food chain through consumption of contaminated organisms is called .
Answer:
Biomagnification
Explanation:
Biomagnification is the buildup of toxins in a food chain.
Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane (also known as DDT) concentration is parts per million. When the trophic level increases, so does the toxic buildup.
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what kind of body cavity is characteristic of the animals in the phyla covered in this lab exercise?
Coelemate kind of body cavity is characteristic of the animals in the phyla covered in this lab exercise
The ability of the inner mesenteric layer, which is primarily made of connective tissue, to sustain the central intestine in the middle of the animal is a benefit of a genuine Coelemate . Otherwise, gravity would pull the gut down and drastically reduce body size in those animals that have a body cavity needed for locomotion. The body sizes of coelomates are far bigger than those of any other group of animals. The coelom has varied significance to the morphology and variety of the different phyla within the coelomates. For annelids and other related phyla, it is crucial for their ability to burrow. However, in arthropods, where locomotion has been transferred to limbs supported by an exoskeleton rather than a coelomic hydroskeleton, it has largely lost this significance. the suspension
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Which of the following is a pathway that could be found in a reflex are? Sensory neuron, interneuron, brain, motor neuron, muscle Sensory neuron. interneuron, muscle, motor neuron Sensory neuron, interneuron, motor neuron, muscle Sensory neuron, motor neuron, interneuron, muscle Interneuron's
A pathway that could be found in a reflex arc is a Sensory neuron, interneuron, motor neuron, and muscle.
The pathway of neurons engaged in a reflex, which is an automatic reaction to a sensory experience, is referred to as the reflex arc. Sensory neurons have sensory receptors, which receive signals from membrane receptors and send them to the central nervous system (Brain and Spinal cord). Interneurons also referred to as relay neurons, are located between the first sensory neuron and the last motor neuron. The motor neuron receives a signal from the sensory neuron and transmits it to the interneuron. The motor neuron also referred to as the motoneuron, transmits the impulse from the interneuron to the muscle. The muscle is the effector organ that receives the impulse from the motor neuron. The outcome is a muscular contraction that shortens and pulls the bones closer together.
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What happens to the energy in a system of magnets when the magnetic force causes two magnets to move? Group of answer choices a The potential energy in the system increases. b The kinetic energy in the system decreases. c Some kinetic energy changes into potential energy. d Some potential energy changes into kinetic energy.
The magnetic force changes potential energy into kinetic energy because the magnet is moved against the magnet force is .D
What is magnetic force ?
Magnetic force can be defined as repulsion that arises between electrically charged particles because of their motion. Examples of magnetic force is a compass, a motor, the magnets that hold stuff on the refrigerator and also train tracks.
There are two types of magnetic forces such as:
Attractive force: Unlike poles (north-south) of a magnet attract each other. Repulsive force: Like poles (north-north; south-south) of a magnet repel each other.Therefore when opposite poles of the magnets approach they attract each other. Any north-south combination will pull them together but when two like poles come together they push each other apart.
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at thanksgiving dinner you surprise your family by telling them that a potato is a stem and not a root. assuming you had a microscope handy, what anatomical feature could you show them to prove it is a stem?
Distinct vascular bundles arranged in ring. potato is a dicot stem, dicot stem is a part of plant consisting of nodes, internodes. a distinguishing feature of diet stem is vascular bundles are arranged in a ring. Thus potato tuber is a stem, not root that helps in vegetative propagation. And this could be linked to Primordia.
How do you prove that potato tuber is a stem and not a root?In potato, the evidence of stem nature is by the presence of eyes on its brownish corky surface. It is a pit like structure and represents a node and axillary bud is present in it. Thus potato tuber is a stem, not root that helps in vegetative propagation.Potato is classified as a stem. Because it has many nodes known as eyes. The space between each eye is internodes. The potato eye grows into a shoot and a new plant.
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Which one of the following is a stop codon ?O UAG
O UAC
O AUG
O UCA
when looking at a ventral view of the sheep brain, which of the cranial nerves can be seen emerging from the floor of the midbrain?
The cranial nerve that can be seen emerging from the floor of a sheep's midbrain is the Trochlear nerve
The midbrain is a part of the brain that serves as the connection between various parts of the brain, specifically between the pons and the diencephalon. It contains more than ten types of cranial nerves.
The Trochlear nerve (cranial nerve IV) is a motor nerve. It's located in the midbrain, specifically from the posterior surface of the midbrain. The trochlear nerve is the only cranial nerve decussating peripherally, at the superior medullary velum after leaving the brainstem. It causes cranial nerve nuclei deficits to appear as a loss of function of the contralateral superior oblique muscle.
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