which of the following phases of the bacterial growth curve is matched with the correct definition? view available hint(s)for part a which of the following phases of the bacterial growth curve is matched with the correct definition? stationary phase--the phase where cells are not dividing very rapidly as they acclimatize to a new environment death phase--the phase where the curve is flat; microbial deaths balance the number of new cells lag phase--the phase where the death of organisms exceeds the creation of new cells and the curve declines log phase--the phase where organisms are actively dividing and the generation time is constant

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Answer 1

The bacterial growth curve represents the number of live cells in a bacterial population over a period of time. There are four distinct phases of the growth curve: lag, exponential (log), stationary, and death.

What is Bacterial growth?

The initial phase is the lag phase where bacteria are metabolically active but not dividing. The exponential or log phase is a time of exponential growth.

In the stationary phase, growth reaches a plateau as the number of dying cells equals the number of dividing cells. The death phase is characterized by an exponential decrease in the number of living cells.

For growth, bacteria need specific conditions, and not all bacteria require the same conditions. Microbial development is influenced by elements such as oxygen, pH, temperature, and light.

Therefore, The bacterial growth curve represents the number of live cells in a bacterial population over a period of time. There are four distinct phases of the growth curve: lag, exponential (log), stationary, and death.

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Related Questions

2. the horns of gray matter on one side of the cord contain large motor neuron cell bodies, similar to the motor neurons you examined in activity 1. are these cells located in the dorsal or ventral horns of the cord?

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The large motor neuron cell bodies are typically located in the ventral horns of the gray matter in the spinal cord.

The ventral horns contain the cell bodies of motor neurons that innervate skeletal muscles and are responsible for voluntary movement of the body. The dorsal horns, on the other hand, contain sensory neurons that receive information from sensory receptors in the body and transmit it to the brain. So, in general, the ventral horns of the gray matter in the spinal cord contain motor neurons, while the dorsal horns contain sensory neurons.A neuron is a specialized cell that transmits information in the nervous system. Neurons are the basic building blocks of the nervous system and are responsible for processing and transmitting information between different parts of the body and the brain.

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What is the site of photosynthesis in a animal cell?

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Photosynthesis is a process that occurs in plant cells, not animal cells. Animal cells do not have the organelles called chloroplasts, which are necessary for photosynthesis to occur.

Chloroplasts contain the pigment chlorophyll, which absorbs sunlight and converts it into energy that can be used to create food for the plant cell.

Instead of photosynthesis, animal cells obtain energy by breaking down organic molecules through a process called cellular respiration. This process occurs in the mitochondria, which are organelles that are present in both plant and animal cells. During cellular respiration, glucose and other organic molecules are broken down to release energy, which is used to power the cell's metabolic processes.

In summary, photosynthesis occurs in plant cells and requires chloroplasts, while animal cells obtain energy through cellular respiration in the mitochondria.

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the thin space between the parietal and visceral layers of the serous pericardium is the ______ cavity.

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The thin space between the parietal and visceral layers of the serous pericardium is the pericardial cavity.

There are two layers in the pericardium: the fibrous layer and the serous layer. The fibrous pericardium is a sac with a conical form. The roots of the major vessels at the base of the heart are united with its apex. Its broad base rests on top of the diaphragm's core fibrous region, which it is bonded to. The sternum and the front portion of the fibrous pericardium are joined by weak sterno-pericardial ligaments. The fibrous pericardium (parietal layer) is lined by a layer of serosa called the serous pericardium, which is mirrored around the roots of the main veins to cover the whole surface of the heart (visceral layer). A possible gap that might contain a tiny amount of fluid exists between the parietal and visceral layers. The epicardium is the portion of the visceral layer that covers the heart but leaves the major vessels uncovered.

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why would the primary motor cortex in the frontal lobe be in communication with the the speech center located in the frontal lobe?

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To speak clearly, you must move the muscles of your mouth, tongue, and throat. This is where the motor cortex comes into play. Located in the frontal lobe, the motor cortex takes information from Broca's area and tells the muscles of your face, mouth, tongue, lips, and throat how to move to form speech.

What is motor cortex ?

The main job of the motor cortex is to provide signals that control how the body moves. It is located in front of the central sulcus and belongs to the frontal lobe. It is made up of the supplementary motor area, premotor cortex, and primary motor cortex.

The area of the cerebral cortex known as the motor cortex is thought to be responsible for the organisation, management, and execution of voluntary motions. The frontal lobe's motor cortex is a region situated directly in front of the central sulcus in the posterior precentral gyrus.

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the ____ root of the spinal cord contains only sensory nerve fibers.

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All of the spinal cord's dorsal root's nerve fibers are sensory. One of the two roots that arise from each spinal segment and come together to form a spinal nerve is the dorsal root.

Dorsal rootFrom the body to the spinal cord, the dorsal root transmits sensory data such as pain, temperature, touch, and proprioception. The dorsal horn of the gray matter in the spinal cord is where the sensory fibers enter and connect with interneurons, which transmit the information to other neurons or the brain.The ventral root, in contrast, solely has motor nerve fibers, which transmit spinal cord impulses to the body's muscles and glands. The spinal nerve, which connects the spinal cord to the peripheral nervous system, is made up of the dorsal and ventral roots and leaves the vertebral column through an intervertebral foramen.

There are three primary categories of sensory nerve fibers:

A-delta fibers are myelinated nerve cells that communicate information regarding localized, sharp pain, changes in temperature, and mechanical stimuli. Compared to C fibers, they are quicker and have a smaller diameter.Unmyelinated nerve fibers called C fibers communicate information about itching, temperature fluctuations, and dull, agonizing pain. Compared to A-delta fibers, they are slower and have a bigger diameter.A-beta fibers are myelinated nerve cells that communicate information regarding vibration, pressure, and touch. Of all the sensory fibers, they are the biggest and swiftest.

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What are the two main factors that directly influence blood pressure ?

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The amount of blood the heart pumps and the difficulty of the blood's passage through the arteries both affect blood pressure.

Blood enclosed within a blood artery wall exerts a force per unit area on the wall, and this force is known as blood pressure. The blood pressure rises in direct proportion to the force the blood exerts on the blood vessel. Millimeters of mercury is used to measure this pressure. The pressure required to raise and maintain a mercury column at a height of 128 millimeters is known as a BP of 128 millimeters of mercury.

When blood volume changes, the cardiovascular system notices them and reflects them by elevating or lowering arterial pressure. Vascular collapse decreased pressure and consequently decreased perfusion pressure are all caused by a decrease in blood volume. By tightening capillaries until the body reaches a pulse rate that maintains adequate perfusion pressure, the cardiovascular system helps fight low blood volume.

The restriction in the circulatory system that is used to produce blood pressure, and blood flow, and is also a part of cardiac function is known as peripheral vascular resistance. Pulmonary vascular resistance is the term used to describe resistance found inside the pulmonary vasculature (PVR).

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what is the source of protons that are pumped out of the mitochondrial matrix in stage 1 of oxidative phosphorylation?

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NADH and FADH2 are the source of protons that are ejected from the complex 1,3,4 which goes to the complex 5 where all the protons get converted to ATP.

oxidative phosphorylation is made up of two known as the electron transport chain and chemiosmosis

Electrons received at complex 1 transfer to a carrier which carries to all different complex known as ubiquinone or Q

This takes place in mitochondria.

Transfer of protons take place from the mitochondrial matrix to the intermembrane space at the three sites of ATP production, which is at complex V.

The NADH and FADH2 is generally from glycolysis and kreb cycle.

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(Answer quick please)
The dashed boundaries between the time zones are how many degrees of longitude apart?
1.10 degrees
2.15 degrees
3.23.5 degrees
4.24 degrees

Answers

4.24 degrees. Cyyeet

a species of flower produces white and red flowers, but the red flowers are more easily spotted by pollinators. if a new species of insect that likes red flowers moves into the habitat, what do you expect would happen to the flower population?

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If a new species of insect that like red flowers moves into the habitat, the proportion of plants with white flowers would decrease

Bees are the only insect pollinators that harvest pollen for consumption. As a result, bees are responsible for 90 percent of all pollination on the planet. According to the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations, bee pollination is the most vital ecosystem function given by animals globally, accounting for around 100 crop species that supply 90 percent of food supplies for 146 nations.

Bumble bees, carpenter bees, sweat bees, metallic bees, orchard bees, digger bees, leaf-cutter bees, miner bees, cuckoo bees, mason bees, yellow-faced bees, and others pollinate fruits and vegetables as well as honey bees.

One blue orchard bee (Osmia lignaria) may pollinate almonds more effectively than 25 honey bees. Bumble bees are 40 to 60 times more successful than honey bees in pollinating tomatoes, yielding bigger fruits.

However, with a few exceptions, the contribution of native and non-managed bees to pollination goes unaccounted for in the economy. Butterflies, moths, and flies all play an important role in pollination.

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is the function of the fluid in the pleural space to act as a lubricate to allow the pleura to move smoothly within the chest cavity? true or false group of answer choices true false

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True. pleural space is the function of the fluid in the pleural space to act as a lubricate to allow the pleura to move smoothly within the chest cavity.

The pleural space is the space between the two layers of pleura, which are the membranes that surround the lungs and line the chest cavity. The fluid in the pleural space acts as a lubricant to reduce friction and allow the pleura to move smoothly against each other during breathing. This movement is essential for efficient lung function and helps to prevent the pleura from becoming inflamed or damaged due to excessive friction. The fluid in the pleural space also helps to maintain the pressure gradient between the lungs and the chest cavity, which is necessary for proper lung expansion and contraction.

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The complete Question is:

pleural space is the function of the fluid in the pleural space to act as a lubricate to allow the pleura to move smoothly within the chest cavity? true or false

why did the pigs say they had to move into the house?

Answers

They needed a peaceful setting to work in. The pigs make an announcement about moving into the farmhouse.

The animals are convinced by Squealer that the choice is required because they require a tranquil environment in which to work: "It was also more befitting to the grandeur of the Leader...to live inside a house rather than in a plain sty. Squealer justifies the pigs' move inside the farmhouse and use of the beds by saying that they are tired from working the farm every day and need to relax. The pigs become wasted after discovering a whisky crate in the barn, and Napoleon becomes hungover and fears he is going to die. He recovers, but Squealer updates the Ten Commandments to state that no animal shall murder another without justification.

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an ecologist estimated 800 star-nosed moles, condylura cristata, per square mile in one woodlot and 1,600 per square mile in another woodlot. what was the ecologist comparing?

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The ecologist was comparing the population density of star-nosed moles, Condylura cristata, in two different woodlots.

The population density is a measure of the number of individuals of a particular species living in a defined area, usually expressed as the number of individuals per unit area. In this case, the ecologist estimated the number of star-nosed moles per square mile in each woodlot.

Based on the given information, the population density of star-nosed moles is higher in the second woodlot than in the first woodlot, with an estimated density of 1,600 individuals per square mile compared to 800 individuals per square mile. The difference in population density between the two woodlots could be due to a variety of factors, such as differences in habitat quality, availability of food, or predation pressure. By comparing the population density of star-nosed moles in these two woodlots, the ecologist can gain insights into the factors that influence the distribution and abundance of this species in different habitats.

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A farmer wants to properly manage her soil to prevent a situation like the Dust Bowl. What is the best way to manage the soil?
remove humus from the soil

allow plants such as grass to root in it

water the soil frequently

frequently dig the soil to get rid of unwanted plants

Answers

The best way to manage the soil to prevent a situation like the Dust Bowl is water the soil frequently.

What were 3 causes of the Dust Bowl?

1. Poor farming practices: Farmers used the same land year after year, which depleted nutrients from the soil and caused it to become dry and dusty.

2. Drought: The region experienced a prolonged period of drought from 1931-1939, which drastically reduced the moisture in the soil.

3. Intense winds: The dry soil, combined with the strong winds in the region, created dust storms that spread the dry soil across the country.

The Dust Bowl was caused by a combination of severe drought and poor land management, including over-cultivation and plowing of the Prairies’ native grasses. By regularly watering the soil, the farmer can help retain moisture and prevent it from drying out and becoming vulnerable to wind erosion. Additionally, by allowing plants such as grass to root in it, the farmer can help keep the soil in place and prevent it from blowing away.

Therefore, water the soil frequently is the correct answer.

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A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor and notes that the presenting part is at 0 station. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this clinical finding? a. The lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines. b. Signs that precede labor include (select all that apply). c. Uteroplacental insufficiency

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Nurse is assessing client who is in active labor and notes that presenting part is at 0 station. Following is the correct interpretation of clinical finding :a.)The lowermost portion of fetus is at the level of ischial spines.

What is meant by ischial spines?

Ischial spine is a pointed process that extends from posterior border of  superior aspect of ischium at the level of lower border of acetabulum. It gives attachment to sacrospinous ligament.

Ischial tuberosity (or tuberosity of ischium, tuber ischiadicum), also known colloquially as sitz bones, or as pair the sitting bones, is large swelling posteriorly on the superior ramus of ischium. It marks the lateral boundary of pelvic outlet.

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which is true of the fluid mosaic model of membrane structure?

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The model compares the membrane to a "mosaic" of several parts, including a fluid or elastic double layer made up of big protein molecules and lipid molecules. In a phospholipid bilayer, a protein is embedded.

Who is the fluid persona?

Because they may be made to flow or move, liquids and gases are referred to as fluids. The molecules of any fluid are constantly moving randomly and colliding with one another as well as the walls of any container.

What would you use to define something as fluid?

Fluid can be used to indicate something that is prone to change or instability. Travel there is dangerous because of the unstable political climate and the ongoing threat of a bloody revolt.

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select the correct statement describing feedback control in animals.

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Correct statement that describes feedback control in animals is Animals can be regulators of one environment variable, but conformers of another.

What is the animal feedback mechanism?

When changes occur in the animal's environment, adjustments must be made to keep the internal environment of the body and cells stable. Receptors that sense environmental changes are part of the feedback mechanism. Stimuli: temperature, glucose or calcium levels - are recognized by receptors

Why do animals use negative feedback?

To adapt to changes in the internal or external environment, stimuli must be redirected. A negative feedback loop accomplishes this, while a positive feedback loop continues to stimulate and harm the animal.

What is animal positive feedback?

A positive feedback loop may maintain the direction of stimulation and accelerate stimulation. There are few examples of positive feedback loops in the animal body, but one is found in the cascade of chemical reactions leading to blood coagulation or clotting. 

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Select the correct statement describing feedback control in animals.

Positive feedback loops contribute to homeostasis.

An animal may be a regulator for one environmental variable but a conformer for another.

Ectotherms are regulators with respect to temperature.

compounds found in food that help regulate many body processes is nutrition. true or false?

Answers

False. Nutrition, which aids in the regulation of several bodily functions, is not one substance but rather a combination of nutrients and other substances included in meals.

Macronutrients (carbohydrates, proteins, and fats) and micronutrients are two categories of nutrition (vitamins and minerals). The breakdown of carbohydrates into simple sugars like glucose, fructose, and galactose gives the body energy.

While lipids provide the body energy and insulation, proteins are in charge of cell development and repair. Numerous biological processes, including metabolism, the generation of red blood cells, the operation of the immune system, and defence against infection, depend on vitamins and minerals.

Finally, dietary fibre is crucial for a balanced diet since it helps to control blood sugar levels and avoid constipation. All of these ingredients and nutrients from food are crucial for keeping the body healthy.

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What is the stomatal pore flanked by?

Answers

guard cells flank the stomatal pore and can be easily identified

Why would a population have a trait controlled by only one allele? Select all that apply.
Having a single allele makes it more likely that the population can survive environmental changes.
That exact trait is necessary in order for the organism to function properly.
The allele makes the population more diverse.
A small group of organisms becomes isolated and forms a new population.
is it a and c

Answers

A population would have a trait controlled by only one allele due to the following reasons:

A small group of organisms becomes isolated and forms a new population: When a small group of organisms becomes isolated, they can form a new population. This population may have a trait controlled by only one allele because the small group of organisms may only have one allele for that trait.That exact trait is necessary in order for the organism to function properly: If a trait is necessary for an organism to function properly, it is likely that the population will have that trait controlled by only one allele. This is because the trait is necessary for survival and therefore, the allele controlling the trait will be selected for.

Therefore, the correct answers are B and D. Having a single allele does not necessarily make it more likely that the population can survive environmental changes (A) and the allele does not make the population more diverse (C).

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what is it called when the liver responds to inflammatory cytokines by changing the spectrum of soluble plasma proteins it produces?

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When the liver responds to inflammatory cytokines by changing the spectrum of soluble plasma proteins it is denoted as acute phase response.

The core temperature increase caused by cytokines is just one of the numerous characteristics of the febrile reaction. Members of the same set of pyrogenic cytokines that drive the thermal response of fever mediate a variety of other physiological events, generally known as the acute-phase response. Numerous modifications in behavior, physiology, biochemistry, and nutrition are among these responses. Bacterial to a lesser degree, viral infections, trauma, malignant tumors, burns, tissue infarction, immunologically driven inflammation, and crystal-induced inflammation are stimuli that might cause an acute-phase response

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in four-o'clock plants, red flower color is dominant to white flower color. however, heterozygous plants have a pink color. if a pink-flowered plant is crossed with a white-flowered plant, what will be the phenotypic ratios of their offspring?

Answers

The resulting offspring would have a genotype ratio of 1:1 for Rr and rr, meaning half of the offspring would be heterozygous with pink flowers, and the other half would be homozygous recessive with white flowers.

The phenotypic ratio of the offspring would be 1:1 for pink and white flowers, as the heterozygous Rr plants would display the pink color phenotype, while the homozygous recessive rr plants would display the white color phenotype. Therefore, if a pink-flowered plant is crossed with a white-flowered plant, we can expect half of the offspring to have pink flowers, and the other half to have white flowers.

In genetics, the phenotypic ratio describes the proportion of individuals that display a particular trait in a population. The phenotypic ratio is determined by the genetic makeup of the parents and the mode of inheritance of the trait. In the case of four-o'clock plants, the red flower color is dominant to white flower color, while heterozygous plants have a pink color.

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muscles are not likely to tear from their bones because:____.

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Muscles are not likely to tear from their bones because of the strong connections between muscle and bone called tendons.

Fibrous structures called endons bind muscles to bones and transfer the stresses produced by muscle contraction to the bones. Tendons are built to withstand the mechanical stress of muscle contraction and movement because they are made of tightly packed collagen fibers.

Additionally, tendons have a limited blood supply, which minimizes the risk of muscle damage by slowing down metabolic activity in the tendon tissue due to a lack of nutrients and oxygen.

The muscles are frequently surrounded by additional connective tissues, such as fascia and ligaments, which assist to reinforce the connection between muscle and bone. In addition, the bones themselves provide a strong and solid platform for muscle attachment.

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Which tissue type covers body surfaces and lines the inside of organs and body cavities? A) Epithelial B) Nervous C) Muscle D) Connective E) None of the choices

Answers

Its A :) Epithelial tissues form the covering of all body surfaces, line body cavities and hollow organs, and are the major tissue in glands.

Is translation terminated when a stop codon is presented?

Answers

Termination is the action that completes translation. A stop codon (UAA, UAG, and UGA) in the mRNA causes termination when it hits the A site.

Codon and anticodon definitions :

An mRNA codon is a triplet or sextuple sequence that translates for a particular amino group during translation. A three-nucleotide sequence called the anticodon is present on tRNA and binds to the appropriate mRNA sequence. The anticodon framework that enables which amino acid is delivered by the tRNA molecule.

Why do we have three codons?

A, C, T, and G are the four nucleotides that make up DNA, whereas 20 amino acids are used to make proteins. Codons are triplets of nucleotides that specify amino acids.

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choose the true statements about inflammation (choose all that are correct): group of answer choices cytokines are often elevated fever often occurs memory b cells produce antibodies neutrophils phagocytize bacteria

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The true statement regarding inflammation is fever often occurs from the given set of statements.

Five symptoms of inflammation?The ancients defined inflammation based on visual observation using five cardinal signs: rubor (redness), tumour (swelling), calor (heat; only applicable to the body's extremities), dolor (pain), and loss of function (functio laesa).Microorganisms known as pathogens, such as viruses, fungus, or bacteria. scratches or damage from foreign objects, which are external injuries (for example a thorn in your finger) reactions to radiation or chemicals.It's a protective reaction controlled mostly by the immune system, which sends white blood cells to the afflicted areas, causing redness and swelling or symptoms like fever.

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Which is easier to identify: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, or telophase?

Answers

Answer:

The Metaphase is easiest to identify.

Explanation:

The chromosomes are easily seen and can be identified at the metaphase stage of cell division.

A trait has two alleles, represented by p and q. If p = 0.89, what is q?

Answers

Since p represents one allele and q represents the other allele, q must be equal to 1 - 0.89, which is equal to 0.11.

Is saprophyte a pathogen?​

Answers

No, a saprophyte is not a pathogen. Pathogens are microorganisms that cause disease in other organisms, while saprophytes are organisms that obtain their nourishment from dead or decaying organic matter.

What are saprophytes?

Saprophytes are organisms that obtain their nourishment from dead or decaying organic matter.

They play an important role in the cycling of nutrients in the ecosystem and help to break down dead plant and animal material, making it available for use by other organisms. Examples of saprophytic organisms include fungi, bacteria, and some types of plants, such as mosses and liverworts.

What are pathogens?

Pathogens are microorganisms, such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, or parasites, that cause disease in other organisms. They can infect plants, animals, and humans, and can cause a wide range of illnesses, ranging from mild infections to life-threatening diseases.

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The volume of blood that leaves the ____ must be close to the volume that returns.

Answers

Answer:

i think it is the body word

how is the domain eukarya different from the domains bacteria and archaea?

Answers

In contrast to bacteria and archaea, eukaryotes contain organisms with a membrane-bound nucleus and other organelles.

What are archaea?

The three realms of life are Bacteria, Eukarya, and Archaea. Unicellular organisms known as archaea can be found in a variety of settings, including harsh ones like hot springs, acidic ponds, and deep-sea hydrothermal vents. Due to their small size and straightforward cellular structure, they were initially thought to be bacteria when they were first found in the 1970s. However, due to genetic and metabolic distinctions, they were eventually identified as a distinct domain. The ability of archaea to survive in challenging environments is well recognised, and some species are even capable of methanogenesis, a process that generates methane gas as a metabolic byproduct.

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