Which of the following statements is NOT a difference between an exchange traded fund (ETF) and an index fund?
A) An ETF is structured to track a market index using a diversified basket of securities while an IMF focuses on tracking a market index using a portfolio comprising a defined group of securities within the index.
B) The structure of an ETF provides greater liquidity than an IMF since its market prices change throughout the day while an IMF is valued only one a day.
C) An ETF offers a daily disclosure of holdings while an IMF typically discloses through quarterly reports.
D) An IMF will distribute realized capital gains and losses more frequently than an IMF.

In order to reduce the adverse selection problem in loan markets, bankers collect information from prospective borrowers to screen out the bad credit risks from the good ones.

Adverse selection problem is a situation where one party in a transaction has more information than the other party which leads to an imbalance of power between the two parties. In loan markets, adverse selection occurs when borrowers with a high risk of default are more likely to seek out loans than borrowers with a low risk of default. This can lead to a situation where lenders are hesitant to lend to borrowers due to the risk of default.To reduce this problem, bankers collect information from prospective borrowers to screen out the bad credit risks from the good ones. This information can include credit history, income, and other financial information.

To know more about bankers visit:

https://brainly.com/question/26352161

#SPJ11

A) Calculation of pre-tax cost of debt: Given that bond was issued 7 years ago and is a 30-year bond. So, the remaining time to maturity = 30 - 7 = 23 years

Semi-annual coupon = 6.5%/2 = 3.25%

Current bond price = 107% of its face value= 107% * $1000 = $1070

So, the yield to maturity of the bond can be calculated using the below formula:

[tex]1070=\frac{32.5}{1+r/2}+\frac{32.5}{(1+r/2)^2}+....+\frac{32.5}{(1+r/2)^{46}}+\frac{1000}{(1+r/2)^{46}}[/tex]

Using the trial and error method, we find that the yield to maturity (YTM) is 5.76% (rounded to two decimal places)So, the pre-tax cost of debt = YTM= 5.76%

B) Calculation of after-tax cost of debt:

Given that the tax rate is 35%

The after-tax cost of debt can be calculated using the below formula:

After-tax cost of debt = Pre-tax cost of debt * (1 - tax rate)

= 5.76% * (1 - 0.35) = 3.74%

C) Which is more relevant, why?

The after-tax cost of debt is more relevant because it reflects the actual cost of borrowing for the company. It takes into account the tax shield benefits and is the actual cost of debt that the company has to bear. The pre-tax cost of debt is useful for comparing different sources of finance without considering their tax implications. However, the after-tax cost of debt is more useful for financial decision making because it gives a more accurate picture of the actual cost of debt.

To know more about issued visit :

https://brainly.com/question/29869616

#SPJ11

Production deviance refers to a type of workplace deviance that involves unethical and negative behavior targeted towards the organization's production or equipment. Therefore, B, C, D, and E are examples of production deviance. The following are examples of production deviance:

B. Damaging equipment

Production deviance involves harmful behaviors targeted towards the organization's property. Damaging or vandalizing company property is a common type of production deviance as it is capable of reducing the organization's efficiency and productivity.

C. Taking long breaks

Employees who frequently take longer breaks than they are allowed can reduce the productivity and efficiency of the organization. Taking long breaks is considered production deviance because it decreases the amount of work accomplished by the organization and may lead to a decline in overall revenue.

D. Employee shrinkage

Employee shrinkage is a situation where employees take things that belong to the company for their personal use, such as stationery, electronic gadgets, or other items. Employee shrinkage is considered production deviance because it reduces the amount of resources available to the organization.

E. Cyberloafing

Cyberloafing is a situation where employees use company resources to perform personal tasks that are unrelated to work. Cyberloafing is considered production deviance because it reduces the amount of time and resources available to the organization to accomplish tasks efficiently.

Learn more about Cyberloafing from the given link:

https://brainly.com/question/13032604

#SPJ11

We need additional data, such as net income, total assets, and total liabilities, to compute risk ratios for Virtual Gaming Systems for 2024 and 2025.

It is impossible to generate detailed risk ratio estimations without these specifics. I can, however, give you a list of often employed risk ratios that you can compute using the pertinent data from the income statements and balance sheets:1. Debt-to-Equity Ratio: This ratio assesses how much debt financing there is compared to equity financing and shows how risky and leveraged the company's finances are.2. Current Ratio: This ratio evaluates the company's capacity to pay current obligations and short-term liquidity

learn more about Systems here :

https://brainly.com/question/19843453

#SPJ11

(a) Prepare journal entries for the selected transactions above. (If no entry is required, select "No Entry" for the account titles and enter 0 for the amounts. Credit account titles are automatically indented when the amount is entered. Do not indent manually.

Record entries in the order displayed in the problem statement.)The date of purchase of inventory from Encino Company on account for $61,800 is September 1st.Account titleDebitCreditInventory61,800Accounts payable61,800The date of issuing a $61,800, 12-month, 8% note to Encino in payment of the account is October 1st.

Account titleDebitCreditAccounts payable61,800Notes payable61,800[Debt Cash with Interest Rate: $61,800 * 8% * 1/12 = $412]Accounts payable61,800Cash61,388Notes payable412The date of borrowing $61,800 from the Shore Bank by signing a 12-month, zero-interest-bearing $66,160 note is October 1st.Account titleDebitCreditCash61,800Discount on notes payable4,360Notes payable66,160[(face value - amount received) = $66,160 - $61,800 = $4,360]

To know more about journal visit:

https://brainly.com/question/32420859

#SPL11

The correct option is d. £ 6bn .The sunk cost  for Trailblazer is £6 billion, representing the amount already spent on advertising over the past two years.

In this scenario, the sunk cost for Trailblazer is the amount of money it has already spent on advertising, which is £6 billion. Sunk costs are costs that have been incurred and cannot be recovered, regardless of the outcomes or impacts they may have. In this case, the £6 billion spent on advertising is a sunk cost because it has already been expended and cannot be reversed. Although the advertising efforts have resulted in an increase in revenues by £10 billion and a reduction in competitors' revenues by £7 billion, these outcomes do not affect the classification of the initial expenditure as a sunk cost. Sunk costs are important to consider when making decisions going forward, as they should not be factored into future decisions since they are irretrievable.

The complete question is

Trailblazer has spent £6 bn over the past two years in advertising. As a result, it has increased its revenues by £10 bn and it has reduced the revenues of its competitors by £7 bn. How much is its sunk cost? a. £ 10bn b. £3bn c. £7bn d. £ 6bn.

To know more about sunk cost here

https://brainly.com/question/30637355

#SPJ4

The transaction described would be reflected in the cash flow statement as an investing outflow of $6,000 and a financing outflow of $53,000.

The purchase of equipment for $59,000 is considered an investing activity because it involves the acquisition of a long-term asset. The cash payment of $6,000 represents the portion of the equipment cost paid in cash and would be categorized as an investing outflow.

The remaining amount of $53,000 was financed through a 1-year, 7% note payable. Since this represents a borrowing arrangement, it is classified as a financing activity.

The signing of the note payable does not involve a cash outflow at the time of the transaction, but it creates a liability that will require future cash payments. Therefore, it would be reflected as a financing outflow of $53,000.

So, the correct answer is: Investing outflow of $6,000 and a financing outflow of $53,000.

Learn about more Investing outflow here: brainly.com/question/17185574

#SPJ11

The composition of risk management investment portfolios and the mitigation of duration (interest rate risk), liquidity, and credit risk are accomplished through various measures.

The following is a list of these methods:1. Duration (interest rate risk) Risk ManagementDuration risk can be mitigated by matching the duration of assets and liabilities.2. Liquidity Risk ManagementThe liquidity risk can be managed through the use of various investment strategies that allow for easier access to cash in the event of an unexpected requirement.

3. Credit Risk ManagementThe credit risk can be reduced by diversifying the portfolio across various securities, industries, and geographical regions, as well as selecting securities that are less volatile in nature.Securitization of RiskThe securitization of risk is a term used to describe the process of transferring an insurable risk to the capital markets by creating a financial instrument known as an insurance-linked security (ILS).

An insurance-linked security (ILS) is a form of investment vehicle that allows investors to obtain exposure to insurance risks such as natural disasters, weather events, or other catastrophic losses. Rather than purchasing an insurance policy, investors purchase securities that are linked to a particular insurance risk.

The issuer of the ILS uses the proceeds from the issuance of the securities to provide coverage for the insurance risk. The ILS pays a premium to investors if the risk materializes, and the investors receive the proceeds from the ILS. If the risk does not materialize, the investors receive no payout.

To know more about management visit:
https://brainly.com/question/32216947

#SPJ11

Taxes may be dischargeable in bankruptcy, but it depends on the type of tax and the circumstances. Hence the correct answer is option a.

The dischargeability of debts in a bankruptcy process relies on the type of bankruptcy filed and the unique circumstances.

Taxes - Depending on the type of tax and the situation, taxes may be dischargeable in bankruptcy. If certain requirements are met, such as the tax debt being at least three years old and the tax returns being filed on time, income taxes can typically be cancelled. Payroll taxes, for example, are typically not dischargeable taxes.

Child support is not a debt that may be discharged in bankruptcy. They are regarded as priority debts and are not dischargeable in bankruptcy.

A new car purchased 90 days prior to filing - Debts for upscale products or services accrued within 90 days of bankruptcy filing are deemed to be luxury debts. These debts might not be forgiven if you buy a new car or other luxuries during this time.

Punitive damages are typically not dischargeable in bankruptcy, as stated in item d. Punitive damages and other wrongful behavior-related debts are often not dischargeable.

To know more about bankruptcy

https://brainly.com/question/32991853

#SPJ4

a) We have to find the present value of the liability at t = 0. For this, we need to use the formula for present value of a lump sum which is given as:PV = FV / (1 + r)nHere, FV = $1,000,000, r = 1% and n = 15 yearsTherefore, PV = $1,000,000 / (1 + 1%)15 = $670,012.80b) In order to be immunized against changes in interest rates.

the value of the assets at time 0 should be equal to the present value of the liability which is $670,012.80. We can buy a combination of 2 year and 20 year zero coupon bonds to get this value.

Let the amount invested in the 2 year bond be x and the amount invested in the 20 year bond be y. The price of the 2 year bond is given by:Price of 2 year bond = $100 / (1 + 1%)2 = $98.04Therefore, x = ($670,012.80) / (98.04) = $6834.62 (approx)The price of the 20 year bond is given by.

Price of 20 year bond = $100 / (1 + 1%)20 = $55.95Therefore, y = ($670,012.80) / (55.95) = $11,966.88 (approx)Therefore, the portfolio should contain ($6834.62) of 2 year bond and ($11,966.88) of 20 year bond.c) The new interest rate is 1.25%. We need to calculate the approximate and exact change in the value of asset and liability. Let the new price of the 2 year bond be P2 and the new price of the 20 year bond be P20.

To know more about liability visit:

https://brainly.com/question/32761550

#SPJ11

Net Present Value (NPV)Net present value (NPV) is the present value of future cash inflows minus the present value of future cash outflows. It's one way to determine whether or not a project will be profitable.

To find the Net Present Value (NPV), the following formula is used:

NPV = (Cash inflow/(1 + r)^t) - Initial Investment - (Cost of Capital * Increase in working Capital)

where Cash inflow = Annual revenues - Annual variable costs - Annual fixed costsIncrease in working Capital = [tex]$62,632.00[/tex]

Initial Investment = [tex]$74,089.00[/tex] - Salvage Value = [tex]$53,843.00[/tex]

Cost of Capital = WACC = (D/V * Cost of Debt * (1-T)) + (E/V * Cost of Equity)

WACC = (0.6555 * 0.0893 * (1-0.2693)) + (0.3445 * 0.0781) = 0.0832 or 8.32%NPV = (347,360/(1 + 0.0832)^1) + (347,360/(1 + 0.0832)^2) + (347,360/(1 + 0.0832)^3) - 53,843.00 - (0.0832 * 62,632.00)NPV =[tex]$ 62,826.39[/tex]

NPV is the difference between the present value of cash inflows and the present value of cash outflows, taking into account the time value of money, i.e. money in the future is worth less than money today.In this scenario, the NPV is positive, so the investment is recommended. In other words, the project's present value of cash inflows exceeds the project's present value of cash outflows.

To know more about Capital visit:

https://brainly.com/question/32408251

#SPJ11

The Landlord cannot recover the value of the property from Tenant or New Tenant since he failed to demonstrate any damages caused by their respective breaches.

The lease forbids assignment by the Tenant, therefore, Tenant has breached the contract by transferring the rental property to another individual without the knowledge of the landlord. Tenant should be held responsible for the landlord’s inability to receive rent from him or her.

The landlord has no obligation to mitigate these damages by trying to find a new renter for the property. The breach of contract is sufficient cause for the landlord to sue Tenant for damages in a civil court.New Tenant should not be held accountable for the lack of insurance. When New Tenant took control of the property, he was not aware of the insurance requirement because the lease was between Landlord and Tenant.

To know more about Landlord visit:

https://brainly.com/question/29741978

#SPJ11

The intended purpose of a company newsletter is to keep employees up-to-date on important events and provide inspirational stories about employee and team contributions to the firm. This helps to ensure that everyone is aware of what is happening within the company and can feel like a valued member of the team. It is an excellent way to build morale and keep everyone motivated to do their best work.

Retreats are helpful at enhancing employee relations. They provide an opportunity for employees to get to know each other better, build stronger relationships, and learn new skills. They also provide a much-needed break from the daily routine, which can help employees return to work feeling refreshed and energized. While they may not be appropriate for family businesses, they are beneficial to most large corporations.

The first step in the use of an Employee Assistance Program (EAP) is to identify the troubled employee. This is necessary to determine the best course of action to take and to ensure that the employee receives the help they need. Once the troubled employee has been identified, they can be referred to an EAP counselor, who can work with them to find a solution to the problem.

All of the above are most likely symptoms of a troubled employee. Early departures from work, unusual on-the-job accidents, and altercations with co-workers are all signs that an employee may be struggling with personal issues or other problems. It is important for employers to be aware of these symptoms so that they can take appropriate action to help the employee before the situation becomes worse.

To know more about employees visit :

https://brainly.com/question/18633637

#SPJ11

Recurring transactions are recurring journal entries, recurring bills, recurring deposits, and recurring invoices. These transactions are used to automate the entry of certain transactions that are made on a regular basis.

It is used to make accounting entries easier and more accurate. It is a way to save time and effort. A recurring bill could be used if an accountant needs to set up a monthly recurring prepaid expense. A prepaid expense is a type of expense that has been paid for in advance and is expected to be used up over time. Prepaid expenses are a common type of expense for businesses and can include things like rent, insurance, and subscriptions.

A prepaid expense is recorded as an asset on the balance sheet until it is used up. The accountant can set up a recurring bill for the prepaid expense, which will automatically create the journal entry each month. This will save time and ensure that the journal entry is accurate.

To know more about transactions visit :

https://brainly.com/question/24730931

#SPJ11

Alternative 2, taking the lump sum distribution of $581,000, is the better option .

To determine the present values of the two alternatives, we need to calculate the present value of each cash flow using the formula for present value (PV);

PV = CF / [tex](1+r)^{n}[/tex]

Where;

PV = Present Value

CF = Cash Flow

r = Interest rate (in decimal form)

n = Number of periods

For Alternative 1:

Cash Flow (CF) = $50,000 per year

Interest rate (r) = 8% or 0.08

Number of periods (n) = 14 years

Using the formula, we can calculate the present value for Alternative 1:

PV(Alternative 1) = $50,000 / (1 + 0.08)¹ + $50,000 / (1 + 0.08)² + ... + $50,000 / (1 + 0.08)¹⁴

For Alternative 2:

Cash Flow (CF) = $581,000

Interest rate (r) = 8% or 0.08

Number of periods (n) = 1 (since it's a lump sum distribution)

Using the formula, we can calculate the present value for Alternative 2:

PV(Alternative 2) = $581,000 / (1 + 0.08)¹

Now let's calculate the present values;

PV(Alternative 1) = $50,000 / (1 + 0.08)¹ + $50,000 / (1 + 0.08)² + ... + $50,000 / (1 + 0.08)¹⁴

PV(Alternative 1) ≈ $50,000 / 1.08¹ + $50,000 / 1.08² + ... + $50,000 / 1.08¹⁴ ≈ $494,661

PV(Alternative 2) = $581,000 / (1 + 0.08)¹ ≈ $537,963

Rounded to the nearest dollar:

PV(Alternative 1) ≈ $494,661

PV(Alternative 2) ≈ $537,963

Comparing the present values, we can see that PV(Alternative 2) is greater than PV(Alternative 1). Therefore, Alternative 2, taking the lump sum distribution of $581,000, is the better option based on present value calculations.

To know more about present values here

https://brainly.com/question/14860893

#SPJ4

1) Spreading the overhead refers to the process of dividing a company's overhead expenses (such as rent, utilities, and insurance) among the products it produces.

This is done to determine the cost of each product and set a price that covers the cost and allows for a profit margin.

2) The rational range of production refers to the range of production where a company can maximize its profits. It is determined by the point where the marginal cost (the cost of producing an additional unit) is equal to the marginal revenue (the revenue earned by selling an additional unit).

3) Average revenue is the revenue earned per unit sold, while marginal revenue is the revenue earned by selling an additional unit. The relationship between the two is that when marginal revenue is greater than average revenue, the average revenue will increase. When marginal revenue is less than average revenue, the average revenue will decrease.

4) The point of profit maximization is where the marginal cost and marginal revenue curves intersect. At this point, the company is producing the optimal level of output where the cost of producing an additional unit is equal to the revenue earned by selling an additional unit, resulting in the maximum profit.

5) The break-even point is the point where a company's total revenue is equal to its total cost, resulting in zero profit or loss. The shut-down point is the point where a company's total revenue is less than its total variable cost, resulting in a loss.

The difference between the two is that the break-even point is where a company is covering all of its costs, while the shut-down point is where a company should stop producing because it is losing money.

To know more about margin visit:

https://brainly.com/question/28481234

#SPJ11

Customers sometimes get a "good deal" on a product due to different reasons that can be explained based on behavioral aspects of consumption and/or knowledge of supply and demand. When it comes to supply and demand, it may result in lower prices if the supply of a product is high and the demand is low.

This makes it harder for suppliers to sell their products, and they will, therefore, reduce prices to attract customers. On the other hand, if the demand is high and the supply is low, suppliers will raise their prices since they know that customers will still be willing to pay for the product because it is in high demand. Thus, supply and demand play a significant role in determining product prices.

As for behavioral aspects, customers may get a good deal on a product for different reasons. For example, a company may launch a new product, and they want to introduce it to the market. They may offer discounts and promotions to attract customers and get them to try the new product. Another reason may be that the product is nearing its expiration date or season, and the company wants to get rid of its remaining stock. They may offer discounts or sales to encourage customers to buy the product before it goes off the shelf.

To jnow more about stock visit:

https://brainly.com/question/31940696

#SPJ11

The Budget Line is the maximal expenditure that a consumer can afford for given income and prices. The option (a) is the correct answer.

A budget line is a visual representation of a budget constraint. A budget line describes all of the potential combinations of goods that someone can purchase given their income and the prices of goods. It's a straight line that shows the maximum amount of two different goods that can be purchased with limited resources.

The budget line demonstrates how the consumer's income is spent on goods and services. The budget line helps to determine what the consumer can afford and how much they must pay for the goods and services they want to buy.

To know more about the consumer, visit:

https://brainly.com/question/31178989

#SPJ11

Allocatively efficient points are the most desired by society.

Allocative efficiency is a situation where a particular good or service is distributed in such a way that it satisfies the wants and needs of a community without wasting resources. Thus, allocative efficient points refer to the most desirable combination of goods and services produced by an economy. It is the point where society's desires match the production capability of the economy. Therefore, the answer is that allocative efficient points are most desired by society.

Similarly, productively efficient points refer to the combination of goods and services that are produced using the least amount of resources. These points occur when the production frontier is maximized. They are the most productive combination of goods and services that an economy can produce. So, the option B is also correct. The option D is wrong as allocative efficiency does not have anything to do with the price. It is all about producing the most desirable goods and services in the most efficient manner.

Learn more about Allocatively efficient points -

https://brainly.com/question/14566650

#SPJ11

Allocatively efficient points are the most desired by society.

Allocative efficiency is a situation where a particular good or service is distributed in such a way that it satisfies the wants and needs of a community without wasting resources. Thus, allocative efficient points refer to the most desirable combination of goods and services produced by an economy. It is the point where society's desires match the production capability of the economy. Therefore, the answer is that allocative efficient points are most desired by society.

Similarly, productively efficient points refer to the combination of goods and services that are produced using the least amount of resources. These points occur when the production frontier is maximized. They are the most productive combination of goods and services that an economy can produce. So, the option B is also correct. The option D is wrong as allocative efficiency does not have anything to do with the price. It is all about producing the most desirable goods and services in the most efficient manner.

Learn more about Allocatively efficient points -

brainly.com/question/14566650

#SPJ11

The required answer to this question is the net differential profit or loss for each of the two alternatives for Keating Co. and then determine the differential effect on profit for Falcon Co. and the best option for Mighty Safe Fire Alarm.

Keating Co. Equipment Disposal:

a) Selling the equipment through a broker:

Equipment cost: $79,000

Accumulated depreciation: $55,300

Differential profit or loss: $23,250 - $23,700 = -$450 (loss)

b) Leasing the equipment to Gunner Co.:

Lease income over five years: $50,000

Expenses (repairs, insurance, property tax): $12,000

Net cash from leasing: $50,000 - $12,000 = $38,000

Differential profit or loss: $38,000 - $23,700 = $14,300 (profit)

The net differential profit or loss from the sell alternative is $450 (loss), and the net differential profit from the lease alternative is $14,300 (profit).

Answer for Keating Co.:

The net differential profit or loss from the sell alternative is c. $10,325 loss.

Falcon Co. Special Order:

Normal selling price per unit: $30

Variable cost per unit: $15

Contribution margin per unit for the special order: $20 - $15 - $2 = $3

Total contribution margin for the special order: $3 * 1,650 = $4,950

Differential effect on profit: $4,950

Answer for Falcon Co.: The differential effect on profit would be d. an increase of $4,950.

Mighty Safe Fire Alarm:

Cost of buying from MotherBoard, Inc.: $68 per unit

Cost of making (per unit):

Direct materials: $32

Direct labor: $11

Variable factory overhead: $14

Total variable cost per unit: $32 + $11 + $14 = $57

Difference in variable cost per unit: $68 (buying) - $57 (making) = $11

Total units needed: 56,000

Total differential cost (11 * 56,000): $616,000

Additional fixed cost for making: $71,000

Answer for Mighty Safe Fire Alarm: The option selected should be d. buy, $71,000 increase in profits.

Learn more about profit here : brainly.com/question/15036999
#SPJ11

The tax hair who completes a 2022 return and answers yes to the f bar question on Schedule B will be required to complete the Financial Crimes Enforcement Network (FinCEN) Form 114, which is also known as the Foreign Bank Account Report (FBAR).

A FinCEN Form 114 is required to be completed by a taxpayer if they have foreign financial accounts with an aggregate value of more than $10,000 during a calendar year. The term "foreign financial account" is defined broadly, including bank accounts, brokerage accounts, mutual funds, and other types of investments held in foreign countries.

The FBAR for the 2022 tax year must be filed electronically with FinCEN by April 15, 2023. The FBAR filing deadline can be extended to October 15, 2023, by submitting FinCEN Form 114a. The extension is granted automatically, and there is no need to explain why the extension is being requested.

To know more about Financial visit:

https://brainly.com/question/28319639

#SPJ11

Expatriate managers bring global perspective, cultural adaptability, but higher costs and potential challenges in foreign environments, language, and culture.

In the realm of international business management, there are two different types of professionals: expatriate managers and domestic managers. Expatriate managers are individuals who are deployed by a company to work in a foreign nation and manage its operations there. They are sometimes referred to as expatriates or international assignees. Domestic managers, on the other hand, are natives who are employed by a business to run its domestic activities.

The capacity of international managers to adapt to different cultures is one of their advantages. They are knowledgeable with the operations and the home country of the company, as well as the customs and commercial practises of the host nation. Due to this, they are able to effectively bridge the gap between the two cultures.coordination and dialogue. Additionally, foreign managers bring a plethora of domestic knowledge and experience with them, which can promote innovation and the dissemination of best practices.

However, there are a number of drawbacks to hiring foreign management. First off, hiring and keeping foreign managers often costs more than keeping domestic managers. To ensure the welfare and motivation of expats, businesses must offer relocation aid, housing, tax equalization, and other advantages. Additionally, foreign managers may experience difficulties adjusting to the business environment, linguistic obstacles, and cultural peculiarities of the host nation. These elements may reduce their efficiency and possibly result in misunderstandings or poor communication.

Learn more about expatriate managers here

https://brainly.com/question/32408823

#SPJ11

Raw Materials Account:Particulars  Amount  Particulars  AmountTo purchases a/c  365,000.

By Wages a/c  120,000To indirect materials  94,500  By balance c/d  255,500To balance b/d  -  -  -Total  459,500  Total  459,500 Manufacturing Overheads Account:

Particulars  Amount  Particulars  AmountTo Depreciation a/c  72,000  By Cash a/c  48,000To balance b/d  -  By WIP a/c  15,840To Wages a/c  120,000  By Creditor a/c  15,000

To Indirect Material a/c  94,500  By Balance c/d 214,660To Balance c/d 214,660  -  -Total  501,160  Total  501,160Work in Progress Account:

Particulars  Amount  Particulars  AmountTo Balance b/d  -  By Manufacturing Overheads a/c  15,840To Direct Material a/c  220,500  By Balance c/d 420,660To Wages a/c  120,000  -  -By Balance c/d 420,660  -  -Total  340,500  Total  840,500Therefore, Raw Material Account is debited with the total amount of purchases and indirect materials amounting to R459,500.

Manufacturing Overhead Account is debited with Depreciation, Wages, Indirect Materials totaling R501,160.The Work in Progress Account is debited with direct material, wages amounting to R340,500 and is credited with Manufacturing Overheads of R15,840 to arrive at a balance of R420,660.

To know more about Materials visit:

https://brainly.com/question/30503992

#SPJ11

1. The machine needed extensive repairs and was not worth repairing Diaz disposed of the machine, receiving nothing in return

In this case, Diaz Company has disposed of the machine that costs $126,000 and has accumulated depreciation of $93,300, and received nothing in return. The loss incurred by Diaz is calculated as follows:Cost of machine = $126,000Accumulated Depreciation = $93,300

Book value of the machine = Cost of machine - Accumulated DepreciationBook value of the machine = $126,000 - $93,300Book value of the machine = $32,700Loss on disposal of machine = Book value of machine sold - Cash receivedLoss on disposal of machine = $32,700 - $0Loss on disposal of machine = $32,700Now, let us prepare the journal entry to record this transaction.

Account TitlesDebitsCreditsLoss on Disposal of Machine$32,700Accumulated Depreciation - Machine$93,300Machine$126,000(To record the disposal of machine that needed repairs and was not worth repairing)2. Diaz sold the machine for $17,200 cash.

In this case, Diaz Company has disposed of the machine that costs $126,000 and has accumulated depreciation of $93,300, and received $17,200 in cash for it.

To know more about repairing visit:

https://brainly.com/question/12958309

#SPJ11

Entrepreneurship is the process of creating, developing, and managing a new business venture to make a profit. Entrepreneurs are people who have the passion, skills, and determination to identify business opportunities, innovate, and take calculated risks to start a business. There are various forces that have led to the boom in entrepreneurship.

One of the factors is technology advancement, which has led to the creation of new products and services, as well as new business models, such as e-commerce, social media, and digital marketing. Another factor is the availability of funding and resources, which has made it easier for entrepreneurs to access capital, infrastructure, and networks to grow their businesses.

Moreover, changing demographics, globalization, and social and cultural changes have created new market opportunities and customer demands.

Entrepreneurial characteristics are the qualities and skills that an entrepreneur should have to succeed in starting and running a business. These characteristics include vision and creativity, risk-taking and resilience, self-motivation, passion and persistence, adaptability and flexibility, and leadership and management skills.

Entrepreneurship has its benefits and drawbacks, which an entrepreneur should consider before starting a business. The benefits include the potential for financial independence, personal satisfaction and fulfillment, control over one's destiny, and the ability to contribute to society and the economy.

To know more about developing visit:

https://brainly.com/question/29659448

#SPJ11

The closing costs in the chart refer to the costs associated with obtaining the loan. The Option C.

Closing costs are the fees and expenses that need to be paid when finalizing the purchase of a new home. They typically include various charges such as loan origination fees, appraisal fees, title search fees, title insurance, attorney fees, recording fees etc associated with the loan process.

These costs are separate from the down payment and are typically paid at the closing of the real estate transaction. In the given chart, the closing costs amount to $4,800 and are included in the total principal cost of $246,000.

Read more about closing costs

brainly.com/question/1084194

#SPJ1

Answer: its c

Explanation:

i just took the test

When estimating the market risk premium if you have 100 years of data and you assume that the true market risk premium is constant over time and that the CAPM holds,  positive returns since they are not representative of typical market returns.

Thus, the correct answer is d. You want to exclude years with extreme negative or extreme positive returns, since they are not representative of typical market returns.

To estimate market risk premium using the CAPM method, the equity risk premium and the risk-free rate are combined. CAPM model is used for calculating the expected return on equity investments, considering the return on the market index as a benchmark. The formula for the CAPM model is shown below:

Ri = Rf + β (Rm - Rf)Where, Ri is the expected return on a stock or portfolio, Rf is the risk-free rate,β is the beta of the security or portfolio,Rm is the expected return of the market.

To know more about estimating visit:

https://brainly.com/question/30876115

#SPJ11

Solution: Given, the demand function for country A is Q_A = 9 - 0.5P_AAnd, the demand function for country B is Q_B = 13 - P_B We have to find the profit maximizing values for the following if the firm employs 3rd degree price discrimination:

Price per pen in country A Price per pen in country B Total quantity of pens sold by the firm Total profits of the firm Profit Maximization When price discrimination is practiced.

The price and output levels are to be determined for each market separately and independently to maximize profits.

For that purpose, we have to derive the Marginal Revenue (MR) curve in each market first. In Country A:

Given, the demand function for country A is Q_A = 9 - 0.5P_AQ_A - 9 = -0.5P_A-2Q_A + 18 = -P_AP_A = 18 - 2Q_AThe total revenue function in country A can be derived as TR_A = P_A.Q_A= P_A(18 - 2Q_A).

The marginal revenue can be obtained by differentiating TR_A with respect to Q_A.MR_A = dTR_A/dQ_AMR_A = 18 - 2Q_AThe marginal cost function is C = 4.5Q_A + 4.5Q_B Substituting Q_B = Q - Q_A, we have C = 4.5Q_A + 4.5(Q - Q_A)C = 4.5Q + 4.5Q_A.

To know more about discrimination visit:

https://brainly.com/question/29801080

#SPJ11

To determine the break-even point, we need to calculate the level of sales at which the company neither incurs a profit nor a loss. The break-even point for Easton Corporation based on the given information is $810,000.

To determine the break-even point, we need to calculate the level of sales at which the company neither incurs a profit nor a loss. The break-even point can be calculated using the following formula:

Break-even point (in dollars) = Fixed costs / Contribution margin ratio

From the given information:

Sales = $920,000

Contribution margin ratio = 40% (or 0.40)

Net loss = $44,000

Since a net loss is reported, it indicates that the company's total costs (including fixed costs and variable costs) exceeded its total sales revenue.

To calculate the break-even point, we need to find the fixed costs. We can rearrange the formula to solve for fixed costs:

Fixed costs = Contribution margin ratio × Sales - Net loss

Fixed costs = 0.40 × $920,000 - $44,000

Fixed costs = $368,000 - $44,000

Fixed costs = $324,000

Now, we can calculate the break-even point:

Break-even point = $324,000 / 0.40

Break-even point = $810,000

Therefore, the break-even point for Easton Corporation based on the given information is $810,000.

To learn more about break-even point click here

https://brainly.com/question/32246901

#SPJ11

The type of research described is called correlational research. Correlational research aims to identify and understand the relationship between variables.

It seeks to determine whether changes in one variable are associated with changes in another variable. This type of research often involves the use of questionnaires, observations, and secondary data as methods of data collection. In correlational research, researchers collect data from participants or sources and analyze it to determine the strength and direction of the relationship between variables. Questionnaires or surveys are commonly used to gather data directly from individuals, while observations involve systematically watching and recording behaviors or events. Additionally, researchers may utilize secondary data from existing sources such as databases, previous studies, or records. The main objective of correlational research is to identify patterns or associations between variables without establishing a cause-and-effect relationship.

learn more about correlational here :

https://brainly.com/question/30116167

#SPJ11