Answer:
Postmenopausal women typically have high levels of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) in their urine because these hormones are produced by the pituitary gland in response to declining levels of estrogen in the body.
During the menstrual cycle, the ovaries produce estrogen, which helps to regulate the levels of FSH and LH in the body. However, as a woman approaches menopause, the ovaries begin to produce less estrogen, leading to a decline in these hormones. In response, the pituitary gland increases its production of FSH and LH in an effort to stimulate the ovaries and maintain normal reproductive function.
As a result of this increased production of FSH and LH, postmenopausal women may have higher levels of these hormones in their urine. This is a normal physiological response to the decline in estrogen levels, and is not typically cause for concern. However, high levels of FSH and LH can sometimes indicate underlying medical conditions, such as ovarian failure or pituitary dysfunction. In these cases, it is important for postmenopausal women to discuss their hormone levels with their healthcare provider to determine the appropriate course of action.
if 2 peaks are observed for the sequence output for amelogenin, then is the person male or female?
The peaks for the amelogenin gene were used to infer the gender. The gender was classified as female if just one peak at the amelogenin locus was seen. The gender was classified as male if the amelogenin locus showed two separate peaks that differed by 6 bp.
Checking the agreement between amelogenin self-reported gender and genotype-inferred gender from genomic data is an important quality control measure in clinical genetic testing because gender mismatches caused by sex chromosomal abnormalities or inaccurate clinical data can have a significant impact on molecular diagnosis and treatment choices. In clinical genetic testing, targeted gene sequencing (TGS) is frequently advised as the initial diagnostic step. However, the current gender-inference methods are insufficient and inaccurate for evaluating TGS data because they are designed for whole genome and whole exome data. In this study, we validated a novel tool called seGMM that infers the gender of a sample using unsupervised clustering (Gaussian mixture model). By aligning the sequencing reads from the samples, the seGMM programme can also find sex chromosomal abnormalities.
Learn more about amelogenin by using this link:
https://brainly.com/question/28584382
#SPJ4
Small molecules can be moved actively across the cell membrane by: A. diffusion. B. water channel proteins. C. proteins that act like pumps. D. facilitated diffusion.
Small molecules can be moved actively across the cell membrane proteins that act like pumps. Thus correct option (c).
Active transport involves the movement of chemicals from a low-concentration location to a high-concentration area in opposition to the concentration gradient. Being "active" means that this process uses energy (usually in the form of ATP). Passive transport is in opposition to it.
In this type of transport, the small molecules or ions can cross the cell membranes through the transport proteins transport proteins that can be found in the membrane which function as pumps.
What are active transportation examples?
Potassium-sodium pump (exchange of sodium and potassium ions across cell walls) Moving along the human gastrointestinal system are amino acids. From the heart muscle cells, calcium ions are released. transferring glucose into or out of a cell.
Hence, the answer is C.
Learn more about active transportation to visit this link
https://brainly.com/question/29759743
#SPJ4
On side A of a U-tube the solution has a solute potential of .5 and side B has a solute potential of 0. Which way will the way move if a positive pressure of .25 is added to side A
According to the diffusion concept, solution will flow from side B to side A as side B is at lower potential than side A.
What is diffusion?Diffusion is defined as the process of movement of molecules which takes place under concentration gradient. It helps in movement of substances in and out from the cell.The molecules move from lower concentration region to a higher concentration region till the concentration becomes equal.
There are 2 main types of diffusion:
1) simple diffusion-process in which substances move through a semi-permeable membrane without the aid of transport proteins.
2) facilitated diffusion- It is a passive movement of molecules across cell membrane from higher concentration region to lower concentration.
There are 2 types of facilitated diffusion one is osmosis and dialysis.
Learn more about diffusion,here:
https://brainly.com/question/14852229
#SPJ1
verify 2. vibrio vulnificus is particularly pathogenic because this strain of bacteria hides its surface molecules behind a polysaccharide coat, which prevents interactions with pattern recognition receptors (prrs) on phagocytic cells. describe how antibodies could be employed to eliminate this bacteria in the absence of complement proteins.
Antibodies could be employed to eliminate this bacteria in the absence of complement proteins by attaching to the polysaccharide coat and letting the PRRs see the surface molecules.
Proteins called antibodies protects you when your body comes into contact with an unwanted substance.
The complement cascade or a chain of events that results in the killing of bacteria, could not be activated by antibodies in the absence of complement proteins.
The bacteria's polysaccharide coat would not prevent the antibodies from attaching to it and thus exposing the surface molecules to the PRRs. As a result, even in the absence of complement proteins, the phagocytic cells would be able to identify the bacteria and engulf them.
Therefore, above given is the mechanism on how antibodies could be employed to eliminate Vibrio vulnificus in the absence of complement proteins.
Learn more about phagocytic here;
https://brainly.com/question/7285177
#SPJ12
a lab technician uses a coombs test to determine whether a mother and fetus are incompatible for the rhesus (rh) blood antigen, and determines that there is no agglutination. which of the following is true? group of answer choices the fetus is not at risk of hemolytic disease of the newborn. there is rhesus incompatibility between the mother and the fetus, and therefore risk of hemolytic disease of the newborn. the mother's red blood cells are rh- and the fetus's red blood cells are rh . the mother's red blood cells express rh and type a blood antigen.
Hemolytic illness in the infant is not a concern for the fetus. Due to the mother's rhesus incompatibility with the fetus, the baby is at risk for hemolytic illness.
If the test is normal (negative), it suggests the mother really hasn't produced antibodies to the fetus' blood. Anti-D antibodies are discovered in the mother's serum using the indirect Coombs test. These would hemolyze fetal RBCs if they came into touch with them, which would result in HDN. Treatment for HDN can be administered by detecting maternal anti-D before fetal RBCs have been attacked. When a Rh negative woman gives birth to a child with a Rh positive father, HDN results. The mother's immune system will produce antibodies to fight her unborn child if she has been exposed to Rh positive blood and has been sensitized.
Learn more about fetus
https://brainly.com/question/465851
#SPJ4
Art-labeling Activity Figure 19.2 Label the systems of th functions of the nephron. Part A Drag the labels onto the diagram to identify the structures and functions of the nephron. model neghron has been untwisted so that fhed flows left to right Loop of Tebulet Elements Collecting dut Filtration 300 mOSM 100 percent Glomerulus esiole 300 mOSM 30 percent volume Peritubular capilaries 100 mOSM 50-1200 only
Labeling the nephron function system. (The diagram is in the picture)
What is the mechanism of urine formation in the nephron?There are three important events in the formation of urine, namely filtering (filtration), absorption (reabsorption), and collection (augmentation).
The process of filtration occurs between the glomerulus and Bowman's capsule. When blood from the afferent arterioles enters the glomerulus, blood pressure is high. This causes water and molecules that are not dissolved in the blood to pass through the capillary walls of the glomerulus. Then, water and its molecules enter the filtration plate of Bowman's capsule. The result of this filtration is called glomerular filtrate or primary urine. The concentration of fluid as filtered enters the glomerulus is 300 mOSM, 100 percent by volume.
When the filtrate is removed, the blood in the glomerular efferent arterioles becomes very concentrated. This happens because the loss of so much water. In addition, the filtrate contains large substances that cannot pass through the glomerular capillary walls, such as blood cells, large proteins, and fat fragments. So that the volume of liquid is reduced to 30 percent. While the concentration of dissolved substances is still 300 mOSM
Meanwhile, primary urine, which is produced from Bowman's capsule, enters the proximal convoluted tubule. At the junction points between the capillaries surrounding the tubules, glucose and amino acids and Na+ ions are absorbed. The primary urine that enters the loop of Henle is already more isotonic with the blood in the capillaries. In the loop of Henle absorption of NaCl and water occurs. Absorption continues in the distal convoluted tubule. This is where the absorption of urea, creatinine, medicinal ingredients, H+, and NH4 – occurs. Meanwhile, NaCl salt and water and HCO3 ions - are re-absorbed. The results of this reabsorption contain water, salt, urea, and bile pigments which give urine its odor and color.
Enters the collecting tubule. In these tubules, water, NaCl salts, and urea are still being reabsorbed so that urine is formed which must be excreted from the body. From the collecting tubules, urine enters the renal pelvis, then flows down the ureters to the bladder (urinary bladder). When the bladder is full, the person will feel the urge to urinate.
Learn more about the mechanism of urine formation at https://brainly.com/question/21951089
#SPJ4
genetic analysis of the dna isolated from an unknown organisms indicates that it contains the gene that codes for telomerase. based on this information alone, you can conclude that this organism
genetic analysis of the dna isolated from an unknown organisms indicates that it contains the gene that codes for telomerase. based on this information alone, you can conclude that this organism is eukaryotic.
Eukaryotes are organisms with nuclei in each of their cells. Eukaryotes include all animals, all plants, all fungi, and many unicellular creatures. They are a part of the Eukaryota or Eukarya group of organisms, one of the three categories of life. The remaining two domains are made up of bacteria and archaea.
To know more about eukaryotic cell, click here,
brainly.com/question/20297189
#SPJ4
Effective Leaders Can Avoid Conflict In Their Groups Or Organizations. True OR False
This problem has been solved!
You'll get a detailed solution from a subject matter expert that helps you learn core concepts.
See Answer
Effective leaders can avoid conflict in their groups or organizations.
True OR False
Effective leaders don't shy away from any kind of disagreement, but instead they employ a compromising tactic when it doesn't matter to them but might matter to the other party.
Which conflict resolution technique should be applied when rivals of equivalent strength are dedicated to competing objectives?Compromising. When aims are relatively significant but not worth the effort or potential disruption of more assertive tactics, this technique is used. when two rivals who are equally powerful are firmly dedicated to opposing objectives, as in labor-management negotiations.
Which dispute resolution technique should be employed to please others and retain collaboration when the issue is more important to them than it is to you?Accommodating
When others care more about the subject than you do, this approach may be suitable.
To know more about Effective leadersn visit:-
https://brainly.com/question/15171348
#SPJ4
in biomeviewer, locate the north western coast of africa. drop a pin in the savanna biome, close to the coastline. what is the average temperature? group of answer choices approximately 40 degrees celcius. approximately 20 degrees celcius. approximately 28 degrees celcius. approximately 10 degrees celcius.
The typical temperature is around 28 degrees Celsius.
Which biomes are there?There are five primary types of biomes: aquatic, grassland, forest, desert, and tundra. Some of these can be further subdivided into more specialized categories, such as freshwater, marine, savanna, tropical rainforest, temperate rainforest, and taiga. Aquatic biomes encompass both marine and freshwater biomes.
How might scientists categorize various biomes using these traits?Based on the species that live there, a place is classified as a biome. Scientists can characterize a biome by describing the temperature range, soil type, amount of light, and water that are particular to an area and create niches for specific species.
To know more about biomes visit:-
https://brainly.com/question/11491362
#SPJ4
which chamber of the heart receives the deoxygenated blood from the systemic system first?
The right atrium receives the deoxygenated blood from the systemic system first.
What does the term heart chamber means?
There are four empty places in your heart that make up your heart chambers. Your right atrium and left atrium are the names of your upper chambers. The terms "right ventricle" and "left ventricle" refer to your lower chambers. Your chambers cooperate to control the rate of your heartbeat.
The heart has two atria and two ventricles, making up its four chambers.Blood with low oxygen content is drawn from the body and pumped to the right ventricle via the right atrium.The blood with less oxygen is sent to the lungs via the right ventricle.Blood that is rich in oxygen is drawn from the lungs and pumped to the left ventricle by the left atrium.Blood enriched in oxygen is pumped to the body by the left ventricle.Hence right atrium receives deoxygenated blood
To learn more about heart click the link
https://brainly.com/question/26387166
#SPJ1
what is the name of the special cardiac cells that work with the autonomic nervous system to tell the heart to speed up or slow down the rate of the heartbeat?
During contractions that pump blood throughout the body, contractile cells carry out impulses. The conduction system of the heart is made up of the autorhythmic myocardial conducting cells, which make up 1% of all cells.
What is Conduction system of the heart?
The heart's pacemaker, the sinoatrial node, sends impulses through the cardiac conduction system (CCS), also known as the electrical conduction system of the heart, that force the heart muscle to contract and pump blood through the circulatory system.
What kinds of cells are contractile in the body?
List the body's three different types of contractile cells. skeletal, cardiac muscle that is smooth.
To know more about Contractile cells, visit:
https://brainly.com/question/16919664
#SPJ4
which of the following is not true regarding helicases? group of answer choices they have a ring-like structure they surround only one strand of the dna they are powered by atp they are critical for dna replication they are monomeric
Only one strand of DNA is surrounded by helicases because they need access to the other strand to unwind it. D. ATP fuels helicase activity.
Are helicases limited to one strand of DNA?Copycat Helicases The helicase encircles a section of the DNA that is single-stranded (shown above in orange) and proceeds slowly along the strand, separating the double helix along the way.
What part does helicase play in the replication of DNA?DNA helicases accelerate the breaking of the hydrogen bonds that bind the double-stranded DNA's two strands together. Single-stranded DNA is created as a result of this energy-intensive unwinding reaction, which is needed as a template or reaction intermediate in DNA replication, repair, and recombination.
To know more about helicases visit :-
https://brainly.com/question/13543444
#SPJ4
How should the poles of two magnets be placed for them to attract?
Answer:
Opposite poles close together.
Explanation:
When you place the north pole of one magnet near the south pole of another magnet, they are attracted to one another. When you place like poles of two magnets near each other (north to north or south to south), they will repel each other.
when an f1 plant undergoes meiosis, what gamete types will it produce, and in what proportions? view available hint(s)for part a one character in peas that mendel studied was yellow versus green seeds. a cross between a homozygous yellow line (yy) and a homozygous green line (yy) will result in f1 plants that are heterozygous (yy) for this trait and produce yellow seeds. when an f1 plant undergoes meiosis, what gamete types will it produce, and in what proportions? 3434 y 1414 y 1212 yy 1212 yy 1212 y 1212 y 1414 y 3434 y 1212 yy 1212 yy
The gametes produced during meiosis in an F1 generation plant are 1/2 Y and 1/2 Y.
F1 generation: Parents – YY yy
Offspring: – Yy
Yellow seeds will be produced when a homozygous yellow line (YY) crosses with a homozygous green line (YY), resulting in F1 plants that are heterozygous (Yy) for the same trait. If F1 generation is crossed, then option B is true.The gametes produced will have either the dominant allele or the recessive allele since the characteristic in the F1 generation is heterogeneous. The dominant allele is carried by one of the two gametes, and the recessive allele is carried by the other. Accordingly, 50% of the gametes will have the recessive allele, whereas the other 50% will carry the dominant allele.The progeny of a cross between an organism that is homozygously dominant for one trait and a body that is homozygously recessive for another is known as the F1 generation. As a result, the specific characteristic is heterozygous in all of the F1 offspring of this hybrid. These heterozygous alleles will segregate correctly because, following meiosis, only one allele remains in the gametes.One type of the gamete will possess a dominant allele when the genotype of Mendel's F1 generation is heterozygous, or when the two alleles of a pair are different. The other type, however, will have a recessive allele.A heterozygotic organism goes through meiosis to create gametes with an equal frequency of the allele, meaning that half of the gametes will be recessive, and the other half will be dominant.To know more about F1 generation check the below link:
https://brainly.com/question/28411363
#SPJ4
The diagram shows a straight chain of glucose molecules.
A, The molecule has 6 atoms, each connected to one other atom. B, The molecule has 6 atoms, each connected to various numbers of atoms. C, The molecule has 6 atoms, each connected to 2 other atoms. D, The molecule has 1 atom, connected to 2 other atoms.
Which carbohydrate is shown above?
fructose
sucrose
galactose
starch
Starch is the carbohydrate is shown above.
How do you determine carbohydrates?By calculating the proportion left after all the other components have been measured, it is possible to establish the amount of carbohydrates in a food: carbs equal 100 percent, plus moisture, protein, lipids, and minerals.The stoichiometric formula (CH2O)n, where n is the number of carbons in the molecule, can be used to describe carbohydrates. In the molecules of carbohydrates, carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen are distributed in a 1:2:1 ratio.A vast variety of both good and bad foods, including bread, beans, milk, popcorn, potatoes, cookies, spaghetti, soft drinks, maize, and cherry pie, include carbohydrates. They can take on various shapes as well. Starches, fibers, and sugars are the most prevalent and plentiful forms.Learn more about carbohydrates refer to :
https://brainly.com/question/336775
#SPJ1
Answer: The answer is starch
Explanation:
: )
An infectious protein is a
A) Prion
B) Viroid
C) Retrovirus
D) Bacteriophage
E) None of the above
Option A, A prion is an infectious protein, and in yeast and filamentous fungus, cytoplasmic mixing provides the mechanism for horizontal transmission of infectious organisms.
The "proteinaceous infectious particle," or "prion" (pronounced "pree-on"), was discovered by Prusiner and colleagues. Both infections and gene mutations in the protein-encoding gene can result in prion development in the brain. A prion is a kind of protein that can cause the normal folding of brain proteins. Both people and animals are susceptible to prion infections, which are occasionally transmitted to humans through diseased meat products.
learn more about infectious protein here:
https://brainly.com/question/1947129
#SPJ4
8. Why did the warning label on the bag say "not for direct infusion?" What does that mean?
Answer:
The treatment of severe hypernatremia can be challenging, especially in patients with preexisting conditions that may seem to limit therapeutic options. Such a situation recently resulted in an ill-conceived decision to give sterile water for injection IV to an elderly patient who had been admitted to an ICU with pneumonia, CHF, respiratory failure, and severe hypernatremia. The physician did not want the patient to receive any further infusions containing sodium. But the patient also was severely hyperglycemic. The physician's concern with giving sodium or dextrose to a patient with CHF and a high blood sugar led to an order to change the patient's peripheral IV to "free water" at 100 mL/hr.
Explanation:
Label the structure of the antibody and the antigen Wala Lons Disulfid 2 Subl Resi PROGRESS: 31"0 83 parts ot thg antibody ncory Ker Help
The four polypeptide chains that make up the IgG antibody molecule—two identical light chains and two identical heavy chains—combine to form a flexible Y-shaped structure.
How do antibodies work? Utilizing a labeled diagram, describe the structure of an antibody.The Y-shaped structure of an antibody is composed of four polypeptide subunits. There are two identical light and heavy chains in each subunit. An antigen-binding domain is created when the N-terminus of each heavy chain combines with a light chain. The two antigen-binding domains that make up the "Yarms "'s are present.
What types of antibodies are there?The body produces immunoglobulins, often known as antibodies, in five different types. The immunoglobulin isotypes IgA, IgD, IgG, IgE, and IgM differ from one another. You can find immunoglobin A (IgA).
To know more about antibody visit:-
https://brainly.com/question/27931383
#SPJ4
Which of these ions is more abundant in the interior of a resting neuron than in the fluid surrounding the neuron?
An active pump can keep the larger concentration of Na+ outside the neuron because there is resistance to the passage of Na+ through the neuronal membrane. At rest, K+ concentrations are higher inside the neuron.
What is neuron?
Neurons are used to transmit information. Through electrical impulses and chemical signals, they communicate both inside the brain and between the brain and the rest of the nervous system. However, we may categorize the spinal cord's neurons into three groups: sensory, motor, and interneurons.
What is resting neuron?
The voltage across the membrane of a quiescent (non-signaling) neuron is called the resting membrane potential, or simply the resting potential. The resting potential is determined by the gradients of ion concentration across the membrane and the permeability of the membrane to each kind of ion.
To know more about Neuron, visit:
https://brainly.com/question/29462317
#SPJ4
in sexually reproducing organisms, cite evidence and name three specific processes that lead to genetic variation
There are several processes that lead to genetic variation in sexually reproducing organisms. Here are three specific examples:
Meiosis: Meiosis is the process of cell division that occurs during the production of gametes (sperm and eggs). During meiosis, the DNA in the parent cell is replicated and then the chromosomes are separated into different gametes. This process can lead to genetic variation because of the way the chromosomes are shuffled and recombined during meiosis. For example, each gamete may receive a different combination of chromosomes from the parent cell, resulting in a unique genetic makeup.Independent assortment: During meiosis, the chromosomes are sorted into gametes randomly, which is known as independent assortment. This process can lead to genetic variation because it means that each gamete has a different probability of receiving a particular chromosome or combination of chromosomes.Cross-fertilization: When an egg is fertilized by a sperm, the resulting offspring will have a unique genetic makeup that is a combination of the genetic material from the mother and father. This process, known as cross-fertilization, can lead to genetic variation because it allows for the mixing and recombination of genetic material from two different individuals.Overall, meiosis, independent assortment, and cross-fertilization are all processes that contribute to genetic variation in sexually reproducing organisms.
Learn more from here:
https://brainly.com/question/23840938
Huntington's disease, which causes degeneration of neurons, runs in Maria's family. Huntington's is a heritable autosomal dominant genetic disease. In an autosomal dominant disease, only one abnormal allele abnormal to cause the disease in offspring. However, it is possible not all offspring will receive the from an affected heterozygous parent. Family members that have the disease in Maria's paternal grandmother and Maria's paternal uncles. Maria's paternal grandfather does not have the disease. Because symptoms of Huntington's disease do not appear until later in life, genetic testing is necessary to determine whether a individual possesse Maria's father does not carry the allele for Huntington's disease. symbols d that Maria create a pedigree to track the disease in her Use the provided to complete the Each be used family more than once.
Huntington's disease is a rare, genetic condition that results in the progressive destruction of brain nerve cells. It typically causes mobility, cognitive, and psychological issues.
Is Mark not a carrier of the disease allele?
Considering that Mark's paternal grandfather and grandmother are free of the illness. Mark's paternal family is represented by the symbols on the right. If neither of his paternal grandparents is impacted, then neither is his father nor his paternal aunt.
In addition to his maternal aunts, his maternal grandfather is also impacted. Since Mark's mother does not carry the disease-causing allele identified through genetic testing, she remains unaffected.
Given that neither of Mark's parents are afflicted, it is clear that Mark is not a carrier of the disease allele.
To know more about Huntington's disease, click here- brainly.com/question/4275820
#SPJ4
How do the products of glycolysis and the Krebs cycle relate to the electron transport chain?
Multiple Choice
1.Glycolysis and the Krebs cycle produce the molecules that shuttle electrons to the electron transport chain.
2.Glycolysis and the Krebs cycle are the final receptors for electrons that flow through the electron transport chain.
3.Glycolysis and the Krebs cycle produce CO2, which binds to electrons in the electron transport chain.
4.Glycolysis and the Krebs cycle produce the ATP necessary to start the electron transport chain.
5.Glycolysis and the Krebs cycle use CO2, which is produced in the electron transport chain.
Because they utilise electrons from the electron transport chain to produce their products, glycolysis and the Krebs cycle are related to the electron transport chain.
Electron carriers like NADH and FADH2 are reduced and get electrons via chemical processes beginning with glucose during glycolysis and the Krebs cycle.
These electron carriers deliver their electrons to the electron transport chain, where they can be applied to build an ion gradient that will lead to the production of ATP.
The molecules that transport electrons to the electron transport chain are created by glycolysis and the Krebs cycle. CO2, which is created in the electron transport chain, is used in glycolysis and the Krebs cycle.
The electron transport chain that powers this action is fueled by the NADH and FADH produced during the Krebs cycle, ultimately resulting in 38 molecules of ATP.
To know more about Krebs cycle , visit :
https://brainly.com/question/13153590.
#SPJ4.
what is the function of rna polymerase? a all of the above. b it unwinds the double helix and adds nucleotides to a growing strand of rna. c it adds nucleotides to the 5' end of the growing mrna molecule. d it proceeds slowly along the dna strand, requiring about a minute to add two nucleotides to the growing mrna molecule.
In order to add nucleotides to an expanding strand of RNA, RNA polymerase unwinds the double helix.
What are the three roles that RNA polymerase plays?RNA Pol I: It synthesizes the pre-rRNA subunits that make up ribosomes, which is one of many forms of RNA Pol enzymes found in eukaryotes. RNA Pol II: It creates mRNA, snRNA, and microRNA precursors. RNA Pol III: It produces short RNAs, other rRNA precursors, and tRNA.
The double helix is it unwound by RNA polymerase?According to the DNA wrapping model of transcription, DNA bending and wrapping around RNA polymerase results in the DNA helix being unwound at the enzyme's catalytic site, which induces strand separation both before and during transcript elongation.
To know more about polymerase visit:-
https://brainly.com/question/29377728
#SPJ4
Classifying Water Pollutants Classity each pollutant based on the category that bout describes its impact on waterways, Part A Drag the labels into the appropriate bins. Reset Help trig water from the bottom of OSOVO acid drainage from an abandoned coal mine medic waste from a hospital dumped in an ilegal location herbicide from a soccer field clay soil from and cared for home construction eroded tops from around and nitrogen-rich grass clippings from a mowed town phosphorous-rich fertilizer from agricultural land nutrient pollution sediment thermal pollution toxic chemicals pathogens and waterbome diseases Submit Request Answer
Water bodies can get contaminated by human activity, commonly referred to as aquatic pollution, which has a negative effect on how the water is used.
Bodies of water include aquifers, reservoirs, lakes, rivers, oceans, and groundwater. Water contamination happens when contaminants are introduced into these bodies of water. The four primary causes of water contamination are sewage discharges, industrial activity, agricultural activity, and urban runoff including stormwater. Surface water contamination and groundwater pollution are the two main categories. For instance, improperly treated wastewater discharged into natural waters may result in the decline of these aquatic ecosystems. People who use unclean water for irrigation, drinking, bathing, or washing run the risk of getting sick from these diseases. A body of water's capacity to deliver ecosystem services, such as drinking water, is decreased as a result of water pollution.
Toxic chemicals:
Herbicide from a soccer field
Phosphorous-rich fertilizer from an agricultural land
Pathogens and waterborne diseases:
Medical waste from a hospital dumped in an illegal location
Thermal pollution:
Acid drainage from an abandoned coal mine
Nutrient pollution:
Nitrogen-rich grass clippings from a mowed lawn
Clay soil from land cleared for home construction
Eroded topsoil from agricultural land
Sediment:
Frigid water from the bottom of a reservoir
The complete question and answer are attached as an image.
If you want to know more about water pollution visit the following link;
https://brainly.com/question/19920929
#SPJ4
Which is required for the light-independent reactions in photosynthesis to occur?
water
Osunlight
oxygen
carbon dioxide
Water and carbon dioxide are needed since at that point, the plant's store carbohydrate is being created from the two.
What roles do carbs play in the body?Every stage of life requires carbohydrates, sometimes referred to as "carbs." They serve as the body's main energy source and the preferred energy source for the brain. The body converts carbohydrates into a sugar called glucose. The cells, tissues, and organs of your body use glucose for energy.
How does protein function?Almost all bodily chemical processes are catalyzed by proteins, which also control gene expression, make up the majority of all cell structures, control immune system function, and make up the majority of muscle mass.
To know more about Carbohydrate visit:
https://brainly.com/question/29775112
#SPJ1
while hiking, you come across a human skeleton that exhibits a severe fracture to the cranium. the face, including both orbits, has entirely separated from the cranial vault. this type of fracture is called a:
This type of fracture is called a Le Fort fracture.
It is a type of craniofacial fracture that involves the separation of the maxilla (upper jaw) from the cranial vault (skull). It is typically caused by a high-energy trauma to the face, such as a motor vehicle accident or an assault.
This fracture can be classified into three types: Le Fort I, Le Fort II, and Le Fort III. Le Fort I fractures involve a horizontal separation of the maxilla from the rest of the facial bones, Le Fort II fractures involve a separation of the maxilla and nose, and Le Fort III fractures involve a separation of the maxilla, nose, and zygomatic bones (cheekbones).
Treatment of this type of fracture typically involves surgery to repair the fracture and reconstruct the facial bones.
For more questions like Fracture click the link below:
https://brainly.com/question/14306603
#SPJ4
Identify the subsystem of Earth that takes the longest amount of time to change, based on the geologic time scale.
Based on the geologic time scale, the marine species as well as the land species became extinct.
What is the reason behind the extinction of species?The primary contemporary causes of extinction are habitat destruction and loss (mostly due to deforestation), over exploitation (via over hunting and over fishing), invasive species, climate change, and nitrogen pollution.
Greenhouse gases are accelerating the present phase of global warming on Earth. Which of the following is a plausible theory for the impact this global warming will have on Earth's ecosystem, based on your understanding of the implications of massive climatic change throughout geologic time, such as the global warming before the end of the phase.
A huge portion of all marine animal species as well as some land species became extinct.
To know more about extinct refer to:
https://brainly.com/question/702966
#SPJ1
Answer:The geosphere. aka R O C K
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Natural Killer (NK) cells:
A. releases inflammatory cytokines when stimulated
B. phagocytosis
C. cytotoxic cell
D. induces lysis or apoptosis in infected host cells or abnormal cells such as pre-cancer cells that have not yet learned to evade the immune system
E. A lymphocyte
It is not characteristic of Natural Killer cells that is A. releases inflammatory cytokines when stimulated
Natural Killer cells are a type of cytotoxic T cell that are part of the innate response and belong to the lymphocyte class. These cells are lymphocyte derivatives and part of the white blood cells that can help kill harmful cells in the body. One of them is through phagocytosis by swallowing foreign objects that enter the body.
Natural cells attack pathogenic cells before they attack healthy cells and cause infection. Cells will respond to intracellular microbes by killing infected cells. When facing cancer cells, NK cells will attack abnormal cells by carrying out apoptosis. While the release of inflammatory cytokines is not a characteristic of natural killer cells because they can cause pathological abnormalities of the disease.
Learn more about Natural Killer cells at:
https://brainly.com/question/16240473
#SPJ4
Most quats solutions disinfect implements in:
Quat solutions disinfect implements usually in 10 minutes.
What are Quat solutions?
The best way to use quaternary ammonium as a regular disinfectant is to really understand what you need in terms of strength.So using Quats test strips is key to getting it right .
"Quat" is effective against many microorganisms. Unlike bleach, "Quats" are odorless and colorless. And unlike bleach, it's non-corrosive, so it's safe for long-term use on metal equipment and surfaces. Their antimicrobial action is variable and selective, but generally as effective as bleach/chlorine solution.
The most common "quaternary" is benzalkonium chloride. It is commonly used to dilute with water to make a high potency
disinfectant. Quat mixing defaults to 200 PPM. There are over 40 suppliers offering
"Quat" disinfectant concentrates. Each should be tested to ensure proper concentration is reached.
Therefore, Quat solutions disinfect implements usually in 10 minutes.
To know more about quat, visit:
https://brainly.com/question/13585884
#SPJ4
11. what is the effect on damage to the medial temporal lobe? what is the difference between left and right temporal lobes?
Medial temporal lobe damage results in difficulty in understanding spoken words (Receptive Aphasia) Disturbance with selective attention to what we see and hear. Difficulty with identification and categorization of objects. Difficulty learning and retaining new information.
According to Kolb and Wishaw (1990), there are eight main signs of temporal lobe damage:
1) Disturbances in auditory sensation and perception;
2) Disturbances in selective attention of auditory and visual input;
3) Disorders of visual perception;
4) Impairments in verbal material organization and categorization;
5) Impairments in language comprehension;
6) Impairments in long-term memory;
7) Alterations in personality and affective behavior; and
8) Alterations in sexual behavior With the injury to the temporal lobes, selective attention to visual or auditory stimuli is typical (Milner, 1968).
Lesions on the left side lead to a decline in verbal and visual memory, including speech perception. Lesions on the right side cause a reduction in several musical skills including tonal sequence identification. Lesions on the right side may make it harder to recognize visual content (e.g. recall of faces). The main mechanism for organizing sensory information is carried out by the temporal lobes (Read, 1981). People who suffer from temporal lobe lesions have trouble categorizing words or images. Damage to the temporal lobe can impact language. Left temporal lesions make it difficult to recognize words. A right temporal injury may result in a loss of speech inhibition. Memory abilities are closely linked to the temporal lobes. Memory for spoken information is hampered by left temporal lesions. Lesions on the right side cause people to retain non-verbal information like music and artwork.
To learn more about temporal lobe damage please click on the given link: https://brainly.com/question/15042478
#SPJ4
