you are using the virtual microscope to look at onion root tip cells. you know that these are plant cells, but you do not see chloroplasts. why not?

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Answer 1

You are using the virtual microscope to look at onion root tip cells. Roots grow up under the soil so they do not need chroloplast.

Chloroplasts are not present in root cells, thus if you were to look at onion root cells under a microscope, you would not notice them. Chloroplasts are the organelles that utilise the sun's energy, while roots are underground-growing structures.

Students can see plant cells under a microscope using this technique. From the bulb, a single layer of onion cells (membrane) can be easily extracted. These can be stained to provide contrast so that certain cell features, such as the nucleus and cell membrane/wall, can be seen under a light microscope.

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Related Questions

carbon dioxide can affect the measuring of oxygen used in this type of respirometer.
state the chemical that co placed in the respirometer that would stop carbon dioxide affecting the experiment.

Answers

Answer:

see below

Explanation:

The chemical that can be placed in the respirometer to stop carbon dioxide from affecting the experiment is called soda lime. Soda lime is a type of absorbent that is able to absorb carbon dioxide and other gases. When placed in the respirometer, it will absorb any carbon dioxide produced, so that the results of the experiment are not affected.

Proof in science is always
A. Firmly established
B. Beyond question
C. An impossible goal
D. constantly changing with little contiunity between diciplines.
E. Open to question or new evidence
B. Beyond question

Answers

Answer:

E

Explanation:

Facts in science are always being changed, refined, and added upon.

directs food from the mouth to the esophagus b. allows air to pass to and from the lungs c. separates the abdomen from the thoracic cavity

Answers

The pharynx directs food from the mouth to the esophagus.

Internal hollow tube of the neck that rises from behind the nose to the top of the trachea and oesophagus (the tube that goes to the stomach). The pharynx measures approximately 5 inches in length, depending on body size. It is also known as the throat.

 The pharynx, sometimes known as the throat, is a component of the digestive and respiratory systems. It transports food, liquid, and air from the mouth and nose downward.The pharynx can become infected with common illnesses including tonsillitis and a sore throat.

Your quality of life may be adversely affected by esophagitis. Esophagitis may progress into a condition known as Barrett's oesophagus if it is not addressed. Your risk of developing oesophagal cancer could rise as a result.

Complete question:

What does the pharynx do?

a. Directs food from the mouth to the esophagus

b. Secretes saliva

c. Allows air to pass to and from the lungs

d. Separates the abdomen from the thoracic cavity

e. Prevents choking while swallowing

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Explain how these individuals can carry a fusion gene that is transcriptionally active and yet do not develop CML.

CML is actually developing in a latent form.
A single gene alteration is not the only requirement for CML.
Developing CML after the gene fusion can take a long time.
None of the above

Answers

These individuals can carry a fusion gene that is transcriptionally active and yet do not develop CML as : A single gene alteration is not the only requirement for CML.

What is meant by CML?

A rare kind of cancer of the bone marrow, the spongy tissue found inside bones where blood cells are formed, is chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML). The amount of white blood cells in the blood rises as a result of CML.

A condition known as chronic myelogenous leukemia causes an excessive production of white blood cells in the bone marrow. Chronic granulocytic leukemia, often known as chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML), is a slowly growing blood and bone marrow condition that primarily affects adults in or after middle age and very infrequently affects children.

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besides the thymine and uracil base difference, which dna strands sequence matches the mrna sequence used in translation?

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Answer:

In DNA/RNA base pairing, adenine (A) pairs with uracil (U), and cytosine (C) pairs with guanine (G). The conversion of DNA to mRNA occurs when an RNA polymerase makes a complementary mRNA copy of a DNA “template” sequence.

the polymer of the macromolecule that is made in the ribosome__

Answers

Ribosomes are composed of two macromolecules: proteins and nucleic acids.

Ribosomes are made whilst a specific form of ribonucleic acid (RNA), referred to as ribosomal RNA (rRNA) combines with proteins.

First, natural ribosomes had been evolutionarily optimized to polymerize α-l-amino acids, leading to bad compatibility with backbone-prolonged monomers.

Ribosomes are very small macromolecular complexes, composed of rRNA and proteins, and are liable for protein synthesis (translation) on mRNA templates. each ribosome consists of a huge and a small subunit.

If DNA is the blueprint, then ribosomes are the masons - they build the protein the use of amino acids as the 'bricks'. To construct proteins, the two ribosomal subunits, small and huge, assemble together to shape the complete ribosome. It has binding sites for mRNA and transfer RNA (tRNA) molecules.

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whipworm infection is typically diagnosed by the microscopic observation of adult worms or barrel-shaped eggs with polar plugs in stool specimens. what organism is known as the whipworm?

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Soil-transmitted helminths are known as whipworm. They are also named as hookworm, and Ascaris.

What are Helminths?

Large macro parasites generally called helminths, or parasitic worms, are typically visible as adults to the unaided eye. Many are soil-transmitted intestinal worms that infect the gastrointestinal tract. Schistosomes and other parasitic worms live in blood vessels.

There are bisexual and hermaphrodite species. The internal and exterior morphology of the egg, larval, and adult stages serve as the basis for the final classification. The general classification of helminths are given as follows;

Flukes (Trematodes)Tapeworms  (Cestodes)Roundworms (Nematodes),etc.

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k-strategists are group of answer choices controlled by density-dependent factors. large and short-lived. small and long-lived. large and long-lived. none of these are correct. large and long-lived and controlled by density-dependent factors.

Answers

k-strategists are large, long-lived, and controlled by density-dependent factors. K-Strategist species' populations fluctuate at or near carrying capacity (K) of habitat. Such species were identified by Robert MacArthur and American biologist Edward.

What organism is the K-Strategist?

Organisms whose life histories are subject to K-selection are often called K-strategists or K-selected. Organisms with K-selective traits include not only large organisms such as elephants, humans and whales, but also small, long-lived organisms such as Arctic terns, parrots and eagles, lions, and whales.

What are characteristics of the k-strategist

occasional breeding: organism has a long gestation period and gives birth to one or two cubs at a time. Offspring need time to grow and grow under the constant care and supervision of their parents.

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Drag the labels onto the diagram to identify the structures of an animal cell.a. cytoskeletonb. ribosomesc. nucleusd. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (ER)e. cytosolf. Golgi apparatusg. rough endoplasmic reticulum (ER)h. mitochondrioni. plasma membrane

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The extensive network of chemicals & protein fibers which thus provides the body's cells form and structure

Describe protein.

Muscle, skeleton, skin, hair, and practically every other organ system or tissue include protein. It contributes to the production of hemoglobin, which transports oxygen through the blood, and enzymes, which drive numerous chemical reactions. You are made up of at least 10,000 distinct proteins, which also keep things that way.

What are the advantages of consuming protein?

A vital component of the procedures that provide you energy and allow your blood to transport oxygen all over your body is protein. Additionally, it aids in the production of antibodies that ward off diseases and infections and promotes the proliferation of new cells.

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what is formed when cells of the same type join to perform a common task?

Answers

Answer: Tissue

Explanation:

Tissue is formed when cells of the same type join to perform a common task.

If one follows 90 primary oocytes in an animal through their various stages of oogenesis, how many secondary oocytes would be formedHow many polar bodies?How many Ootids will be formed?

Answers

90 secondary oocytes would be formed.

90 primary oocytes would undergo meiosis to form 90 secondary oocytes. During meiosis, each primary oocyte would also form two polar bodies, resulting in a total of 180 polar bodies. Only one of the secondary oocytes will continue to mature and form an ovum or ootid, while the other will degenerate. Two polar bodies will be formed for each secondary oocyte, so 180 polar bodies will be formed.

An ootid is formed after the fertilization of a secondary oocyte. If fertilization does not occur, no ootids will be formed. So, 90 secondary oocytes would be formed.

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how does an abundance of tryptophan inhibit the production of more tryptophan? view available hint(s)for part a how does an abundance of tryptophan inhibit the production of more tryptophan? inhibit the activity of all three enzymes in the pathway inhibit the activity of the first and second enzymes in the pathway and repress expression of the genes encoding all subunits of the enzymes in the pathway inhibit the activity of the first enzyme in the pathway and repress the genes encoding all enzymes in the pathway repress expression of the genes encoding all subunits of the enzymes in the pathway inhibit the activity of all three enzymes in the pathway and repress expression of the genes encoding all subunits of the enzymes in the pathway

Answers

Tryptophan inhibits self-production as it builds up by activating the repressor protein, which binds to the operator and prevents transcription. Tryptophan synthesis enzymes are not produced.

This repressor-tryptophan complex binds to the trp operator when tryptophan is abundant. The operon is not transcribed because this binding prevents RNA polymerase from binding. On the other hand, the operon is transcribed when tryptophan levels drop because the repressor is unable to bind the operator.

An essential amino acid is tryptophan.

Three enzymes are responsible for the biosynthesis of the tryptophan enzyme.

The 5 structural genes that code for the enzymes are as follows:

1. TrpE and TrpD genes code for enzyme 1

2. Genes- trpC-enzyme 2

3. TrpB and TrpA genes; enzyme 3

Tryptophan acts as an inhibitor, which controls the synthesis of tryptophan when there is an abundance of the amino acid.

Feedback inhibition for short-term inhibition happens when the activity of an enzyme is controlled. Tryptophan allosterically inhibits enzyme 1 in the pathway during this kind of inhibition.

Repressor-mediated inhibition takes place for long-term inhibition. The repressor stops the genes from being transcribed, so no enzymes are produced.

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A certain bacterium was cultured for several generations in medium containing ISN, transferred to medium containing 14N, and allowed to complete two rounds of cell division _ Given that the bacterium's genome mass is 5.4 fg when grown in 14N media and 5.5 fg when grown in 1SN medium, individual bacteria with which of the following genome masses would most likely be isolated from this culture? 5.4 fg only 5.4 fg and 5.45 fg 5.4 fg and 5.5 fg 5.45 fg only Solution: The correct answer is B_ This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "The structure, growth, physiology, and genetics of prokaryotes and viruses The answer to this question is B because DNA replication is semi-conservative. Therefore, after the first round of cell division the genome mass in each bacterium will be 5.45 fg (one DNA strand will contain 15N and the other strand 14N). Following the second round of cell division, half of the bacteria will have a genome mass of 5.4 fg (14N exclusively) and the other half a mass genome of 5.45 fg (14N in one DNA strand and 1SN the other).

Answers

DNA replication is semi-conservative. Therefore, after the first round of cell division the genome mass in each bacterium will be 5.45 fg.

This is the simple concept of semi-conservative theory for DNA replication. When the bacteria was grown on N-15, the mass was 5.5 fg. After two generations, the DNA would contain N-14 and the mass of this was 5.4fg.

The average mass would be = 5.4 + 5.5 / 2 = 10.9/2 = 5.45 fg

The mass of bacteria isolated would likely contain both the masses.

DNA is made up of molecules called nucleotides. Each nucleotide contains a phosphate group, a sugar group and a nitrogen base. The four types of nitrogen bases are adenine (A), thymine (T), guanine (G) and cytosine (C).

The order of these bases is what determines DNA's instructions, or genetic code. Similar to the way the order of letters in the alphabet can be used to form a word, the order of nitrogen bases in a DNA sequence forms genes, which in the language of the cell, tells cells how to make proteins.

Another type of nucleic acid, ribonucleic acid, or RNA, translates genetic information from DNA into proteins. The entire human genome contains about 3 billion bases and about 20,000 genes.

Hence, the correct option is B.

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what is the complementary sequence corresponding to the dna fragment agtcag? group of answer choices

Answers

TCAGTC is the complementary sequence corresponding to the dna fragment AGTCAG.

Complementary sequence: A nucleic acid sequence of bases that can be matched to form a double-stranded structure. For example, the complementary sequence to C-A-T-G (where each letter represents one of the bases of DNA) is G-T-A-C. A complementary DNA (cDNA) molecule is a DNA copy of a messenger RNA (mRNA) molecule created by reverse transcriptase (a DNA polymerase that can utilise either DNA or RNA as a template).

Adenine nucleotides are paired with thymine nucleotides, and cytosines are paired with guanine. This means that the two strands are complementary to each other. For example, a DNA strand with the nucleotide sequence AGTCATGA has a complementary strand with the sequence TCAGTACT.

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You continue your genetic analysis by crossing the forked and pale mutant lines with each other. The leaves of the F1 are light green (intermediate between pale and wild-type leaves) and forked. The F2 has six phenotypic classes: You designate the forked mutant allele as F (wild type

Answers

The F1 variety has forked, light green leaves that fall in between pale & wild-type leaves in color. The six phenotypic classifications for the F2 are depicted here. Pleiotropy is the term used to explain the genetic influence of one gene on numerous phenotypic features.

Each individual inherits one dominant allele one and recessive allele (Yy) when the gametes assemble in the gametocytes of the Progenies, and as a result, every member of the F1 generation displays this same dominant phenotypic (e.g. yellow peas). The F1 generation was discovered to have a consistent phenotype. Pleiotropy is the term used to explain the genetic influence of one gene on numerous phenotypic features. Four separate phenotypes are produced by the codominance of three alleles. The ratio of the dominant epistasis genes is 9:3:4. Two genes that are depending on one another cooperate in this genetic arrangement. As a result, three phenotypes are generated. The F1 generation's progeny have a C) 3:1 phenotypic ratio for seed color (yellow:green). The typical Mendelian ratio is this phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1.

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many red blood cell (rbc) processes, such as binding, transporting, and releasing oxygen, do not require energy. energy however, is required for cellular viability. how does the rbc obtain most of it's energy?

Answers

The red blood cell (RBC) obtains most of its energy through glycolysis. Glycolysis is a metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvate, which generates a small amount of energy (ATP) and produces lactic acid.

RBCs do not have mitochondria, the organelles responsible for generating energy through cellular respiration, therefore, RBCs cannot generate energy through cellular respiration.

In RBCs, glycolysis is the primary source of energy and it is a process that occurs in the cytoplasm. The glucose that is used in glycolysis is obtained from the blood plasma. The RBCs are able to obtain energy through glycolysis because they have high levels of the enzyme hexokinase, which catalyzes the first step of the glycolytic pathway.

Since RBCs lack mitochondria and cannot use oxygen for cellular respiration, they are also unable to generate energy through oxidative phosphorylation. Lactic acid produced by glycolysis can be converted back to glucose in the liver and kidneys through the Cori cycle, which is a metabolic pathway that allows the RBCs to recycle the lactic acid and obtain energy.

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What is the enzymatic activity of a kinase and of a phosphatase

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A kinase is a chemical that connects a phosphate gathering to a protein. A phosphatase is a catalyst that eliminates a phosphate bunch from a protein. Together, these two groups of compounds act to regulate the exercises of the proteins in a cell.

Amino acids at the site of phosphorylation figure out where a protein kinase or protein phosphatase will play out its enzymatic movement. This prompts an amino corrosive succession making a particular restricting site for the kinase so one kinase can phosphorylate quite certain proteins at a particular site.

Protein kinases are a significant class of intracellular chemicals that assume an essential part in most sign transduction overflows, from controlling cell development and multiplication to the commencement and guideline of immunological reactions.

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aamc fl3 bbquestion a particular diploid organism is heterozygous in each of 3 unlinked genes. considering only these 3 genes, how many different types of gametes can this organism produce?

Answers

Several gametes the frequency of heterozygous loci, n, divided by two. Therefore, a diploid organism containing three heterozygous loci might yield 23 = 8 gametes.

Describe a gamete.

A primary spermatocyte is a plant or an animal generative cell. Animals' male and female gametes are referred to as sperm and ova, respectively. Each ova and sperm cell carries one copies of each chromosome, making them haploid cells.

How many cellular gametes are there?

The chromosome count in sperm or egg cells, often known as gametes, is also referred to as haploid. In mammals, gametes are single celled organisms with 23 chromosomes—one of each chromosomal pair found in diplod cells—and are hence haploid.

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which is the most likely reason for an individual to be born with 45 autosomes and 2 sex chromosomes?

Answers

During the process of meiosis, one of the homologous chromosomal pairs does not join.

Humans have 46 chromosomes in total, including 23 pairs of autosomes and two sex chromosomes. Children receive half of their chromosomes from their mothers and half from their dads since each parent gives one chromosome to each pair.

Because of the exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes, a single chromosome now contains genetic material from both parents.

In contrast to the sex chromosomes, an autosome is one of the numbered chromosomes. Humans contain 22 autosome pairs and one pair of sex chromosomes (XX or XY). Autosomes are loosely numbered in accordance to their size.

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t or f: during gastrulation, transcription factors can diffuse through the insect embryo and enter nuclei.

Answers

True. Gastrulation is referred to as an early developmental process in which an embryo changes from a one-dimensional layer of epithelial cells (blastula) and reorganises into a multilayered and multidimensional structure termed the gastrula.

Animal embryos go through a period of enormous fluctuation called gestation. The cells formed during cleavage start to move in relation to one another during gastrulation. They interact with new cells as they migrate, which alters their immediate surroundings. The node is where gastrulation, the development of the three germ layers, first starts. By controlling the chordamesoderm's growth, the node establishes and shapes the embryo's anterior-posterior axis.

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Hormone release caused by altered levels of critical ions or nutrients, this is also known to be the simplest endocrine control.

Answers

Answer:

Yes, that is correct.

Explanation:

Hormone release caused by altered levels of critical ions or nutrients is also known as the simplest endocrine control.

Phases of photosynthesis



HELP pls

Answers

In the stages of photosynthesis, light energy transfers to chlorophyll which passes through the thylakoid membrane. Lost energy is used to form ATP and also stored as NADPH. Calvin cycle uses carbon dioxide to form sugars that are stored as energy in the glucose.

I'm sorry, I'm not sure what the first box could be.
During photosynthesis, the light energy that transfers to chlorophyll is in the form of photons. Photons are the basic unit of light, and they are absorbed by the pigments, such as chlorophyll, present in the chloroplasts of plants. So, photons or photon light energy?

do you put the male rabbit in the female cage to breed of do you put the male rabbit in the female's cage to breed?

Answers

creature biology Put the female rabbit into the male's cage if you intend to breed your rabbits. Always bring one female to the male if the rabbits is housed separately. Women are often very possessive.

In animal biology, what do you do?

The study of an animal's physical and chemical make-up is known as animal biology. If you decide to pursue a field education, you will study the physiology, genetics, ecology, molecular biology, and evolution of animals.

The course in animal biology is what?

You'll gain a solid understanding in animal biology from the course. Major scientific concepts will be covered in your courses, such as anatomy and physiology, behavior, genetics, ecology, et nutrition. The study for companion & livestock species is the course's main topic.

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why might a point mutation in dna make a difference in the level of a protein's activity?

Answers

In the active site, it might swap a different amino acid. For all creatures, the genetic code is fundamentally the same.

A point mutation can alter the degree of protein activity by changing the genetic coding, which can alter the amino acids integrated into the protein. The ultimate code for proteins in the cell is DNA.

In a genome, a point mutation occurs when a single base pair is added, removed, or modified. While most point mutations are harmless, they can have a variety of functional effects, such as changes in gene expression or changes in encoded proteins.

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The results of the Meselson-Stahl experiments relied on all of the following except _______.

A. that a heavy isotope of nitrogen could be incorporated into replicating DNA molecules
B. a cesium chloride gradient
C. the fact that DNA is the genetic material
D. a means of distinguishing among the distribution patterns of newly synthesized and parent molecule DNA possible

Answers

The results of the Meselson-Stahl experiments relied on all of the following except the fact that DNA is the genetic material. Here option C is the correct answer.

The Meselson-Stahl experiment, conducted in the late 1950s, was a key experiment in the discovery of the semi-conservative nature of DNA replication. The experiment was performed using E. coli bacteria, which were grown in a medium containing a heavy isotope of nitrogen (15N) for several generations.

The bacteria were then transferred to a medium containing the normal isotope of nitrogen (14N) and allowed to replicate. The researchers then used a technique called density gradient centrifugation to separate the DNA molecules based on their densities.

By comparing the distribution patterns of the newly synthesized and parent DNA molecules, they were able to demonstrate that DNA replication is semi-conservative, meaning that each strand of the original DNA molecule acts as a template for the synthesis of a new complementary strand.

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which three of the following are functions of the bacterial cytoskeleton? multiple select question. aid in transport of nutrients participate in cell division localize specific proteins within the cell participate in phagocytosis determine cell shape act as a support structure for energy conservation

Answers

The proper answers are: Localize particular proteins inside the cell; ascertain cell shape; and take part in cell division.

Similar to eukaryotes, bacteria use cytoskeletal components for a variety of processes, including cell division, DNA partitioning, cell motility, and cell morphogenesis. They have their own cytoskeletal components in addition to having eukaryotic actin, tubulin, and intermediate filament protein counterparts. Contraction, cell motility, organelle and vesicle transport through the cytoplasm, cytokinesis, establishment of intracellular cytoplasm organisation, establishment of cell polarity, and numerous other processes carried out by the cytoskeleton are necessary for maintaining cellular homeostasis and ensuring cellular survival. The cytoskeleton is a structure that preserves the internal structure and shape of the cell, providing mechanical support.

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homologous structures, such as arms, wings, and fins, are constructed from the same basic bones and are adapted to locomotion in different environments. such structures support the idea of

Answers

Answer:

homologous structures (wings, fins, etc)

Explanation:

homologous structures are different than the opposite which are human hands for example. if you look at the anatomy of a human hand compared to a wing, you will see that humans hand have more bone structure than wings.

fun fact: by looking at animals X-rays of their hands wings etc, you can tell sort of where they evolved from. for example by looking a monkey's hands, we can tell that they evolved from either monkeys or humans and vice versa.

Which of the following changes to the manufacture of automobiles was introduced by Henry Ford and revolutionized the industry?

Seat belts
Air bags
Moving assembly line
Automatic transmission

Answers

moving assembly line

which organ determines the metabolic fate of every nutrient we digest and absorb, in addition to performing a wide variety of other functions, most of them essential for life?

Answers

Answer:

The organ that determines the metabolic fate of every nutrient we digest and absorb, in addition to performing a wide variety of other functions, most of them essential for life, is the liver. The liver is an organ with many important functions, including metabolizing carbohydrates, proteins, and fats; producing bile to help digestion; storing and releasing glucose as needed; detoxifying drugs and other substances; and producing clotting factors and other proteins essential for blood clotting.

An oil may be converted into a substance that is solid at room temperature by
a. cooling it, so that double bonds form and the fats solidify.
b. adding hydrogens, decreasing the number of double bonds in the molecules.
c. removing hydrogens, increasing the number of double bonds in the molecules.
d. removing water, causing a dehydration reaction to occur.

Answers

By adding hydrogens, which reduces the amount of double bonds in the molecules, an oil can be transformed into a product that is solid at room temperature. (B option)

How does dehydration get better?

Most individuals who are mildly to moderately dehydrated due to vomiting, diarrhea, or fever can get better by drinking more water or other liquids. Soft drinks and fruit juice at full strength may make diarrhea worse. Cool water is your greatest option if you work or exercise outside during hot, humid weather.

How can dehydration be reversed the quickest?

If you have early signs of dehydration, you can rehydrate by ingesting electrolyte-rich fluids, such as sports drinks or oral rehydration treatments. Foods with a high water content are also available.

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