a 9:3:3:1 ratio of phenotypes in the f2 generation of a dihybrid cross a. indicates that the dihybrid cross is basically equivalent to two independent monohybrid crosses. b. holds true only for genes on the same chromosome. c. is not indicative of independent assortment. d. indicates that an epistatic relationship exists between the two genes under investigation.

Answers

Answer 1

a) This 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio is the classic Mendelian ratio for a dihybrid cross in which the alleles of two different genes assort independently into gametes.

Cross involving two contrasting characters is called a dihybrid cross. The two flowers of each trait assort at random and independent of their traits and get randomly as well as independently rearranged in the offspring producing both parental and new combinations of traits.This ratio can be predicted using a Punnett square to reveal possible outcomes of a genetic cross. In the resulting F2 generation: About 9/16 of F2 plants will have round, yellow seeds; 3/16 will have round, green seeds; 3/16 will have wrinkled, yellow seeds; and 1/16 will have wrinkled, green seeds.

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Related Questions

___________ leave the blood and enter tissues to fight off pathogens and invaders.

Answers

For the purpose of fending off infections and intruders, white blood cells leave the plasma and go into tissues. The ideal choice is d).

What would be tissue and what does it do?

Tissues are groups of cells that function as a cohesive block and share a common structure. The body processes give it shape and help to store energy and retain heat. Connective tissue, parenchyma cells, muscle tissue, and nervous tissue are the four different types of tissues.

Why is tissue so crucial?

They indicate a level of order and cell differentiation in living things. The activities of tissues include respiration, digesting, and transportation. Tissues are therefore essential for multicellular organisms.

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The Complete Question :

___________ leave the blood and enter tissues to fight off pathogens and invaders.

a. Platelets

b. Capillaries

c. Red blood cells

d. White blood cells

yeast mitochondria normally have tubular morphology. two mutants are isolated that have fragmented, instead of tubular, mitochondria. the two mutants are crossed and all progeny have tubular mitochondria. what do you conclude?

Answers

The mitochondria of mutant cells appear to be more spherical or round than the mitochondria of wild-type cells, which appear to be more linear in shape.

The data suggest that the mutant cells' abnormal mitochondrial shape is caused by a defect in a protein required for keeping the mitochondria in their proper form. The outer mitochondrial membranes of healthy cells are fused together by a protein network known as the mitochondrial reticulum, which is made up of various proteins including mitosis’s and intermediate filaments. Other defective proteins might also be present in the mitochondrial reticulum and other cellular pathways that regulate the shape of mitochondria. To pinpoint precisely which protein in the mutant cells is flawed, additional research would be required, such as genetic or functional studies.

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when the his- salmonella strain used in the ames test is exposed to substance x, no his revertants are seen. if, however, rat liver supernatant is added to the cells along with substance x, revertants do occur. is substance x a potential carcinogen for human cells? explain

Answers

If rat liver supernatant is added to the cells along with substance X, the rat liver supernatant contains enzymes that can convert substance X into a mutagen, and His+ revertants appear. Our liver also contains similar enzymes. This process can be conducted by Ames test.

The Ames test is a commonly used method to assess the mutagenic potential of a substance, which is one of the hallmarks of potential carcinogens. In this test, a histidine auxotrophic strain of Salmonella bacteria (his-) is exposed to the substance being tested, and if the substance causes mutations that enable the bacteria to produce histidine, then it is considered a mutagen and potentially carcinogenic. However, if the addition of rat liver supernatant to the cells along with substance X leads to the occurrence of revertants, it indicates that the substance is metabolically activated by the liver enzymes and can induce mutations.

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Give three types of organic compounds that can be broken down for energy

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Three types of organic compounds which can be broken down for energy are carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.

The chemical compounds present in living things are known as organic compounds because they show association with organisms and are carbon-containing compounds. Organic compounds  are the subject matter of organic chemistry.

Carbohydrates: Every organism uses carbohydrates. These are the molecules which are composed of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen in the ratio of 1:2:1, respectively.

Lipids: Lipids are organic molecules including carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms. The ratio of hydrogen atoms to oxygen atoms is much higher in lipids than in carbohydrates. Lipids include steroids,  waxes, and fats.

Proteins: These are the complex molecules which are composed of the amino acids which includes carbon, oxygen, nitrogen and hydrogen atoms. The links forged between the amino acids are peptide bonds, and small proteins are often called peptides.

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In Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty'\'s experiments, homogenates from heat-killed bacteria were treated with different enzymes, and then the ability of those homogenates to transform bacteria was assayed. Under which condition would transformation not occur?

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The transformation of the bacteria in Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty's experiment would not occur when the homogenates from heat-killed bacteria were treated with the enzyme DNase.

Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty's experiment (which was reported in 1944) was an experiment that demonstrates that DNA is the substance that causes bacterial transformation. From their experiment, we know that the transformation of the bacteria would not occur when the homogenates from heat-killed bacteria were treated with the enzyme DNase. This is because DNase breaks down DNA, which is the genetic material that is responsible for transformation. Without any intact DNA, the bacteria cannot be transformed.

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what is the most frequently broken bone in the body

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Clavicle. One of the body's bones that is most frequently broken is the clavicle, also known as the "collarbone."

Treatment and riskThe majority of children's fractures occur here, in fact. As newborns move through the delivery canal, they are at risk for developing clavicle fractures.The course of treatment for a clavicle fracture depends on where the break occurs and how severe it is. If the break is nondisplaced, meaning the edges of the bones are in contact, the treatment is to wear an arm sling for a few weeks to allow the bone to heal. Surgery is frequently necessary when a fracture is dislocated, which means the edges are not aligned.

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What is the name of the scientists who determined the structure of DNA?

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The discovery in 1953 of the double helix, the twisted-ladder structure of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), by James Watson and Francis Crick marked a milestone in the history of science and gave rise to modern molecular biology.

They quickly gained revolutionary understanding of the genetic code and protein synthesis as a result of their discoveries. It supported the development of innovative and potent scientific methods in the 1970s and 1980s, particularly recombinant DNA research, genetic engineering, rapid gene sequencing, and monoclonal antibodies, which served as the foundation for the multibillion dollar biotechnology industry that exists today. The mapping of the human genome, the development of modern forensic science, and the as-yet unrealized promise of gene treatment are all examples of significant recent scientific advancements that were all sparked by Watson and Crick. Not only has the double helix changed biology, but it has also become a cultural icon, appearing in jewelry, toys, sculptures, and other works of art.

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The zygote is a single cell and human adult has about 100 trillion cells. Approximately how many divisions should the zygote undergo to form the adult, considering the fact that one cell division leads to the formation of two cells?

Answers

Answer: 47 Divisions

Explanation:

We developed from a single-celled zygote by the process of mitosis and meiosis. The cells continued to divide until you were a multicelled organism. It would take 47 divisions to become an organism with 100 trillion cells.

why is it logical to observe that wind-pollinated species usually grow in dense stands containing many individuals of the same species?

Answers

It makes sense for wind-pollinated plants to grow in dense numbers as they need dense stands of the same species to thrive and because the great majority of wind pollen does not find an adequate ovule.

Wind pollinates many of our most prevalent plant species, including grasses, conifers, and food plants like wheat, rice, and corn.

The wind, which came into existence before insects and creates tiny, inconspicuous flowers, physically transports pollen. Yet, there are a number of drawbacks to wind pollination as well: There is a lot of pollen produced by these plants, but the majority of it does not find an adequate ovule. unpredictable wind direction and speed. Wind-pollinated plants often require dense stands of the same species to survive..

Some of this wind-borne pollen was ingested by early insects, which later evolved over millions of years into the bees and other pollinators we see today.

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Put the phases of the cardiac cycle in the correct order, starting after ventricular filling. isovolumetric contraction, ventricular ejection, isovolumetric relaxation ventricular ejection, ventricular relaxation, isovolumetric contraction

Answers

Option (D) isovolumetric contraction, ventricular ejection, and isovolumetric relaxation in the correct order, beginning after ventricular filling. The length of the cardiac cycle is proportional to the heart rate.

The duration of the cardiac cycle increases as the heart rate decreases and decreases as the heart rate increases. One cardiac cycle lasts 0.8 seconds at a normal heart rate of 75 beats per minute. Systole accounts for 13 of the cardiac cycle duration at rest, while diastole accounts for 23. When the heart rate increases (for example, during intense muscle work), the duration of diastole decreases much more than the duration of systole.

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calculate the flow rate of blood through a capillary in cubic centimeters per second, given that the capillary has a diameter of 4.0 x 10-4 cm and the average speed of the blood is the capillary is 3.0 x10-2 cm/sec.

Answers

The flow rate of blood through a capillary in cubic centimeters per second, is 37.68 x 10⁻¹⁰ cm³/sec.

Flow rate (Q) of anything is defined as the rate of volume of the liquid of something passing through a cross-section of area with respect to time. The SI unit of of flow is m³/sec. The relation between the velocity of the liquid and the rate of flow is directly proportional and can be calculated using the following equation :

⇒ Q = A x v    where, A is the cross sectional area and v is the average velocity of the liquid. First We have to calculate the area of the cross section :

⇒Area = [tex]\pi[/tex]r²

⇒3.14 x (2.0 x 10⁻⁴) x (2.0 x 10⁻⁴)

⇒ 12.56 x 10⁻⁸ cm²

Now, calculating flow rate, Putting the given values :

⇒  Q = (3.0 x 10⁻²) x (12.56 x 10⁻⁸)

⇒ 37.68 x 10⁻¹⁰ cm³/sec

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Construction of a solar power plant is proposed for a desert area near a school. A student has hypothesized that the

shade cast by the solar panels will increase the mortality of creosote bush, a native desert plant in the area. Before

construction begins, what experimental data should the student collect in order to eventually test the hypothesis?

A: Average noise levels in decibels) at a construction site, compared to average noise levels in the desert 20 km away from the

construction site

B:The rate of wind-caused soil erosion (in kg/yr) near solar panels at a similar desert location where creosote bush grows

C:The direct sunlight received by creosote bush in the desert area (in kWh/m2) during a 12-month period

D: The changes in monthly precipitation (in mm/yr) at a similar desert location where creosote bush grows

Answers

The amount of direct sunlight that a creosote bush in a desert region receives over the course of a year (measured in kWh/m2).

One of several procedures necessary to ensure the long-term survival of humans in space is crop production. Underneath the Closed Ecological Life - supporting System (CELSS) programme, NASA realised early on the advantages of including higher plants in the overall strategy. Designing, building, and running a closed (gas, liquid, and solid) plant growth room is the initial step. For this, a closed cylinder measuring 3.6 metres in diameter by 6.7 metres in height that was previously employed as just a hypobaric vessel during in the Mercury programme is being modified. The central axis of the chamber is vertical and it is supported by legs. Using an airlock, the compartment is accessed. The amount of direct sunlight that a creosote bush in a desert region receives over the course of a year (measured in kWh/m2). Construction of a solar power plant is proposed for a desert area near a school. A student has hypothesized that the shade cast by the solar panels will increase the mortality of creosote bush, a native desert plant in the area.

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waves of muscular contractions that propel food along the gastrointestinal tract are called ___

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Waves of muscular contractions that propel food along the gastrointestinal tract are called Peristalsis

What exactly is peristalsis, and where does it occur?

Peristalsis is the wave-like movement of the muscles that lining your digestive tube. Peristalsis is the movement of food through your digestive system. It begins in your throat when you swallow and continues through your oesophagus, stomach, and intestines as you digest.

Motilin is a hormone that is secreted cyclically during fasting by entero-endocrine cells (Mo cells) in the upper small intestine. Motilin increases gastric and small intestinal motility, causing undigested food to migrate into the large intestine.

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Which statement describes a way in which a society could conserve energy?
OA. A hydrogen fuel cell factory could start producing twice as many
car batteries.
O B. A city could develop a mass transit system that uses energy-
efficient vehicles.
O C. An oil-burning power plant could start generating twice as much
electricity.
D. A community could build more roads to encourage more people to
drive to work.

Answers

A city could develop a mass transit system that uses energy-efficient vehicles describes a way in which a society could conserve energy. So, the correct option is B.

How to conserve energy?

The law of conservation of energy defined as the “Energy can neither be created nor destroyed but can only be converted from one form to another"

Some benefits of energy conservation are as follows:

It saves the cost which will lowers the utility billsIt prolongs the existence of fossil fuels.This protects the environment.It reduces pollution.

Society can conserve the energy by developing a city amass transit system which uses energy-efficient vehicles.

Therefore, the correct option is B.

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what did went’s experiments with the gelatin block demonstrate?

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Experiments with the gelatin block demonstrate that plants cannot be induced to bend during growth unless they are exposed .

Plants cannot be induced to bend during growth unless they are exposed to an indirect source of light. Light induces the coleoptile to produce a diffusible substance that moves to the growing region of a plant where it stimulates cells to elongate.

Experiment demonstrated the existence of auxin in plants. His interest gradually shifted to environmental influences on plant growth. At Caltech he was the first to examine the significance of hormones in plant development and growth .This signal, a hormone now known as auxin, moves down the dark side of the plant to stimulate faster growth on that side, causing the plant to curve toward the light.

This whole experiment of basically related to provide knowledge about plants the growth ,parts there behaviour with different atmosphere .

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what is the difference between a negative feedback system and a positive feedback system?

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A equilibrium state (or stable equilibrium) is maintained by the control centre turning the effector "on and off" in a negative feedback system; in a positive system, the actuator continually increasing its output.

Positively and negatively feedback react differently to change: good feedback intensifies change, whilst negative input slows it down. This implies that positive comments will lead to more of a given product, such as more apples, contractions, or platelets that coagulate. Positive feedback loops magnify or intensify changes, which tends to push a system out of balance and increase its instability. Negative feedbacks have the tendency to muffle or dampen changes, which serves to keep a system in an equilibrium condition and increase stability.

(What is the difference between a negative feedback system and a positive feedback system?

In a negative feedback system, the control center raises or lowers the set point until the signals from the sensor stop; in a positive feedback system, the set point remains constant.

In a negative feedback system, the control center signals the effector to go "on and off" to maintain a steady state (or stable equilibrium); in a positive feedback system, the effector keeps increasing its output.

In a negative feedback system, the organism is most likely experiencing a disease state. In a positive feedback system, the organism is most likely healthy.

In a negative feedback system, the consequences of the action can harm the animal; in a positive feedback system, the animal is not harmed.)

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Transcription is similar to DNA replication, in that:
a. an RNA transcript is synthesized discontinuously, and the pieces are then joined together
b. it uses the exact enzyme as that used to synthesize RNA primers during DNA replication
c. the newly-synthesized RNA remains paired to the template DNA nucleotide
d. polymerization occurs only in the 5'-to-3' direction

Answers

The correct answer is option d. Transcription is similar to DNA replication in that polymerization occurs only in the 5'-to-3' direction.

Transcription is comparable to DNA replication in that it requires the creation of RNA from a DNA template, much like DNA replication. The RNA polymerase enzyme catalyses the 5'-to-3' polymerization of nucleotides throughout both procedures.

During transcription, RNA polymerase attaches to a gene's promoter region and then creates a corresponding RNA transcript using the template DNA nucleotide. Contrary to DNA replication, transcription happens in fragments, with freshly generated RNA bits being linked.

Additionally, during DNA replication, certain enzymes are utilised to create RNA primers; these primers are not needed during transcription.

The freshly generated RNA also stays coupled to the template DNA nucleotide throughout transcription, but the DNA double helix's two strands are separated during DNA replication.

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Which of these carbohydrates may contain glucose as well as other monosaccharides?a. fiber b. amylopectin c. glycogen d. amylose

Answers

Option a is correct. Carbohydrates, which may include glucose and other monosaccharides, are dietary fiber.

What are examples of carbohydrate monosaccharides?

Monosaccharides are a type of carbohydrate that cannot be hydrogenated into smaller carbohydrates. They correspond to general chemical formula (CH2O)x. The most common monosaccharides contain 3-6 carbon atoms in an unbranched, single-bonded chain. Monosaccharides are denoted with the suffix -ose.  Examples of monosaccharides include: Glucose, fructose, and galactose.

What is the function of monosaccharides in carbohydrates?

Monosaccharides perform two main functions in the body: Essential component of energy storage and more complex carbohydrates used as structural components.

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macrophages that reside in tissues express several types of receptors that are broadly referred to as what types of receptors?

Answers

Two different types of receptors are expressed by macrophages in tissues. They are broadly referred to as phagocytic and signaling receptors, thus the correct option is B.

Macrophages are effector cells of the innate immune system that release both pro-inflammatory and antibacterial mediators in addition to phagocytosing microorganisms. Additionally, macrophages are crucial in the elimination of sick and damaged cells due to their programmed cell death. Typically, macrophages consume and break down foreign substances, tumor cells, debris, and dead cells. They assist the body in maintaining homeostasis by acting as phagocytes, trophic, regulatory, and repair cells in response to both internal and external disturbances.

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The complete question is:

Macrophages that reside in tissues express two types of receptors. They are broadly referred to as _______ and ______ receptors.

A) death; neutralizing

B) phagocytic; signaling

C) activating; inhibitory

the cell type that produces proteins and most molecules of the ground substance in cartilage are known as

Answers

Answer:

chondrocytes.

Explanation:

The cell type that produces proteins and most of the ground substance in cartilage are known as chondrocytes. These cells are responsible for the production and maintenance of the extracellular matrix of cartilage, which gives the tissue its characteristic firm yet flexible structure. The matrix consists of a network of collagen fibers, proteoglycans, and other molecules that provide mechanical support to the tissue. During the process of ossification, chondrocytes secrete proteins that form a matrix that can be mineralized to form bone tissue. The balance of production and degradation of the matrix determines the overall structure and mechanical properties of the cartilage tissue.

Allen

Woolly mammoths became extinct around 4,000 years ago. A recent study conducted by scientists found that the last generations of woolly mammoths were plagued by harmful gene mutations. Some of the mutations caused them to have softer fur that didn’t protect them from the cold, a diminished sense of smell, and digestive problems.
A species potential for evolution is based on four factors:
the potential for a species to increase in number
the heritable genetic variation of individuals in a species due to mutation and sexual reproduction
organisms competing for limited resources such as food or water in their environment
the proliferation of those organisms that are better able to survive and reproduce in the environment

In two to three paragraphs, explain why the last generations of woolly mammoths couldn’t meet these factors to evolve in a changing environment. Also explain how data such as the fossil record and DNA evidence can identify the factors that can lead to the evolution of a species.

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

The last generations of woolly mammoths were unable to meet the four factors for evolution because they were plagued by harmful gene mutations. These mutations caused a decrease in their fur density and thickness, making them vulnerable to the cold, as well as a decrease in their sense of smell and digestive problems. These traits made it difficult for them to find food and survive in their environment, leading to a decrease in population numbers.

Data such as fossil records and DNA evidence can be used to identify the factors that can lead to the evolution of a species. The fossil record provides a timeline of a species' physical characteristics and adaptations over time, while DNA evidence provides information about genetic changes and mutations. Both sources of data help scientists understand how species have evolved over time and why some species have become extinct. In the case of the woolly mammoths, the fossil record and DNA evidence revealed that harmful gene mutations were a significant factor in their extinction. By understanding the evolutionary factors that led to the extinction of the woolly mammoths, scientists can better understand how to protect other species from a similar fate.

the thin space between the parietal and visceral layers of the serous pericardium is the ______ cavity.-pericardial-epicardium-endocardial-pleural

Answers

The thin space between the parietal and visceral layers of the serous pericardium is the pericardial cavity.

The fibrous pericardium is a connective tissue layer that supports and protects the heart. It is connected to the diaphragm, the sternum (through the sterno-pericardial ligaments), and the vertebral column via many ligaments. It stabilises the heart.

The outer (parietal) layer of serous pericardium lines the inner surface of the fibrous pericardium. The exterior surface of the heart is lined by the inner (visceral) layer of the serous pericardium. The pericardial cavity, which contains pericardial fluid, is located between the two layers of the serous pericardium. This fluid acts as a lubricant between the two layers and allows the heart to expand and contract.

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baboons and colobuses are the only old world monkeys included in this phylogenetic tree. what species or group of species is most closely related to the old world monkeys? please select all correct answers.

Answers

The species or group of species that are most closely related to the old world monkeys are Option G, H, and I: Orangutan, human and Chimpanzee respectively.

Because the two species are so closely related, human and chimp DNA are remarkably similar. From a single progenitor species that existed six or seven million years ago, humans, chimpanzees, and bonobos all descended. Their DNA, which is passed down from generation to generation, changed as humans and chimpanzees eventually evolved from a shared ancestor.

A taxon in biology is a collection of one or more populations of an organism or populations of organisms that taxonomists consider to be a single entity (backformation from taxonomy; plural taxa). A taxon is typically known by a particular name and assigned a particular grade, while neither is necessary.

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What lymphatic organs filter the blood?

Answers

The lymphatic organs include the lymph nodes, tonsils, spleen, and thymus. An organ that serves as a blood filter is the spleen, which is situated close to the stomach.

It eliminates red blood cells that are stale, broken, or aberrant and stores some white blood cells as well. A gland in the chest called the thymus aids in the creation of T-cells, which are vital for protecting the body against infection. In the back of the throat, the tonsils serve as a filter to collect and hold foreign substances including bacteria, viruses, and other poisons.

Last but not least, the lymph nodes are tiny glands with a bean-like structure that are distributed throughout the body and function as filters to capture and exterminate bacteria, viruses, and other undesirable organisms.

Additionally, they create white blood cells that aid the body in infection defence. Together, the lymphatic organs support the immune system and defend the body against infection.

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14) Besides being prescribed to humans, explain one other ways antibiotics are being used.

15) How was NFL football player Daniel Fells affected by bacteria and antibiotic resistance?

16) What was Alexander Fleming’s contribution to science?

1) Use evidence from the passage and “Rise of the Supergerms” to explain why it is important to search for new antibiotics.

2)According to the passage above, why is it beneficial to study bacteria found in nature to try to discover new antibiotics?

3) Explain the problem the scientists were trying to solve in developing the iChip.

4) Why do you think it is important that bacteria be placed in individual pits in the iChip?

5) Why is the discovery of text actin so important in the fight against antibiotic-resistant bacteria? Use evidence to support the passage and “Rise of Supergerms” to support your answer.

Answers

Antibiotics have different mechanisms of action, but they usually target bacteria vital processes such as protein or cell wall sysnthesis.

What the Tetracycline binds?

Tetracycline binds to the 30s and 50s subunits of the ribosome blocking the introduction of new amino acids to the peptide chain being synthetised. Without protein synthesis cells cannot divide, helping the immune system to kill them.

Penicillin inhibits the enzyme involved in the final step of cell wall biosynthesis interrupting bacteria cell division. Bacteria have developed different strategies for the movement of material genetic other than the vertical transmission in mitosis.

Therefore, Antibiotics have different mechanisms of action, but they usually target bacteria vital processes such as protein or cell wall sysnthesis.

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Which statement best describes a monohybrid cross?
O a cross in which no characteristics are studied
O a cross in which traits of several different characteristics are studied
O a cross in which the traits of a single characteristic are studied
O a cross that studies only the offspring of one homozygous and one heterozygous parent

Answers

The statement which best describes a monohybrid cross is that it is a cross in which the traits of a single characteristic are studied and is therefore denoted as option C.

What is a Monohybrid cross?

This is referred to as a cross between two organisms with different variations at one genetic locus of interest.

The character being studied in a monohybrid cross are governed by two or multiple variations for a single location of a gene which is therefore the reason why option C was chosen as the correct choice.

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what is the tissues that cover external and internal body surfaces?

Answers

The epithelium is a kind of bodily tissue that forms the coating on all of your body's internal and exterior surfaces, lines body cavities and hollow organs, and is the main tissue in glands.

Depending on where it is in your body, epithelial tissue has a range of roles, including protection, secretion, and absorption. The organs in your body are made up of four different types of tissue:

Epithelial.Connective.Muscular.Nervous.

Epithelial cells make up epithelial tissue. Depending on where they are in your body and what tasks they perform, the cells might have varied forms and organised in a single layer or numerous layers.

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based on the β-globin alignment, identify the best hypothesis about how humans are related to monkeys and gibbons.

Answers

The best explanation for how humans are related to monkeys and gibbons based on the -globin alignment is that gibbons are more closely connected to humans than monkeys since the gibbon -globin sequence matches the human sequence more closely.

The hemoglobin gene genes for a protein component that is necessary for red blood cells to carry oxygen. It is possible to compare the -globin sequences of humans, monkeys, and gibbons to find parallels and differences that reveal their evolutionary links.

In this instance, the percentage of identity between the globin sequences of gibbons and humans is higher than it is between monkeys and humans, indicating that gibbons are more closely related to humans than monkeys are. This is so because two sequences with a higher percent of identity likely share a more recent common ancestor.

The complete question is:-

Based on the β-globin alignment, identify the best hypothesis about how humans are related to monkeys and gibbons.

a. Both monkeys and gibbons are equally related to humans because they both have less than a 10% difference in β-globin sequence with humans

b. Both monkeys and gibbons are equally unrelated to humans because neither monkeys nor gibbons have the exact same β-globin sequence as humans

c. Gibbons are more closely related to humans than monkeys are because the gibbon β-globin sequence is a closer match with the human sequence

d. Monkeys are more closely related to humans than gibbons are because the monkeys' β-globin sequence has the lower percent identity with humans

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which theory explains the origin of chloroplasts and mitochondria? group of answer choices the theory of natural selection the endosymbiont theory the cell theory the geologic time theory the theory of evolution

Answers

The endosymbiont theory explains the origin of chloroplasts and mitochondria.

The endosymbiont theory holds that some of the organelles within eukaryotic cells were once prokaryotes. Mitochondria and chloroplasts are prokaryotic cell size and divide by binary fission. Mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own DNA, which is circular rather than linear.

The mitochondrial endosymbiosis theory describes how eukaryotic mitochondria, chloroplasts, and other membrane-bound organelles may have arisen from symbiosis between aerobic prokaryotic and anaerobic eukaryotic host ancestors. It is a theory about whether there is a gender. The Russian botanist Konstantin Mereshkovsky was the first to propose the symbiosis or endosymbiosis theory, which states that the organelles that distinguish eukaryotes from prokaryotes form mutually beneficial relationships between individual prokaryotes.

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Complete question :

Which theory explains the origin of chloroplasts and mitochondria?

A. the theory of evolution

B. the theory of natural selection

C. the geologic time theory

D. the cell theory

E. the endosymbiont theory

a double-stranded dna oligonucleotide and a double-stranded rna oligonucleotide of identical sequence (substituting u for t) are both present in an aqueous solution near neutral ph. apart from the presence of u in rna versus t in dna, how will their helical structures differ?

Answers

In terms of their helical structures, DNA and RNA differ in several ways. Firstly, DNA typically forms a double-stranded helix, with the two strands held together by hydrogen bonds between complementary base pairs.

These base pairs consist of adenine (A) paired with thymine (T), and cytosine (C) paired with guanine (G). In contrast, RNA typically forms a single-stranded helix, although it can fold back on itself to form double-stranded regions. RNA also contains the base uracil (U), which pairs with adenine (A) in a similar manner to thymine (T) in DNA.

In terms of the specific question posed, a double-stranded DNA oligonucleotide and a double-stranded RNA oligonucleotide of identical sequence (substituting U for T) would differ primarily in their helical structure due to the difference in base pairing. In RNA, uracil (U) would pair with adenine (A), while in DNA, thymine (T) would pair with adenine (A).

This difference in base pairing would affect the overall shape of the molecule, as well as the stability of the helix. In particular, the hydrogen bonding between uracil (U) and adenine (A) is weaker than that between thymine (T) and adenine (A), meaning that the RNA helix may be less stable than the DNA helix.

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