A cohort of 3000 individuals was chosen to be part of a study on the potential relationship between being infected with hepatitis C virus (HCV) and liver disease. 800 of the cohort members acquire an HCV infection and out of those infected persons 640 develop liver disease. 200 of the remaining cohort members also develop liver disease.
A. What is the relative risk of developing liver disease based on exposure to HCV?
B. What is the odds ratio for developing liver disease based on exposure to HCV?

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

Relative risk = percentage of disease after exposition/percentage of disease without exposition

= (800/3000) / (200/3000)

= 26,66 % / 6,66 % = 400 % 

Odds ratio = odds of disease after exposition/odds of disease without exposition

= (800/3000) / (200/3000)

= 0.2666 / 0.0666 = 4  

Explanation:  

The relative risk estimates the probable outcome in the exposed group in regard to the expected outcome in the non-exposed group. A relative risk of 400 % is indicative of 4 times the average risk.  On the other hand, the odds ratio estimates the association between the exposure and the outcome for a particular disease.

Both the relative risk and the odds ratio are estimated in a very similar mode, however, the first is calculated as percentages.


Related Questions

A cell has two pairs of submetacentric chromosomes, which we will call chromosomes IA, IB, IIA, and IIB (chromosomes IA and I B are homologs, and chromosomes IIA and IIB are homologs). Allele M is located on the long arm of chromosome IA and allele m is located at the same position on chromosome IB. Allele P is located on the short arm of chromosome IA, and allele p is located at the same position on chromosome IB. Allele R is located on chromosome IIA and allele r is located at the same position on chromosome IIB.

A. Draw these chromosomes, identifying alleles M, m, P, p, R, and r as they would appear in metaphase I of meiosis. Assume there is no crossing over.

B. Taking into consideration the random separation of chromosomes in anaphase I, draw the possible types of gametes that might result from this cell’s undergoing meiosis. Assume that there is no crossing over.

Answers

Answer:

A) Allelic position in the chromosomes:

IA  ----------M------------:-----------P----

IB  ----------m------------:-----------p----

IIA -----------------R--------------------:---------------------

IIB -----------------r---------------------:---------------------

B) Types of gametes (assuming there is no crossing over):

MPR; MPr; mpR; mpr.

Explanation:

In submetacentric chromosomes, the centromere is located near to the middle of the chromosomes.

Since these two pairs of homologous chromosomes do not undergo crossover, the resulting gametes after meiosis may have four (4) allele combinations.

The instructions for making proteins are coded in the (cytoplasm / DNA / endoplasmic reticulum / nucleus) of a cell. In a eukaryotic cell, these instructions are located in the (cytoplasm / DNA / endoplasmic reticulum / nucleus).

Answers

Answer:

The instructions for making proteins are coded in the (cytoplasm / DNA / endoplasmic reticulum / nucleus) of a cell. In a eukaryotic cell, these instructions are located in the (cytoplasm / DNA / endoplasmic reticulum / nucleus).

Explanation:

The genetic code is contained in DNA, or deoxyribonucleic acid. This is usually the same among most organisms, save some RNA viruses. But in eukaryotes, the DNA is in the nucleus, whereas in prokaryotes the DNA is in the "nucleoid region", or a twisted up section near the middle of the cell.

The instructions for making proteins are coded in the DNA of a cell. In a eukaryotic cell, these instructions are located in the nucleus.

What is DNA?

Deoxyribonucleic acid is a polymer made up of two polynucleotide chains that coil around each other to form a double helix that contains genetic instructions for the development, functioning, growth.

it is also involved in reproduction of all known organisms and viruses. Nucleic acids include DNA and ribonucleic acid.

The information molecule is DNA. It stores instructions for the production of larger molecules known as proteins.

These instructions are stored in the nucleus of each of your cells and are distributed across 46 long structures known as chromosomes.

These chromosomes are composed of thousands of shorter DNA segments known as genes.

DNA is a linear molecule made up of four different types of smaller chemical molecules known as nitrogenous bases.

Thus, DNA is involved in coding protein and is usually located in nucleus.

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Relaxation of the diaphragm muscle plays a major role in expanding the lungs.
True
False​

Answers

Answer:

False

Explanation:

You relax the diaphragm muscle by exhaling. When the diaphragm muscle is relaxed, the lungs contract. When the diaphragm muscle expands, the lungs also expand. Therefore, relaxation of the diaphragm muscle does NOT play a major role in expanding the lungs.

Question 17
Cancer is a disease in which some cells lose their ability
to control which of the following?
A
size
B
sister chromatids
C
rate of division
D
surface area

Answers

Answer:

rate of division

Explanation:

In normal cells, the cell cycle is controlled by a complex series of signaling pathways by which a cell grows, replicates its DNA and divides. In cancer, as a result of genetic mutations, this regulatory process malfunctions, resulting in uncontrolled cell proliferation.

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Cancer is a disease in which some cells lose their ability to control rate of division. The correct option is C.

What is cancer?

Cancer is the body's unchecked proliferation of aberrant cells. When the body's natural control system malfunctions, cancer might emerge.

Instead of dying, old cells proliferate uncontrollably to produce new, aberrant cells. These excess cells could aggregate into a tissue mass known as a tumour.

Genes, the fundamental building blocks of inheritance, can change in ways that result in cancer.

Chromosomes are long, tightly packed DNA strands where genes are organised. Since genes that determine how our cells behave, particularly how they grow and divide, are altered, cancer is a genetic disease.

Thus, the correct option is C.

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After examining this ecosystem,

identify and list 10 things the features you

think create this ecosystem.

Answers

Answer:

Various biotic & abiotic elements create ecosystem.

Explanation:

Ecosystem is a geographic system where plants, animals, other organisms, weather & other climatic factors create an ambience of prevailing life.

Ecosystem has following components :

Biotic Components : Living organisms & creatures, biodiversity Abiotic Components : Non Living organisms like Water, Air, Land etc

What cell type are involved in the secretion thyroglobulin ?

Answers

by thyroid epithelial cells and secreted into the lumen of the follicle - colloid is essentially a pool of thyroglobulin.

By thyroid epithelial cells and secreted into the lumen of the follicle - colloid is essentially a pool of thyroglobulin.

What is Thyroglobulin?

The amount of thyroglobulin in a sample of your blood is measured by a thyroglobulin test. Your thyroid produces a protein called thyroglobulin. A little gland in your neck with a butterfly form is your thyroid.

It produces hormones that regulate a variety of bodily functions, such as your heart rate and how quickly you burn off calories from food.

One kind of test for tumor markers is the thyroglobulin test. In reaction to cancer in your body, cancer cells and/or normal cells produce molecules known as tumor markers. Small levels of thyroglobulin are typically released into your bloodstream by your thyroid.

Therefore, By thyroid epithelial cells and secreted into the lumen of the follicle - colloid is essentially a pool of thyroglobulin.

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Which current is a warm ocean current that flows completely around Earth?

a) North Equatorial Current
b) California Current
c) West Wind Drift
d) Gulf Stream

Answers

Answer:

gulf stream

Explanation:

it transports warm water from the equator past the east coast of north america and across the atlantic to europe

The map of ocean currents shows that the surface ocean currents create loops called gyres. The Gulf stream current is a warm ocean current that flows completely around Earth.

What is gulf stream?

Gulf stream is a strong ocean current bringing warm water into Atlantic ocean to Gulf of Mexico.

The Gulf Stream is in the western North Atlantic Ocean. It moves north with the coast of Florida and then moves eastward off of North Carolina, flowing northeast across the Atlantic.

Thus, the correct option is d.

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All animals need food to survive. Which of these is a use for food? A. growth B. motion C. body repair D. all of these

Answers

Answer:

D

Explanation:

The food that animals need to survive is constructed into energy that is used for

growth

ex. humans getting taller

motion

ex. energy to run

body repair

ex. repairing ripped tissues

Which statement is true of viruses? A. Viruses do not consist of cells, but they have cell membranes, cytoplasm, ribosomes, and other cell organelles. B. Viruses do not consist of cells; they lack cell membranes, but do have cytoplasm, ribosomes, and other cell organelles. C. Viruses do not consist of cells; they also lack cell membranes, cytoplasm, ribosomes, and other cell organelles. D. Viruses are cells with cell membranes, cytoplasm, ribosomes, and other cell organelles.

Answers

Answer:

C. Viruses do not consist of cells; they also lack cell membranes, cytoplasm, ribosomes, and other cell organelles.

Explanation:

Viruses are only composed of a couple things: strands of nucleic acid that can be DNA or RNA, a protein coat called a capsid, and potentially a glycolipid coat to protect the outside.

There are no organelles, nor are there cells. Keep in mind that a virus is nonliving, so D is utterly wrong.

flowers contain structures that are responsible for which process?

a- Germination ,
b-Reproduction ,
c-Respiration ,
d-transpiration

Answers

Answer: B: Reproduction

Explanation: Generally, flowers are the reproductive organs of plant. All its structures are geared towards the reproduction process

In rabbits, brown coat (B) is dominant to white coat (b). A rabbit breeder wants to know the genotype of his best looking male brown rabbit using a test cross. He has brown females and white females available to conduct his breeding experiments.

Required:
a. What should be the coat color of the female he must use in this test cross?
b. If the test cross produces seven (7) brown rabbits and one (1) white rabbit, what is the genotype of the brown male rabbit?

Answers

Answer:

a. white

b. Bb

Explanation:

A test cross usually involve crossing an individual whose zygosity is unknown with a homozygous recessive version of individual of the same species.

Brown coat (B) is dominant over white coat (b). Hence, there is no way to physically distinguish between a BB rabbit and a Bb  rabbit because both of them will be brown. A bb rabbit however will be white in appearance.

A test cross would therefore involve crossing the brown male rabbit with bb (white) rabbit.

Assuming that the genotype of the brown rabbit is BB, all the progeny will be brown as shown by the cross below.

         BB   x   bb

    Bb   Bb   Bb   Bb

In order word, assuming the genotype is Bb, some of the offspring will appear brown while some will appear white.

      Bb  x   bb

Bb   Bb   bb   bb

Hence, the only way the test cross would produce white offspring is if the genotype of the brown rabbit is heterozygous, Bb.

When two plants belonging to the same genus but different species are crossed, the F1 hybrid is more viable and has more ornate flowers. Unfortunately, this hybrid is sterile and can only be propagated by vegetative cuttings. Explain the sterility of the hybrid and what would have to occur for the sterility of this hybrid to be reversed

Answers

Answer:

Hybrid incompatibility has a genetic basis both in plants and animals

Explanation:

In plants, hybrid incompatibility may be associated with different factors including, for example, mismatch recognition in chromosomal pairing, changes in the ploidy level, homozygous lethal alleles, epigenetic-associated factors, postzygotic hybrid incompatibility, etc.

Hybrid incompatibility is recognized to promote reproductive isolating barriers between species, thereby understanding into the genetic basis of this phenomenon may result useful to understand the evolutionary forces that are associated with speciation.

You can reverse the hybrid incompatibility by changing the ploidy level, since it ensures a correct chromosome pairing during the cell division. You can use colchicine, it is an antimitotic agent that is widely used to duplicate the ploidy level.

How many groups are in the modem periodic table

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is

18

Groups of the periodic table: The s-, p-, and d-block elements of the periodic table are arranged into 18 numbered columns, or groups.

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Place the following generation of action potential steps in order:
1) sodium channels are inactivated.
2) voltage-regulated potassium channels open and potassium moves out of the cell, initiating repolarization.
3) sodium channels regain their normal properties.
4) a graded depolarization brings an area of excitable membrane to the threshold.
5) a temporary hyperpolarization occurs.
6) sodium channel activation occurs.7) sodium ions enter the cell and further depolarization occurs.

Answers

Answer: 6) sodium channel activation occurs.

4)a graded depolarization brings an area of excitable membrane to the threshold.

7) sodium ions enter the cell and further depolarization occurs.

1)sodium channels are inactivated.

2) voltage-regulated potassium channels open and potassium moves out of the cell, initiating repolarization.

3) sodium channels regain their normal properties.

5) a temporary hyperpolarization occurs

Explanation:

action potential occurs when the differences in the concentrations of ions on opposite sides of a cellular membrane lead to a voltage of a specific cell location rapidly rises and falls.

The steps involved in this generation are;

First of all the sodium-gated channel activation occurs due to inflow of Na, this is called depolarization. A graded depolarization brings an area of excitable membrane to the threshold. More sodium ions enter the cell and further depolarization occurs. After which the sodium channels are inactivated due to the opening of voltage-regulated potassium channels and potassium moves out of the cell, returning it to it initial resting phase initiating repolarization. sodium channels regain their normal properties. a temporary hyperpolarization occurs which is a transient negative shift after an action potential occurs.

Should certain vaccines be required?
Explain your answer to the question above.

Answers

Answer:

Yes

Explanation:

Vaccines, are dangerous but also very helpful. Most vaccines we have now help prevent the original disease they are designed with. Such as Polio.

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Female honey bees are diploid and male honey bees are haploid. The haploid males produce sperm and can successfully mate with diploid females. Fertilized eggs develop into females and unfertilized eggs develop into males. How does the process of sperm production in male honey bees differ from sperm production in other animals?

a. Male honey bees use meiosis I only, whereas other animals use both phases of meiosis.
b. Male honey bees use meiosis, whereas other animals use mitosis.
c. Male honey bees use mitosis, whereas other animals use meiosis.
d. Male honey bees can use mitosis or meiosis, whereas other animals can only use meiosis.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is option C.

Explanation:

In most of the male animals the production of sperms takes place through the process of meiosis. Meiosis occurs only in 2n or diploid cells. Thus the most of the animals produce sperm due to their diploid nature.

In male bees the sperm production is different than other animals as it is haploid cell and haploid cells produce sperms through mitosis. In haploid cells mitosis helps in produce more sperms.

Thus, the correct answer is option C.

Plato: Select the correct answer. Which strategy would help veterinarians avoid burnout? A. continuing education B. increasing involvement at the workplace C. meditation D. neglecting work duties

Answers

Answer:

i believe your answer is a

Explanation:

Chris talked to his grandma on the phone, and she asked what birthday presents he received. Chris picked up a toy bat
and said, "This is what I got,"fully expecting his grandma on the other end of the phone to see the toy bat, too. What
aspect of development is Chris showing?
concrete operations
egocentrism
abstract thinking
sensory motor skills
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TERMS OF USE
2008 2009 2011 Glynlyon. In

Answers

Answer:

I think it's concrete operations

Answer:

1

Explanation:

what is the function of the pancreas

Answers

Explanation:

the function of the pancreas that it secretes enzymes that work in tandem with bile from the liver and gallbladder to help breakdown substances for proper digestion and absorption.

Answer:

Releases insulin.

Explanation:

Choose the true statement. Receptor tyrosine kinases undergo autophosphorylation. G proteins phosphorylate receptor tyrosine kinases. Receptor tyrosine kinases include seven transmembrane segments. Active receptor tyrosine kinases are monomeric proteins.

Answers

Answer:

Receptor tyrosine kinases undergo autophosphorylation.

Explanation:

The receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs) are proteins that undergo dimerization and autophosphorylation after binding with their corresponding ligands, thereby triggering downstream molecular signaling cascades. The RTKs bind with high specificity to ligands including growth factors, hormones and cytokines. In human cells, there are 58 types of RTKs proteins that function to regulate developmental pathways, and their dysfunctions have been associated with cancer progression.

Ash trees are being removed when they show signs of the ash borer, a parasite that affects only ash trees and kills them off. What best explains why the ash trees are being cut down?

Answers

Answer:

The Ash Trees with Ash Borer are being cut down as a way to maintain the stability of the other Ash Trees.

Explanation:

As stated in the information given, "Ash trees are being removed when they show signs of the Ash Borer, a parasite that affects only Ash Trees and kills them off."

To preserve the other trees, these trees with the parasite must be cut down as a way to stop other trees from gaining this parasite. Its a preservation method for Ash Trees.

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Answer:

D

Explanation:

answer on edge

Which characteristic proves Lactobacillus acidophilus is from the specific kingdom Eubacteria?

Answers

Answer: It has peptidoglycan

Explanation:

The kingdom Eubacteria is the domain of prokaryotic bacteria. These are unicellular and prokaryotic organisms. Their cell membrane is made up of lipids. The cell wall is made up of peptiodoglycan which gives rigidity to the cell wall. It gives the structural strength to the bacterial cell wall, gives the strength to the bacteria, and it will counteract the osmotic pressure develop in the cytoplasm.

Lactobacillus acidophilus possess the peptidoglycan in the cell wall this establishes its relationship with kingdom Eubacteria.

73 The messenger RNA sequence that codes for the amino acid chain
TYR-ARG-GLY-VAL-ALA-LEU is
(1) UAU-CGA-GUU-UUU-UUA-CUC
O (2) UAU-CGA-GGA-GUU-GCG-CUC
O (3) CUC-GCG-GUU-GGA-CGA-UAU
O (4) CUC-UUA-UUU-GUU-CGA-UAU​

Answers

Answer:

(2) UAU-CGA-GGA-GUU-GCG-CUC

Explanation:

The mRNA is produced by the process of transcription which transcribes the DNA to mRNA which can be recognised and read by the ribosomes.

The ribosomal subunits get attached to the mRNA which scans or read the mRNA in the form of codons or triplets of nucleotides. These codons code for particular amino acid and about 64 codons code for 21 amino acids.

In the given question, the sequence of the amino acids in the peptide has been provided based on which the sequence of codons can be easily decoded.

For the provided peptide, the sequence of amino acid will be Option-2 which is UAU-CGA-GGA-GUU-GCG-CUC as this sequence of codons has the codons arranged according to the sequence of the amino acid.

Thus, Option-2 is the correct answer.

UAU-CGA-GGA-GUU-GCG-CUC is the sequence code that encodes the mRNA TYR-ARG-GLY-VAL-ALA-LEU

A codon table is usually employed in translating the genetic code into amino acid sequences

mRNA plays a major role in protein synthesis which originate from the joining together of individual amino acids in the ribosomes.

These amino acids are encoded by three letters that form a codon. There are 64 different codons in the genetic code encoding for the entire 20 amino acids.

The amino acid chain is thus decoded as:

TYR - UAUARG - CGAGLY - GGAVAL - GUUALA - GCGLEU - CUC

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Technology is often used in farming and agriculture. For example, farmers often use airplanes to spray chemicals on crops rather than spraying smaller amounts by hand. Which of the following is a negative side of using this technology?

Answers

The negative side is that the chemicals can expand and will do damage to other living organisms or even human skin or just humans.

Colonial protists have been hypothesized to be the precursors to multicellular organisms. This hypothesis suggests that the individual unicellular members of the colony, which are initially identical, can begin to take on different functions. Then. the colony can begin to evolve into a multicellular organism. True or False

Answers

Answer:

True.

Explanation:

Protists are group of eukaryotes that are unicellular or microscopic and some times multicellular. They can live in colonies and live individually.

Some protist live in large groups called colony.

Colonial protists form larger groups of multicellular organisms. The individuals work together as large groups and perform functions to benefit each other.

most of the colonial protist are filter feeders that feed on suspended particles. Colonies enhance feeding efficiency. In choanoflagellates, coloniest has led to the evolution of metazoans

The inheritance of the petite phenotype in Saccharomyces cerevisiae is complicated by an interaction of mitochondrial and nuclear genes. Which of the following is a false statement about petites in S. cerevisiae?
A) Segregational petites are characterized by mutations in the nuclear genome.
B) Suppressive petites are characterized by mitochondria lacking most of its DNA.
C) Neutral petites, when crossed to wild type, yield wild-type mitochondrial function.
D) The three categories of petites are segregational, neutral, and suppressive.
E) Both nuclear and cytoplasmic (mitochondrial) genes contribute to the petite phenotype in some cases.

Answers

Answer:

Option B

Explanation:

The three categories of petites are segregational, neutral, and suppressive and both nuclear and cytoplasmic (mitochondrial) genes contribute to the petite phenotype in some cases. Suppressive petites are characterized by perfoming crosses between petite and wild-type and discovering that all offspring are petite, this exhibit a "dominant" behavior which suppresses wild-type mitochondrial function and not a lack of mitochondrial function.

The graph below compares the rates of reaction of a burning candle and an exploding firework.

Comparing Chemical Reactions
A graph has time on the horizontal axis and concentration of reactants on the vertical axis. For an exploding firework, the concentration starts high, increases slightly and then decreases rapidly. For a burning candle the concentration starts high, increases more than the firework, and then decreases rapidly. The concentration for the burning candle is higher than the firework at all timepoints.

What can you conclude from the graph?
The reaction that causes a firework to explode requires less energy to start, and occurs more rapidly than the reaction that causes a candle to burn.
The reaction that causes a firework to explode requires less energy to start, and occurs less rapidly than the reaction that causes a candle to burn.
The reaction that causes a firework to explode requires more energy to start, and occurs less rapidly than the reaction that causes a candle to burn.
The reaction that causes a firework to explode requires more energy to start, and occurs more rapidly than the reaction that causes a candle to burn.

Answers

Answer:

The reaction that causes a firework to explode requires less energy to start, and occurs more rapidly than the reaction that causes a candle to burn.

Explanation:

The speed of a chemical reaction and the amount of energy required for this reaction is directly linked to the concentration of reagents present in the system. With that, we can say that the higher the concentration of reagents, the faster the chemical reaction will be due to the greater probability of collision between its molecules.

Although the reaction that causes a candle to burn has more reactants than the reaction that causes the fireworks to explode, the latter requires less energy to start. This makes the molecules of the reagents stir faster and collide more efficiently, making the reaction happen much faster.

In summary, the reaction that causes a firework to explode requires less energy to start and occurs more quickly than the reaction that causes a candle to burn.

The reaction that causes a firework to explode requires more energy to start, and occurs more rapidly than the reaction that causes a candle to burn.

The rate of reaction refers to the ease with which reactants are converted to products. The higher the rate of reaction, the faster reactants are converted into products.

The activation energy is the energy required for reactants to be converted into products. It is an energy barrier that separates reactants and products.

From the description of the graphs, we are told that the reaction that causes the explosion of firework starts at high concentration, initially increases slightly then decreases rapidly. The fact that it initially increased slightly before decreasing rapidly implies that the high energy required for the reaction to start is high.

On the other hand, the reaction for the candle to burn starts at high concentration, increases more than the firework, and then decreases rapidly because the reaction requires a lesser energy to commence than the reaction for the burning of candle.

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Select the choices that best complete the following sentence: An inherited feature of an organism is a ______ whereas a variant of that feature is called a ______.
A.
homozygote; heterozygote
B.
chromosome; factor
C.
hybrid; gamete
D.
character; trait
E.
allele; gene

Answers

Answer:

A

Explanation:

Homozygous means that both copies of a gene or locus match while heterozygous means that the copies do not match. Two dominant alleles (AA) or two recessive alleles (aa) are homozygous. One dominant allele and one recessive allele (Aa) is heterozygous.

mention two morphological differences between pteridophyte
and spermatophyte​

Answers

Answer:

The main difference between these two classes is that: Pteridophytes are vascular plants but they do not produce flowers and seeds which mean their source of reproduction is unknown or hidden. Examples are ferns, horsetails and lycophytes. On the contrary, Spermatophytes as the name indicates, are seed bearing plants.

Explanation:

Answer:

THE DIFFERENCE is that spermatophyte is (botany) any plant that bears seeds rather than spores while pteridophyte is any plant of the division pteridophyta, of simple vascular plants that reproduce via spores rather than seeds and that alternate generations of diploid (sporophyte) and haploid (gametophyte or prothallus) forms

Explanation:

In perspective, with Earth being 4,500,000,000 years old and humans being around 1,400,000 years; how long out of a 24 day time period have we as humans been here.

Answers

Answer:

Day time period have we as humans been here: 26 seconds

Explanation:

4,500,000,000 years = 1 day

1,400,000 years = X

X = 0.0003111  

1 day = 86,400 seconds

0.0003111 = X

X = 26 seconds

In term of the Earth in 24-hour clock, Homo sapiens appeared on our planet only in the last 26 seconds, it means that in geologic time, humans have existed for only a brief time period and thereby it is a relatively new species.

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