Exercise your Kegels. A pregnant patient complains of frequent toilet visits and, on sometimes, stress incontinence. The nurse can provide guidance.a pregnant patient.
stress incontinence offer to the patient in order to enhance perineal muscle tone Stress incontinence occurs when physical movement or activity, such as coughing, laughing, sneezing, running, or heavy lifting, exerts pressure (stress) on your bladder, causing you to leak pee. Stress incontinence is unrelated to psychological stress. The respiratory system includes the nose, sinuses, throat, and larynx. Cauda equina syndrome occurs when the nerve roots of the lumbar spine are crushed, cutting off feeling and movement. Nerve roots that control function A small amount of pee leaks from your bladder when you cough, sneeze, or exercise.
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a client has been admitted with a diagnosis of community-acquired pneumonia to the left lower lung lobe. what assessment findings by the nurse would validate this diagnosis? select all that apply
Hyperglycemia can cause dilutional hyponatremia, so Normal Saline is administered to replace both fluid and sodium lost through increased urinary output. Serum potassium levels are usually normal when the client arrives with HHS.
What is meant by hyponatremia?
Too much water or fluid in the body might result in low blood sodium levels.This "watering down" action gives the salt content a low appearance.Low blood sodium levels can also result from sodium loss from the body or from fluid loss together with sodium loss.Depending on the presentation, a combination of these treatments can be required. For the treatment of severe symptoms of hyponatremia, hypertonic saline is employed.The reduced solute intake of elderly individuals who have diets low in protein and salt may make hyponatremia worse.Water excretion is aided by the kidney's desire to eliminate solutes. Salt and more protein in the diet can enhance water excretion.To learn more about hyponatremia refer to
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after ejaculating, i felt a pain in my right testicle. the pain has lasted for several days. what could be the cause of this condition?
Following ejaculation, you may have muscular spasms in your perineal area. This might cause cramping pain in the testicles. You might also be suffering from pelvic vascular congestion, which can provide a dull, achy sensation.
Testicle discomfort might be caused by such a long bike ride and trauma, or it can be caused by epididymitis or scrotum problems. The testicles are among the most delicate components of a man's anatomy. Because the entire area is densely packed with nerves. Testicle discomfort can range from a sharp ache to a mild ache. It may be an emergency because something is obstructing blood supply to your testicles. A lengthy bike ride or groyne injuries are common causes of testicle discomfort, but other reasons of testicular pain may be more difficult to identify. Pain may occur from the epididymitis, which is the curving tube that rests on each testicle for store sperm.
It might also come from the scrotum, the sac that houses the testicles. In certain situations, pain may begin in other areas of the body, such as the kidney or colon. Testicular discomfort can be caused by poor posture or strenuous physical activity. Biking, for example, can cause testicular pain due to contact between the bike seat and the testicles. This allows you to flip sides with varied postures. More hazardous kinds of testicular injury, in general, are one-sided and produce discomfort on only one side of the testicles.
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the nurse is told that a child with rheumatic fever (rf) will be arriving to the nursing unit for admission. which question would the nurse ask the family to elicit information specific to the development of rf?
A youngster with rheumatic fever (RF) will be admitted to the nursing unit, the nurse is informed. "Did the youngster have a sore throat or a fever during the last two months," the nurse should query the family.
An inflammatory condition known as rheumatic fever (RF) can affect the heart, joints, skin, and brain. Usually, the illness appears two to four weeks following a streptococcal throat infection. Fever, many aching joints, uncontrollable muscular movements, and erythema marginatum, a distinctive non-itchy rash, are some of the warning signs and symptoms. About half of the cases affect the heart. Rheumatic heart disease (RHD), which affects the heart valves, often develops following a series of episodes but can occasionally start with just one. Heart failure, atrial fibrillation, and valve infection might all be caused by the damaged valves.
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the nurse is caring for a patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (gerd) who presents with retrosternal burning. which term would the nurse use to document this symptom?
The patient being attended for by the nurse has retrosternal burning and has gastro - oesophageal reflux disease (GERD). The term "pyrosis" is just what nurses use to describe these symptoms.
What are pyrosis and acid reflux?Heartburn is a burning feeling in the center of the abdomen or upper middle of the belly. It is also alluded to as pyrosis, cardialgia, or acid digestion. The most major reason of heartburn is stomach acid reflux into the oesophagus. The main sign of gastroesophageal reflux is it.
Why does pyrosis take place?The exact etiology of psoriasis is unclear. It is believed to be an immunologic issue wherein disease cells unintentionally kill healthy skin cells. Either genetics and external factors are thought to be involved. The sickness is not spread by others.
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a patient with acute myeloid leukemia (aml) has a neutrophil count that persists at less than 100/mm3. what should the nurse cautiously monitor this patient for?
Nurse should be cautiously monitor this patient for infection.
How do you explain AML?A kind of cancer known as acute myeloid leukaemia begins in the bone marrow's blood-forming cells.Myeloid cells in acute myelogenous leukaemia (AML) prevent the body from producing healthy white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets.Fatigue, recurring infections, and easily bruising are symptoms.Chemotherapy, various types of medication therapy, and stem cell transplants are all forms of treatment.Cigarette smoke, which includes benzene and other substances known to cause cancer, is associated with AML. other blood conditions. AML is more likely to develop in people who have previously experienced a blood condition such myelodysplasia, myelofibrosis, polycythemia vera, or thrombocythemia.It is estimated that more than 25% of individuals with AML will survive for three or more years and may have a cure (about 45% of those who achieve CR).Learn more about AML refer to :
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Ultraviolet rays react with _____ in the skin to begin the process of forming vitamin D.
calcitriol
7-dehydrocholesterol
calcidiol
cholecalciferol
The process of making vitamin D in the skin begins when ultraviolet rays interact with 7-dehydrocholesterol.
Vitamin D production is initiated by what?Originated from the interaction of skin-resident cholesterol and UV radiation. Up to 100% of the vitamin D the body requires can be produced by photosynthesis when exposed to sunlight.An early form of vitamin D is created when skin is exposed to UV light. This precursor travels to the liver and kidneys where it undergoes modification to become active Vitamin D.The process of making vitamin D in the skin begins when ultraviolet rays interact with 7-dehydrocholesterol.Originated from the interaction of skin-resident cholesterol and UV radiation. Up to 100% of the vitamin D the body requires can be produced by photosynthesis when exposed to sunlight.To learn more about ultraviolet rays refer to:
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Which of the following immunization strategies is preferred for adults under the age of 65 years with immunocompromising conditions who require both PCV13 and PPSV23
All adults 65 and older need two pneumococcal shots: the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV13) and the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV23).
who require both PCV13 and PPSV23?
ACIP recommends that both PCV13 and PPSV23 be given in series to adults aged ≥65 years. A dose of PCV13 should be given first followed by a dose of PPSV23 at least 1 year later to immunocompetent adults aged ≥65 years. The two vaccines should not be co-administered.All children younger than 5 years old and children 5 through 18 years old with certain medical conditions that increase their risk of pneumococcal disease should receive PCV13 or PCV15. Children 2 through 18 years old with certain medical conditions should also receive PPSV23.Give 1 dose of PCV13 or PCV15 if they received 3 doses of a pneumococcal conjugate vaccine before 12 months but have not received their fourth booster dose. Give 1 dose of PPSV23 at least 8 weeks after the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine series is complete.To learn more about immunization refers to:
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a patient has native valve endocarditis (nve). while blood cultures are pending, which antibiotics will be ordered as empirical treatment?
The antibiotics typically ordered for empirical treatment of native valve endocarditis (NVE) while blood cultures are pending include: ampicillin, ceftriaxone, vancomycin, and gentamicin.
what is native valve endocarditis?Native valve endocarditis is an infection of the endocardium, which is the inner lining of the heart. It is caused by bacteria entering the bloodstream and attaching to the heart valves.
Symptoms of native valve endocarditis can include fever, fatigue, heart murmurs, chest pain, and shortness of breath. Treatment typically includes antibiotics and, in some cases, surgery.
If left untreated, it can cause serious complications, such as heart failure, stroke, and death. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment are essential for a good outcome. Patients should also be monitored for any signs or symptoms of infection, as well as for any changes in their heart rate or rhythm.
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during the first stage of labor what is the process in which the wall of the cervix becomes thinner
In the first stage of labor, the cervix is usually 3.5-4 centimeters in size then it will soften, shorten and thin out. You may experience irregular and somewhat painful contractions. This is called effacement of the cervix.
Labor is the process of opening and thinning the cervix and the fetus descending into the birth canal. Birth is a process in which the fetus and amniotic fluid are pushed out through the birth canal.
At the time of delivery, the cervix is thinned by 50-60% and dilated to 1 cm. With the start of labor, the mother usually experiences 50-100% cervical thinning, then dilation begins. The cervix must be dilated to 100 percent or completely thinned before vaginal delivery.
This thinning stage is the longest, usually lasting around 2-24 hours. Many women spend the early part of this first stage at home.
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a client is admitted to the hospital after sustaining a closed head injury in a skiing accident. the physician ordered neurologic assessments to be performed every 2 hours. the client's neurologic assessments have been unchanged since admission, and the client is complaining of a headache. which intervention by the nurse is best?
Harm to the head It should be glucose-tested by the nurse. To improve drainage and lower intracranial pressure, the bed head should be raised 15 to 30 degrees.
Which kind of brain injury is distinguished by a loss of consciousness along with stupor and confusion?When a person suffers a moderate traumatic brain injury, they may experience a loss of consciousness that lasts more than 30 minutes but less than a day. One week is the maximum duration of confusion. People who suffer from severe TBI are unconscious for longer than a day.Harm to the head It should be glucose-tested by the nurse. To improve drainage and lower intracranial pressure, the bed head should be raised 15 to 30 degrees.When a person suffers a moderate traumatic brain injury, they may experience a loss of consciousness that lasts more than 30 minutes but less than a day. One week is the maximum duration of confusion.To learn more about traumatic brain injury refer to:
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the nurse is assessing a client who believes she is pregnant. the nurse points out a more definitive assessment is necessary due to which sign being considered a probable sign of pregnancy?
A missed menstrual period is considered a probable sign of pregnancy.
What were the first signs or symptoms of pregnancy? The first signs of pregnancy vary from woman to woman, but some of the most common early signs of pregnancy include missed periods, nausea and/or vomiting, breast tenderness, increased urination, fatigue, and food cravings or aversions. Other signs of pregnancy can include sensitivity to smells, lightheadedness, dizziness, and constipation. Additionally, some women may experience implantation bleeding, which is light spotting or bleeding that occurs when the fertilized egg implants itself into the uterus. If you think you may be pregnant, it is important to take a pregnancy test and visit a doctor or healthcare provider for confirmation. A doctor or healthcare provider can provide advice and support throughout the pregnancy, as well as answer any questions you may have.To learn more about sign of pregnancy refer to:
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A missed period is regarded as a likely indicator of pregnancy. Other pregnant symptoms can include an enhanced sense of smell, fainting, dizziness, and constipation.
What were pregnancy's initial obvious signs or symptoms?The first signs of pregnancy vary from woman to woman, but some of the most common early signs of pregnancy include missed periods, nausea and/or vomiting, breast tenderness, increased urination, fatigue, and food cravings or aversions.In addition, implantation bleeding, which manifests as minor spotting or bleeding when the fertilised egg instals itself in the uterus, may be experienced by some women.If you think you may be pregnant, it is important to take a pregnancy test and visit a doctor or healthcare provider for confirmation.Through out pregnancy, a doctor or other healthcare professional can offer guidance and support as well as respond to any queries you might have.To know more about pregnancy, visit:
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the nurse observes that blood pressure readings taken by a new unlicensed assistive personnel (uap) are very different from what other nurses obtain. what does the nurse understand is occurring with these readings?
These readings basically indicates a lack of reliability in the readings of the UAP. The correct option is B.
What is UAP?Unlicensed assistive personnel are paraprofessionals who help people with daily living activities who have physical disabilities, mental impairments, or other health care needs.
UAP give direct care to patients for feeding, ambulation, toileting, personal hygiene, vital signs, and blood sugar and cognition monitoring. UAP helps individuals with cognitive impairment reorient and redirect.
The nurse notices that the blood pressure readings obtained by a new unlicensed assistance personnel (UAP) deviate significantly from those obtained by other nurses. These readings essentially show that the UAP readings are not reliable.
Thus, the correct option is B.
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Your question seems incomplete, the missing options are:
The blood pressure machine is not sensitive.
A lack of reliability in the readings of the UAP.
The validity of the blood pressure calibration is inconsistent.
The blood pressure readings from the UAP are not specific.
the nurse determines that an adolescent client with diabetes mellitus needs further teaching about a1c levels and their purpose if the client made which statement when told that a level will be drawn?
The symptoms of muscle wasting in individuals with starving ketoacidosis include low muscle mass, little body fat, evident bony prominences, temporal wasting, tooth decay, sparse, thin, dry hair, and low blood pressure, pulse, and temperature.
Which symptom would the nurse include when explaining ketoacidosis to a client? The symptoms of muscle wasting in individuals with starving ketoacidosis include low muscle mass, little body fat, evident bony prominences, temporal wasting, tooth decay, sparse, thin, dry hair, and low blood pressure, pulse, and temperature.Customers should be told to limit their alcohol intake to one drink or less per day for women and two drinks per day for men.Despite the fact that moderate alcohol consumption does not appear to raise acute plasma glucose levels, type 1 diabetics in particular are at an increased risk for nocturnal and fasting hypoglycemia.Anesthesia and surgical stress, sudden insulin cessation or insufficient perioperative care, postoperative infection, protracted poor oral intake, and severe dehydration can all be triggering factors for postoperative DKA.To learn more about ketoacidosis refer
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a client with a history of diabetes insipidus seeks medical attention for an exacerbation of symptoms. which laboratory finding indicates to the nurse that the client has been restricting fluids in an attempt to control the symptoms?
A sodium level of 150 mEq/L is the laboratory finding that may show the nurse that the patient has been limiting fluids to try to control the symptoms.
Diabetes insipidus, or DI, is a rare illness caused by damage to the hypothalamus or pituitary gland, resulting in a deficit of ADH (vasopressin) and excessive thirst. Without the action of ADH on the distal nephron of the kidney, there is a large daily production (more than 250 mL per hour) of very dilute urine with a specific gravity between 1.001 and 1.005. There are no aberrant chemicals, such as glucose or albumin, in the urine. Due to his or her excessive thirst, the client often consumes between 2 and 20 liters of fluids per day and has a craving for cold water.
The start of DI in adults may be subtle or sudden. The condition cannot be managed by restricting fluid consumption, as high-volume urine loss persists even when fluid replacement is not administered. The client will develop an insatiable need for fluids, hypernatremia, and severe dehydration if fluid restriction is attempted.
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an aide asks the nurse why some people who carry the genetic mutation for retinoblastoma do not have the disease even though their parents and children have it. which genetic principle should the nurse explain to the aide?
When a nurse is asked why some persons with the retinoblastoma genetic mutation do not develop the disease despite having affected parents and children, an assistant suggests that the nurse explain the genetic principle of penetrance to the aide.
Do retinoblastomas result from genetic mutations?An alteration in the children's DNA causes retinoblastoma to develop. The retinoblastoma gene is known by the designation RB1. Eye cells multiply out of control as a result of the mutation, turning into a tumor.
In almost 40% of cases, a kid inherits an RB1 mutation from a parent (heritable retinoblastoma). Children with hereditary retinoblastoma are more prone to: Get other types of cancer (such as more retinoblastoma tumors, pineal gland tumors, skin, bone and muscle tumors) after radiation exposure, you develop more cancers. some of her future descendants were exposed to the illness.
Some people's retinal cells can grow out of control as a result of particular DNA mutations. DNA, a substance present in all of our cells, makes up our genes, which control how our cells function.
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the unit leaders are trying to figure out what changes they should make to prevent this treatment delay from happening again. given what you know about the incident, what change would you
The change would is Implement the use of critical language in the ICU.
What is critical language healthcare?The term "critical language," which is used in the healthcare industry and other high dependability organisations, refers to a standard communication where precise terms with a clear, mutually understood meaning are utilised to eliminate ambiguity and enhance team situational awareness. Patient safety is of utmost importance in the medical field. Beyond physical harm, linguistic errors with patients may cause therapeutic delays, patient misunderstanding or alienation, lengthier hospital stays or readmission, and occasionally lawsuits.The rules that govern how words can be used in a language to create sentences are known as syntax. Semantics is the study of the significance of words and word groups in a language. Pragmatics are the laws that govern how language should be used in conversations and other social contexts.To learn more about critical language healthcare refer to:
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the mechanically ventilated patient has increased respiratory rate ranging from 12-24 and oxygen saturation decreased to 90% despite oxygen increase to 100%. the patient assessment reveals basilar crackles that were not previously present, high peak airway pressures, and use of accessory muscles. arterial blood gas reveals ph 7.50, pco2 32, and po2 49. chest x-ray results are significant for diffuse ground glass opacities. the patient is likely experiencing:
Mechanically ventilated patient probably suffers from acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS); a life-threatening condition in which lungs cannot supply enough oxygen to body's vital organs.
What are phases of ARDS?ARDS patients tend to progress through three relatively distinct pathological stages: They are exudative, proliferative, and fibrotic.
What are the main causes of ARDS?ARDS occurs when the lungs become severely inflamed due to infection or injury. Inflammation causes fluid to leak from nearby blood vessels into the small air sacs of the lungs, making breathing more difficult. The lungs may become inflamed after: Pneumonia or severe influenza.
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a client who is receiving a blood transfusion begins to have difficulty breathing. the nurse notes an elevated blood pressure and a cough. based on these signs, the nurse should prepare to manage which complication?
Overstimulation of the circulatory system. One of the most common consequences of a blood transfusion is fluid overload, and the nurse should notify the health care provider.
blood transfusion to get orders to provide lasix, oxygen, and/or morphine, slow the transfusion, and lessen the fluid excess. The patient does not show indications of sepsis, such as chills, fever, nausea, or vomiting; anaphylaxis, such as anxiety, rash, hives, or wheezing; or an acute hemolytic response, such as chills, fever, flushing, tachycardia, flank pain, or black urine. Overstimulation of the circulatory system. One of the most common consequences of a blood transfusion is fluid overload, and the nurse should notify the health care provider. Overstimulation of the circulatory system.
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when a client who has had a thoracotomy develops respiratory acidosis, which action would the nurse take?
If a client with thoracotomy develops respiratory acidosis, the nurse should administer oral fluids and encourage deep breathing.
How is pulmonary (respiratory) acidosis identified?You might undergo testing such as: Vascular blood gas (measures oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the blood). CT scan of chest. A pulmonary function test is used to measure both breathing capacity and lung health. Basic metabolic panel. Chest x-ray. Echocardiogram ( ultrasound of heart)
What primarily contributes to respiratory acidosis?The main causes of respiratory acidosis are inadequate ventilation and carbon dioxide buildup increasing arterial carbon dioxide partial pressure (pCO2) and a decrease in arterial bicarbonate to arterial pCO2 ratio, resulting decline in blood pH. When your lungs can't expel all of the carbon dioxide your body produces, you get respiratory acidosis. Blood and other bodily fluids become overly acidic as a result.
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which rationale is behind prescribing digoxin and diuretics to a patient with pulmonary arterial hypertension?
The rationale behind prescribing digoxin and diuretics to a patient with PAH is to help improve the patient's heart function and reduce fluid buildup in the body, respectively.
Digoxin is a medication that is used to treat heart failure and certain types of irregular heartbeats. It works by increasing the strength of the heart muscle's contractions, which helps to pump blood more efficiently. In patients with PAH, digoxin may be prescribed to help reduce the workload on the right side of the heart and improve its function.
Diuretics, also known as water pills, are medications that help the body get rid of excess fluid. They work by increasing the amount of urine produced by the kidneys, which helps to reduce the volume of fluid in the body. In patients with PAH, diuretics may be prescribed to help reduce fluid buildup in the lungs, which can make it harder for the patient to breathe.
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when a nursing assistant assists a patient or resident with toileting, which one of maslow's needs does the nursing assistant help the person to meet? a self actualization need b self esteem need c love and belonging need d physiologic need
The Maslow's needs which the nursing assistant helps the person meet is physiological need, which means option D is the correct answer.
Maslow's hierarchy model has four stages which are namely self actualization, self esteem, love and belongingness and physiological needs. In the self actualization stage, the person is full of wisdom and content with the life's desires and has full potential for new creative processes. In physiological need, the person is in the stage of achieving basic needs of life such as housing, clothes, food and rest. The help which nurse provides in toileting is a physiological activity and so fulfills the first basic need of the person according to Maslow.
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a client has been receiving 100% oxygen therapy by way of a nonrebreather mask for several days. now the client complains of tingling in the fingers and shortness of breath, is extremely restless, and describes a pain beneath the breastbone. what should the nurse suspect?
For a client with an endotracheal (ET) tube, which nursing action is the most important? For the client with an ET tube, the most important nursing action is auscultating the lungs regularly for bilateral breath sounds.
What is oxygen therapy?
Oxygen therapy helps people with lung diseases or breathing problems get the oxygen their bodies need to function. This oxygen is supplemental (additional) to what you breathe in from the air. You may also hear the term supplemental oxygen.People will breathe in pure oxygen in a pressurized room or chamber. In the hyperbaric chambers, the air pressure is increased to three or four times the normal air pressure levels. This increases the amount of oxygen delivered to the body's tissue.Oxygen therapy is generally safe, but it can cause side effects. They include a dry or bloody nose, tiredness, and morning headaches. Oxygen poses a fire risk, so you should never smoke or use flammable materials when using oxygen.To learn more about oxygen refers to:
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which action would be the best for the nurse at the beginning of the nurse client encounter for a client visiting a walk in clinic for complaints of a fever?
A fever the nurse evaluates the patient during the evaluation phase by gathering factual and fictitious information using tried-and-true techniques.
In the assessment stage of the nursing process, which action would the nurse take?The nurse evaluates the patient during the evaluation phase by gathering factual and fictitious information using tried-and-true techniques. The patient interview, physical examination, and observation are the three most popular ways to gather data.Wash hands, The nurse must gather and verify all necessary equipment before doing a physical examination on a patient. She also needs to decide how to protect the patient's privacy throughout the examination and wash her hands before starting.The nurse evaluates the patient during the evaluation phase by gathering factual and fictitious information using tried-and-true techniques.To learn more about fever refer to:
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etiology of dry socket is controversial, though it often occurs when a blood clot does not form or is lost prematurely and pain is due to inflammation of the exposed bone. Most often, dry socket presents as an empty alveolus in which exposed bone may be visible. The surgical site may be red and swollen, with a foul
With a bad odor in the dry socket, the surgical site may be red and swollen.
A painful dental ailment known as dry socket (also known as alveolar osteitis) can occasionally develop after you have an adult permanent tooth pulled. A dry socket occurs when the blood clot that forms at the site of the tooth extraction dissolves or dislodges before the wound has had time to heal. Normally, a blood clot develops where a tooth is removed. The underlying bone and nerve endings in the vacant tooth socket are shielded from damage by this blood clot. Additionally, the clot serves as the support structure for the creation of new bone and soft tissue over the clot.
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a client receives a prescription for a dose of medication 300 mg iv every 6 hours. the preparation arrives from the pharmacy diluted in a secondary infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride (nacl) 50 ml. the nurse plans to administer the dose over 20 minutes. how many ml/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump to deliver the secondary infusion? (enter the numeric value only, rounded to a whole number.)
The nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver 18.75 ml/hour to administer 300 mg of medication over 20 minutes with 50 ml of 0.9% sodium chloride.
What is prescription?A client has been prescribed 300 mg of medication to be administered intravenously every 6 hours. The medication has been prepared by the pharmacy and is arriving in a secondary infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride (NaCl) in a volume of 50 ml. The nurse plans to administer the full dose of medication over a period of 20 minutes. In order to administer the medication at the appropriate rate, the nurse must program the infusion pump to deliver a specific amount of the secondary infusion per hour. In this case, in order to deliver the full 300 mg dose of medication over 20 minutes, the nurse must program the infusion pump to deliver 18.75 ml/hour of the 0.9% Na Cl solution. This will ensure that the medication is delivered at the correct rate to achieve the desired therapeutic effect.To learn more about prescription refer:
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while in the hospital, an external, single read, ekg was performed on the patient. the root operation term used for this icd-10-pcs code is:
The root operation term used for ICS-10-PCS code is measurement determining the level of a physiological or physical function at a point in time, which means option D is correct.
EKG or ECG is used to refer to electrocardiogram, which is a graphical representation of the signals obtained from the heart. ICD stands for International Classification of Diseases. The ICD-10-PCS groups are namely Excision, Resection, Detachment, Destruction and Extraction. ICD 10 PCS is a medical coding structure in which the complete report, morbidity, expandability and approach are analyzed.
It is made up of seven features or codes which begins with section, body system, root operation, part of the body, approach, device and a qualifier.
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Refer to complete question below:
While in the hospital, an external, single read, EKG was performed on the patient. The root operation term used for this ICD-10-PCS code is:
Monitoring: determining the level of a physiological or physical function repetitively over a period of timePerformance: completely taking over a physiological function by extracorporeal meansAssistance: taking over a portion of a physiological function by extracorporeal meansMeasurement: determining the level of a physiological or physical function at a point in timeBryce is dangerously allergic to shrimp, which he accidentally consumes in a baked dish. Which of the following would NOT be an expected way for Bryce's body to react to the allergen
It would be unexpected for Bryce's body should respond to the allergen by raising blood pressure.
How does blood pressure work?A condition in which the artery walls are being pushed by high blood pressure.High blood pressure is commonly defined as a reading above 140/90, while severe hypertension is defined as a reading over 180/120.High blood pressure frequently has no symptoms. If left untreated, it may eventually result in health issues including heart disease and stroke.It is possible to reduce blood pressure by eating less salt, exercising frequently, and using medication. Over time, sustained diastolic hypotension can lead to heart failure. In fact, it's one of the most frequent reasons for heart failure. Consider paying special attention your your diastolic reading while having your heart rate tested. If the lower figure is 60 or less, talk to a doctor.To learn more about blood pressure refer to:
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which sign or symptom is commonly associated with a diagnosis of bulimia nervosa select all that apply
Consumption of exceptionally large amounts of food at a single sitting on a regular basis.
Which sign or symptom is commonly associated with a diagnosis of bulimia nervosa?Recurring instances of consuming unusually huge amounts of food in a single sitting. feeling out of control while bingeing, such as being unable to stop eating or control what you consume. forcing yourself to vomit or overexerting yourself to prevent weight gain after binging.
usually have a weight that is normal or over average.recurring binge eating bouts and concern about not being able to stop eating.self-induced nausea (usually secretive)exercise in excess.a lot of fasting.peculiar dietary routines or practices.Bulimia nervosa is very closely associated with depression, anxiety, and borderline personality disorder. Bulimia nervosa must be treated in conjunction with these underlying psychological conditions.
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on average, what proportion of a teen's daily energy intake is supplied by eating snacks between meals?
National survey data indicate that the foods and beverages consumed at snack occasions contribute ∼25% of total daily energy intake for boys and girls ages 12–19 y and that ∼3 of 4 adolescents consume ≥2 snacks on a given day (4).
What is National survey?The NSCH is a household survey that produces national and state-level data on the physical and emotional health of children 0 - 17 years old in the United States. The survey collects information related to the health and well-being of children, including access to and use of health care, family interactions, parental health, school and after-school experiences, and neighborhood characteristics.National Survey is an intensive state-wide programme with the aim to locate every manuscript in the country. All institutions, new and old, private collections of manuscripts, in every district, town and village are brought under the purview of the National Survey.To learn more about national survey refer to:
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On average, the proportion of a teen's daily energy intake supplied by eating snacks between meals is 1/4.
What is the proportion of energy intake supplied by eating snacks between meals?National survey data indicate that foods and beverages consumed at snack contribute ∼25% of daily energy intake for boys and girls (12–19 year) and that ∼3 of 4 adolescents consume ≥2 snacks on a given day (4).
What is National survey?The NSCH is a household survey that produces national and state-level data on the physical and emotional health of children 0 - 17 years old in the United States. The survey collects information related to the health and well-being of children, including access to and use of health care, family interactions, parental health, school and after-school experiences, and neighborhood characteristics.National Survey is an intensive state-wide program with the aim to locate every manuscript in the country. All institutions, new and old, private collections of manuscripts, in every district, town and village are brought under the purview of the National Survey.To learn more about national survey refer to:
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the mother of a toddler with mumps asks the nurse what she needs to watch for in her child with this disease. the nurse bases the response on the understanding that mumps is which type of communicable disease?
The mother of a toddler with mumps asks the nurse what she needs to watch for in her child with this disease. the nurse bases the response on the understanding that mumps is respiratory disease caused by a virus involving the parotid gland.
Mumps is due to a paramyxovirus that causes swelling from the parotid gland, causing jaw and ear pain. it is transmitted thru direct touch or droplets spread from an inflamed individual, salive from infected saliva, and likely with the aid of touch with urine. Airborne and phone precautions are indicated at some point of the duration of communication.
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