An airplane flies 2500 miles east in 245 seconds what is the velocity of the plane?

Answer:

The average  emf induce is   [tex]V = 2.625 * 10^{-5} \ V[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

  The radius of the coil is  [tex]r = 0.30 \ m[/tex]

   The number of turns is  [tex]N = 420 \ turns[/tex]

    The frequency of the transition radio wave is  [tex]f = 1.3\ MHz = 1.3 *10^{6} Hz[/tex]

     The magnetic field is  [tex]B_,{max} = 1.7 * 10^{-13} \ T[/tex]

     The time taken for the magnetic field to go from zero to maximum is [tex]\Delta T = \frac{T}{4}[/tex]

The period of the transmitted radio wave is  [tex]T = \frac{1}{f}[/tex]

    So  

              [tex]\Delta T = \frac{T}{4} = \frac{1}{4 f}[/tex]

 The potential difference can be mathematically represented as

               [tex]V = NA (\frac{\Delta B}{\Delta T} )[/tex]

           [tex]V = NA ([B_{max} - B_{min} ] * 4f)[/tex]

Where  [tex]B_{min} = 0T[/tex]

substituting values

                   [tex]V = 420 * (\pi *(0.30)^2) * (1.7 *10^{-13} * 4 * 1.3 *10^{6})[/tex]

                  [tex]V = 2.625 * 10^{-5} \ V[/tex]

Answer:

55.3

Explanation:

The computation of the number of bright-dark-bright fringe shifts observed is shown below:

[tex]\triangle m = \frac{2d}{\lambda} (n - 1)[/tex]

where

d = [tex]3.95 \times 10^{-2}m[/tex]

[tex]\lambda = 400 \times 10^{-9}m[/tex]

n = 1.00028

Now placing these values to the above formula

So, the  number of bright-dark-bright fringe shifts observed is

[tex]= \frac{2 \times3.95 \times 10^{-2}m}{400 \times 10^{-9}m} (1.00028 - 1)[/tex]

= 55.3

We simply applied the above formula so that the number of bright dark bright fringe shifts could come

Answer:

Explanation:

total weight acting downwards

= 3g + 10g

13 g

volume of lead = 10 / 11.3 = .885 cm³

Let the volume of bobber submerged in water be v in floating position . buoyant force on bobber  = v x 1 x g

Buoyant force on lead =  .885 x 1 x g

total buoyant force = vg + .885 g

For floating

vg + .885 g  = 13 g

v = 12.115 cm³

total volume of bobber

= 4/3 x 3.14 x 2³

= 33.5 cm³

fraction of volume submerged

= 12.115  / 33.5

= .36  

= 36 %

The fraction of the bobber's volume submerged as a percent of the total volume is 36.2 %.

The given parameters;

The volume of the bobber is calculated as follows;

[tex]V = \frac{4}{3} \pi \times r^3\\\\V = \frac{4}{3} \pi \times (2)^3\\\\V = 33.52 \ cm^3[/tex]

The buoyant force experienced by the bobber due to the volume submerged is calculated as follows;

[tex]F _b= \rho Vg\\\\F_b = 1 \times V \times g\\\\F_b = Vg[/tex]

The volume of the lead is calculated as follows;

[tex]V = \frac{mass}{density} \\\\V = \frac{10}{11.3} \\\\V = 0.885 \ cm^3[/tex]

The buoyant force experienced by the lead due to the volume submerged is calculated as follows

[tex]F_b = \rho Vg\\\\F_b = 0.885 g[/tex]

The total buoyant force is calculated as;

[tex]Vg + 0.885g = (3+ 10)g\\\\g(V + 0.885) = 13g\\\\V+ 0.885 = 13\\\\V = 13 -0.885\\\\V = 12.12 \ cm^3[/tex]

The fraction of the bobber's volume submerged as a percent of the total volume is calculated as follows;

[tex]= \frac{12.12}{33.52} \times 100\%\\\\= 36.2 \ \%[/tex]

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Answer:

d. 1.00 m

Explanation:

In 1905, Einstein proposed special theory of relativity of light.

This theory had a number of consequences or results. One of them is called "Length Contraction".

According to this consequence, whenever an object travels at a speed comparable to the speed of light, its length decreases.

But this decrease in length is only seen in the dimension, which is parallel to the direction of motion of the body. All other dimensions of the object remains same.

In the given situation, the length of meter stick is not parallel to the direction of motion, but it is perpendicular. Hence, the length of meter stick will be same as the length of meter stick at rest. Hence, the correct option will be:

d. 1.00 m

Answer:

a) 0.147 N

b) 9.408 N

c) 9.261 N

Explanation:

The tension on the cord is the only force keeping the block in circular motion, thus representing the entirety of its centripetal force [tex]\frac{mv^{2} }{r}[/tex]. Plugging in values for initial and final states and we get answers for a and b. The work done by the person causes the centripetal force to increase, and thus is the difference between the final tension and the initial tension.

Answer:

The nature of the wave formed is a transverse  progressive wave.

Explanation:

A wave is a disturbance that travels through a material medium without permanent displacement of the particles of the medium. The two major types are: transverse and longitudinal.

A transverse wave is one in which the direction of vibration of the particles of the medium is perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave. Examples are: water wave, light wave etc. While a longitudinal wave is one in which the direction of vibrations of the particles of the medium is parallel with the direction of propagation of the wave, creating a region of rarefaction and compression. Examples are; sound wave, wave in a rope, wave in a slinky etc.

The cited wave formed in the given question is a transverse wave because each person stands and sits after some time to create a moving (progressive) wave without them moving from their positions.

Answer:

for an object to be in equilibrium, it must be experiencing no acceleration. Both the net force and the net torque must be zero.

Hope I helped

Answer:

An object in static equilibrium has zero net force acting upon it.

The First Condition of Equilibrium is that the vector sum of all the forces acting on a body vanishes. This can be written as

 F = F1+ F2+ F3+ F4+. . . = 0

Answer:

r = 20 m

Explanation:

The formula for the angular momentum of a rotating body is given as:

L = mvr

where,

L = Angular Momentum = 10000 kgm²/s

m = mass

v = speed = 2 m/s

r = radius of merry-go-round

Therefore,

10000 kg.m²/s = mr(2 m/s)

m r = (10000 kg.m²/s)/(2 m/s)

m r = 5000 kg.m   ------------- equation 1

Now, the moment of inertia of a solid uniform disc about its axis through its center is given as:

I = (1/2) m r²

where,

I = moment of inertia = 50000 kg.m²

Therefore,

50000 kg.m² = (1/2)(m r)(r)

using equation 1, we get:

50000 kg.m² = (1/2)(5000 kg.m)(r)

(50000 kg.m²)/(2500 kg.m) = r

r = 20 m

Answer:

(a) [tex]emf_L=-LI_{max}\omega cos(\omega t)[/tex]

(b) neither increasing or decreasing

(c) opposite to the flow of charge carriers

Explanation:

The current through an inductor of inductance L is given by:

[tex]I(t)=I_{max}sin(\omega t)[/tex]   (1)

(a) The induced emf is given by the following formula

[tex]emf_L=-L\frac{dI}{dt}[/tex]    (2)

You derivative the expression (1) in the expression (2):

[tex]emf_L=-L\frac{d}{dt}(I_{max}sin(\omega t))\\\\emf_L=-LI_{max}\omega cos(\omega t)[/tex]

(b) At t=0 the current is zero

(c) At t = 0 the emf is:

[tex]emf_L=-\omega LI_{max}[/tex]

w, L and Imax have positive values, then the emf is negative. Hence, the induced emf is opposite to the flow of the charge carriers.

(d) read the text carefully

At t zero,  the current through the inductor neither increasing nor decreasing because current is zero.

The current through an inductor of inductance L can be calculated by

[tex]\bold {I_t = I_m_a_x sin (\omega t)}[/tex].........1  

(a) The induced emf can be calculated by  

[tex]\bold {emf_L = - L \dfrac {dI}{dt}}[/tex]............2  

Derivative the equation (1) in the equation (2)

[tex]\bold {emf _L= -L \dfrac {d (I _m_a_x sin (\omega t)} {dt}}\\\\\bold {emf _L= -L (I _m_a_x \omega cos( \omega t) }[/tex]

(b) At t=0 the current is zero,

(c) At t = 0 the emf is:

[tex]\bold {emf_L = -\omega LI _m_a_x}[/tex]  

Therefore, at t zero,  the current through the inductor neither increasing nor decreasing because current is zero.

To know more about inductance,

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Answer:

Explanation:

The velocity at the inlet and exit of the control volume are same [tex]V_i=V_e=V[/tex]

Calculate the inlet and exit velocity of water jet

[tex]V=V_j+V_e\\\\V=30+14\\\\V=44m/s[/tex]

The conservation of mass equation of steady flow

[tex]\sum ^e_i\bar V. \bar A=0\\\\(-V_iA_i+V_eA_e)=0[/tex]

[tex]A_i\ \texttt {is the inlet area of the jet}[/tex]

[tex]A_e\ \texttt {is the exit area of the jet}[/tex]

since inlet and exit velocity of water jet are equal so the inlet and exit cross section area of the jet is equal

The expression for thickness of the jet

[tex]A_i=A_e\\\\\frac{\pi}{4} D_j^2=2\pi Rt\\\\t=\frac{D^2_j}{8R}[/tex]

R is the radius

t is the thickness of the jet

D_j is the diameter of the inlet jet

[tex]t=\frac{(100\times10^{-3})^2}{8(230\times10^{-3}} \\\\=5.434mm[/tex]

(b)

[tex]R-x=\rho(AV_r)[-(V_i)+(V_c)\cos 60^o]\\\\=\rho(V_j+V_c)A[-(V_i+V_c)+(V_i+V_c)\cos 60^o]\\\\=\rho(V_j+V_c)(\frac{\pi}{4}D_j^2 )[V_i+V_c](\cos60^o-1)][/tex]

[tex]1000kg/m^3=\rho\\\\44m/s=(V_j+V+c)\\\\100\times10^{-3}m=D_j[/tex]

[tex]R_x=[1000\times(44)\frac{\pi}{4} (10\times10^{-3})^2[(44)(\cos60^o-1)]]\\\\=-7603N[/tex]

The negative sign indicate that the direction of the force will be in opposite direction of our assumption

Therefore, the horizontal force is -7603N

Answer:

Air masses move with the global pattern of winds. In most of the United States, air masses generally move from west to east. They may move along with the jet stream in more complex and changing patterns. 

Answer:

The distance is  [tex]S = 39.2 \ m[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The distance covered after t = 1 s is  [tex]d = 4.9 \ m[/tex]

According to the equation of motion

      [tex]v^2 = u^2 + 2ad[/tex]

 Now  u  =  0 m/s  since before the drop the ball was at rest

     [tex]v^2 = 2ad[/tex]

here  [tex]a =g = 9.8 \ m/s^2[/tex]

    So

       [tex]v = 9.8 m/s[/tex]

Also from equation of motion we have that

     [tex]S = ut + \frac{1}{2} at^2[/tex]

Now at  t = 2 s , as given from the question

  Then  u =  v = 9.8 m/s

And

     [tex]S = 9.8 * 2 + \frac{1}{2} * (9.8) * (2^2)[/tex]

     [tex]S = 9.8 * 2 + \frac{1}{2} * (9.8) * (2^2)[/tex]

    [tex]S = 39.2 \ m[/tex]

Answer:

(A) 3. Dipoles in the plastic will polarize and orient themselves radially, with their negativeends pointing toward the center

(B) 2. There will be no polarization inside the glass sphere since the net electric field there is zero.

Explanation: charges are only distributed on the surface of the charged hollow conductor. The core must have zero charge.

(C) 2. Larger, because the positive charges displaced during polarization are closer to P than thenegative charges.

ANSWER: num 1 is black hole

Answer:

Explanation:

Using the law of conservation of momentum which states that 'the sum of momentum of bodies before collision is equal to their sum after collision. The bodies will move together with a common velocity after collision.

Momentum = Mass * Velocity

Before collision;

Momentum of receiver m1u1= 0 kgm/s (since the receiver is standing still)

Momentum of the tackler

m2u2 = 2.60*122 = 317.2 kgm/s

where m2 and u2 are the mass and velocity of the tacker respectively.

Sum of momentum before collision = 0+317.2 = 317.2 kgm/s

After collision

Momentum of the bodies = (m1+m2)v

v = their common velocity

m1 = mass of the receiver

Momentum of the bodies = (122+m1)(1.30)

Momentum of the bodies = 158.6+1.30m1

According to the law above;

317.2 = 158.6+1.30m1

317.2-158.6 = 1.30m1

158.6 = 1.30m1

m1 = 158.6/1.30

m1 = 122kg

The mas of the receiver is 122kg

Answer:

D. Presynaptic terminal button

explanation:

Terminal Buttons are small knobs at the end of an axon that release chemicals called neurotransmitters. The terminal buttons form the Presynaptic Neuron

hope this helped!

Explanation:

The first equation of motion in kinematics is given by :

[tex]v=u+at[/tex] .....(1)

u is initial speed

a is acceleration

v is final speed

t is time

Equation (1) is valid when the object is moving with constant acceleration. This equation gives relation between velocity and time.

Responder: 12000N

Explicación: Usando la fórmula para encontrar la eficiencia de una máquina. Eficiencia = ventaja mecánica / relación de velocidad × 100%

Dado MA = Carga / Esfuerzo

Relación de velocidad = distancia recorrida por esfuerzo (brazo de fuerza) / distancia recorrida por carga (brazo de resistencia)

MA = Carga / 3000

VR = 2 / 0.5 VR = 4

Asumiendo que la eficiencia es 100% 100% = (Carga / 3000) / 4 × 100%

1 = (Carga / 3000) / 4

4 = Carga / 3000

Carga = 4 × 3000

Carga = 12000N

Esto significa que el peso máximo que se puede levantar es 12000N

Answer:

Explanation:

capacitance of air capacitor

C = ε₀ A /  d

ε₀ is permittivity of medium , A is plate area , d is distance between plate .

C = 8.85 x 10⁻¹² x 25 x 10⁻⁴ / 1.3 x 10⁻²

= 170.19 x 10⁻¹⁴ F .

charge on the capacitor when it is charged to  potential of 255 V

= CV , C is capacitance and V is potential

= 170.19 x 10⁻¹⁴  x 255

= 4.34 x 10⁻¹⁰ C .

After it is disconnected from the source , and it is immersed in water , charge on it remains the same .

So its charge when immersed in water will be constant at 4.34 x 10⁻¹⁰ C.

b )

When it is immersed in water its capacity increases  k times where k is dielectric constant of water which is 80 .

capacitance of capacitor in water = 80 x 170.19 x 10⁻¹⁴  F

= 13615.2  x 10⁻¹⁴ F .

= 1.36 x 10⁻¹⁰ F

potential difference = charge / capacitance

= 4.34 x 10⁻¹⁰ / 1.36 x 10⁻¹⁰

= 3.2 V

c )

Energy of capacitor = 1/2 C V²

Initial energy = 1/2 x 170.19 x 255² x 10⁻¹⁴

=  55.33 x 10⁻⁹ J

Final energy = 1/2 x 1.36 x 10⁻¹⁰ x 3.2²

= .7  x 10⁻⁹ J .

decrease of energy = 54.63 x 10⁻⁹ J .

Answer:

[tex]\vec{F_3}=(-34.0N)\hat{i}+(-12.0N)\hat{j}[/tex]

Explanation:

You have three forces F1, F2 an F3 that produce the following  acceleration:

a = −(8.00m/s^2)ˆi + (6.00m/s^2)ˆj

you know that force F1 and F2 are:

F1 = (30.0N)ˆi + (16.0N)ˆj

F2 = −(12.0N)ˆi + (8.00N)ˆj

and the force F3 is unknown:

F3 = F3x ˆi + F3y ˆj

The second Newton law is given by the following equation:

[tex]\vec{F}=m\vec{a}[/tex]

F: the total force = F1 +F2 + F3

m: mass of the object = 2 kg

By the properties of vectors you have:

[tex]\vec{F_1}+\vec{F_2}+\vec{F_3}=m\vec{a}\\\\(30.0-12.0+F_{3x})N\hat{i}+(16.0+8.00+F_{3y})N\hat{j}=(2.0kg)[(-8.00m/s^2)\hat{i}+(6.00m/s^2)\hat{j}]\\\\(18.0+F_{3x})N\hat{i}+(24.0+F_{3y})\hat{j}=(-16.00N)\hat{i}+(12.0N)\hat{j}[/tex]

Both x and y component must be equal in the previous equality, then you have:

[tex]18.0N+F_{3x}=-16.00N\\\\F_{3x}=-34.00N\\\\24.0N+F_{3y}=12.0N\\\\F_{3y}=-12.00N[/tex]

Hence, the vector F3 is:

[tex]\vec{F_3}=(-34.0N)\hat{i}+(-12.0N)\hat{j}[/tex]

Answer:

a)Car E = Car D  > (Car F = Car B = Car C) > Car A

b)Car E = Car D  > (Car F = Car B = Car C) > Car A

Explanation:

Car A: mass = 500 kg; speed = 10 m/s

Car B: mass = 2000 kg;speed = 5 m/s

Car C:mass = 500 kg; speed = 20 m/s

Car D: mass = 1000 kg; speed = 20 m/s

Car E:mass = 4000 kg; speed = 5 m/s

Car F: mass = 1000 kg; speed = 10 m/s

Part a) Now we know that momentum of each car is product of mass and velocity , so we will have

CarA:

[tex]P_1 = m \times v\\P_1 = (500)(10)\\P_1 = 5 \times 10^3 kg m/s[/tex]

Car B:

[tex]P_2 = m v\\P_2 = (2000)(5)\\P_2 = 10^4 kg m/s[/tex]

Car C:

[tex]P_3 = m v\\P_3 = (500)(20)\\P_3 = 10^4 kg m/s[/tex]

Car D:

[tex]P_4 = m v\\P_4 = (1000)(20)\\P_4 = 2\times 10^4 kg m/s[/tex]

Car E:

[tex]P_5 = m v\\P_5 = (4000)(5)\\P_5 = 2\times 10^4 kg m/s[/tex]

Car F:

[tex]P_6 = m v\\P_6 = (1000)(10)\\P_6 = 10^4 kg m/s[/tex]

So the momentum is given as ,

Car E = Car D  > (Car F = Car B = Car C) > Car A

Part b)Impulse is given as change in momentum so here we can say that final momentum of all the cars will be zero as they all stops and hence the impulse is same as initial momentum of the car

so the order of impulse from largest to least is given as

Car E = Car D  > (Car F = Car B = Car C) > Car A

Answer:

i) angle of incidence;i = 29.43°

ii) δm = 38.92°

Explanation:

Prism is equilateral so angle of prism (A) = 60°

Refractive index of glass; n_glass = 1.52

A) Let's assume the incident angle = i and Critical angle = θc

We know that, sin θc = 1/n

Thus;

sin θc = 1/n_glass

θc = sin^(-1) (1/n_glass)

θc = sin^(-1) (1/1.52)

θc = 41.14°

Now, the angle of prism will be the sum of external angle that is critical angle and reflected angle.

Thus;

A = r + θc

r = A - θc

So;

r = 60° - 41. 14°

r = 18.86°

From, Snell's law. If we apply it to this question, we will have;

(sin i)/(sin r) = n_glass

Where;

i is angle of incidence and r is angle of reflection.

Let's make i the subject;

i = sin^(-1) (n_glass × sin r)

i = sin^(-1) (1.52 × sin 18.86)

i = sin^(-1) 0.4914

i = 29.43°

B) The formula to calculate minimum deviation would be from;

μ = [sin ((A + δm)/2)]/(sin A/2)

Where;

μ is Refractive index

δm is minimum angle of deviation

A is angle of prism

Now Refractive index is given by a formula; μ = (sin i)/(sin r)

So; μ = (sin 29.43)/(sin 18.86)

μ = 1.52

Thus;

1.52 = [sin ((60 + δm)/2)]/(sin 60/2)

1.52 * sin 30 = sin ((60 + δm)/2)

0.76 = sin ((60 + δm)/2)

sin^(-1) 0.76 = ((60 + δm)/2)

49.46 × 2 = (60 + δm)

98.92 - 60 = δm

δm = 38.92°

Answer:

The five kinds of stressors are:

Acute time-limited

Brief naturalistic

Stressful events sequences

Chronic

Distant

Explanation:

yeah

Answer:

A. K = 0.546 eV

B. cooper and iron will not emit electrons

Explanation:

A. This is a problem about photoelectric effect. Then you have the following equation:

[tex]K=h\nu-\Phi=h\frac{c}{\lambda} -\Phi[/tex]   (1)

K: kinetic energy of the ejected electron

Ф: Work function of the metal = 2.48eV

h: Planck constant = 4.136*10^{-15} eV.s

λ: wavelength of light = 410nm - 750nm

c: speed of light = 3*10^8 m/s

As you can see in the equation (1), higher the wavelength, lower the kinetic energy. Then, the maximum kinetic energy is obtained with the lower wavelength (410nm). Thus, you replace the values of all variables :

[tex]K=(4.136*10^{-15}eV)\frac{3*10^8m/s}{410*10^{-9}m}-2.48eV\\\\K=0.546eV[/tex]

B. First you calculate the energy of the photon with wavelengths of 410nm and 750nm

[tex]E_1=(4.136*10^{-15}eV)\frac{3*10^{8}m/s}{410*10^{-9}m}=3.02eV\\\\E_2=(4.13610^{-15}eV)\frac{3*10^{8}m/s}{750*10^{-9}m}=1.6544eV[/tex]

You compare the energies E1 and E2 with the work functions of the metals and you can conclude:

sodium = 2.3eV < E1

cesium = 2.1 eV < E1

cooper = 4.7eV > E1 (this metal will not emit electrons)

iron = 4.5eV > E1 (this metal will not emit electrons)

Answer:

vBxf = 0.08625m/s

Explanation:

This is a problem about the momentum conservation law. The total momentum before equals the total momentum after.

[tex]p_f=p_i[/tex]

pf: final momentum

pi: initial momentum

The analysis of the momentum conservation is about a horizontal momentum (x axis). When the quarterback jumps straight up, his horizontal momentum is zero. Then, after the quarterback throw the ball the sum of the momentum of both quarterback and ball must be zero.

Then, you have:

[tex]m_Qv_{Qxi}+m_{Bxi}v_{Bxi}=m_Qv_{Qxf}+m_{Bxf}v_{Bxf}[/tex]    (1)

mQ: the mass of the quarterback = 80kg

mB: the mass of the football = 0.43kg

(vQx)i: the horizontal velocity of quarterback before throwing the ball = 0m/s

(vBx)i: the horizontal velocity of football before being thrown = 0m/s

(vQx)f: the horizontal velocity of quarterback after throwing the ball = ?

(vBx)f: the horizontal velocity of football after being thrown = 15 m/s

You replace the values of the variables in the equation (1), and you solve for (vBx)f:

[tex]0\ kgm/s=-(80kg)(v_{Bxf})+(0.46kg)(15m/s)\\\\v_{Bxf}=\frac{(0.46kg)(15m/s)}{80kg}=0.08625\frac{m}{s}[/tex]

Where you have taken the speed of the quarterback as negative because is in the negative direction of the x axis.

Hence, the speed of the quarterback after he throws the ball is 0.08625m/s

Answer:

I = 4.189 mA    V = 0.338 V

Explanation:

In order to do this, we need to apply the following expression:

I = Is[exp^(qV/kT) - 1]   (1)

However, as the junction of the diode is illuminated, the above expression changes to:

I = Iopt + Is[exp^(qV/kT) - 1]   (2)

Now, as the shunt resistance becomes infinite while the current becomes zero, we can say that the leakage current is small, and so:

I ≅ Iopt

Therefore:

I ≅ I₀Aλq / hc  (3)

Where:

I₀A = Area of diode (radiation)

λ: wavelength

q: electron charge (1.6x10⁻¹⁹ C)

h: Planck constant (6.62x10⁻³⁴ m² kg/s)

c: speed of light (3x10⁸ m/s)

Replacing all these values, we can get the current:

I = (8x10⁻³) * (0.65x10⁻⁶) * (1.6x10⁻¹⁹) / (6.62x10⁻³⁴) * (3x10⁸)

I = 4.189x10⁻³ A or 4.189 mA

Now that we have the current, we just need to replace this value into the expression (2) and solve for the voltage:

I = Is[exp^(qV/kT) - 1]

k: boltzman constant (1.38x10⁻²³ J/K)

4.189x10⁻³ = 9x10⁻⁹ [exp(1.6x10⁻¹⁹ V / 1.38x10⁻²³ * 300) - 1]

4.189x10⁻³ / 9x10⁻⁹ = [exp(38.65V) - 1]

465,444.44 + 1  = exp(38.65V)

ln(465,445.44) = 38.65V

13.0508 = 38.65V

V = 0.338 V

Answer:

239 N/C

Explanation:

Electric field strength at distance R from a charge Q is given by the expression

E = k Q / R² where Q is charge , R is distance of charge from the point . k is a constant .

R = 40 cm , Q = 4.25 x 10⁻⁹

Putting the given values

E = 9 x 10⁹ x 4.25 x 10⁻⁹ / ( 40 x 10⁻²)²

= 239 N/C .

Answer:

This example shows that alloys are stronger than either of it's parent materials by themselves.

Explanation:

Since carbon is added to iron to make steel, it means steel is an alloy of iron and carbon.

This is because an alloy is a mixture of two or more elements, where at least one element is a metal.

Now, steel is stronger than either carbon or or iron by itself because Steel contains atoms of other elements including carbon and iron. These atoms have different sizes to iron carbon atoms, so they distort the layers of atoms in the pure iron and carbon. This means that a greater force is required for the layers to slide over each other in steel, so steel is harder than pure iron.