because wic provides and encourages whole grains, fruits, vegetables, and legume intake, the dietary fiber intake of wic participants is often higher than that of non-participants. how did the dietary fiber intake of this 3-day wic menu compare to the dri for dietary fiber?

Answers

Answer 1

Children's overall diet quality may be enhanced by increasing dietary fibre consumption. This study used information from the Feeding Infants and Toddlers Study to examine nutritional intakes and sources of fibre between young children with low and high fibre  intakes.

What are the four main tenets of a healthy diet?

Consume a lot of fruit and veggies. Consume milk, meat, fish, eggs, and their substitutes in moderation (including dry beans) Reduce consumption of processed foods, foods high in salt and sugar, and foods that have been preserved. Ensure you get enough fluids daily.

What is the dietary philosophy?

When choosing a nutritious diet, it's crucial to keep in mind the diet-planning principles of adequacy, balance, calorie control, nutritional density, moderation, and diversity.

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Related Questions

The nurse is educating a patient regarding nutrition. Which nutrient would the nurse describe as a micronutrient?.

Answers

Answer: Folic acid.

Explanation:

The nutrient that the nurse would describe as a micronutrient is: Vitamins.

Micronutrients are essential nutrients required by the body in smaller quantities but are still crucial for maintaining overall health and proper bodily functions. Micronutrients include vitamins and minerals.

Vitamins are organic compounds that are necessary for various physiological processes in the body. They are classified into two categories: fat-soluble vitamins (vitamins A, D, E, and K) and water-soluble vitamins (vitamins B and C). Vitamins play a vital role in metabolism, immune function, cell growth, and numerous other biological processes.

Unlike macronutrients such as carbohydrates, proteins, and fats, which are needed in larger quantities, micronutrients are required in smaller amounts. However, their deficiency or excess can have significant impacts on health and well-being. Therefore, a nurse would classify vitamins as micronutrients when educating a patient about nutrition.

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the nurse is preparing to administer adenosine for a patient diagnosed with supraventricular tachycardia. which assessment finding would indicate the effectiveness of this medication?

Answers

The nurse is preparing to administer adenosine for the patient diagnosed with SVT (supraventricular tachycardia). The patient's ECG tracing shows normal sinus rhythm indicate the effectiveness of the medication.

Fast heart rhythms originating from the upper chambers of the heart are collectively referred to as supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). In contrast, ventricular tachycardia, which originates in the lower chambers of the heart, is another category of fast heart rhythms. Atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT), and Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome are the four primary kinds of SVT. SVT symptoms include palpitations, a fainting sensation, perspiration, breathlessness, and/or chest pain.

These aberrant rhythms often result from one of two mechanisms: re-entry or increased automaticity. They can originate from either the atria or the atrioventricular node. Electrocardiograms (ECG), heart - rate monitors, and event monitors are frequently used for diagnosis. To rule out underlying problems like hyperthyroidism or electrolyte abnormalities.

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in the postanesthesia care unit (pacu), a patient's vital signs are blood pressure 116/72, pulse 74, respirations 12, and spo2 91%. the patient is sleepy but awakens easily. which action should the nurse take first?

Answers

In the postanesthesia care unit (pacu), a patient's vital signs are blood pressure 116/72, pulse 74, respirations 12, and spo2 91%. the patient is sleepy but awakens easily Continue to take vital signs every 15 minutes.

The postanesthesia length may be separated into three ranges of care: segment I, section II, and extended Care. five each segment of recuperation may arise in a single p.c. or in more than one locations, which may also include the patient's room (see table 1).

Perioperative and postanesthetic control of the affected person includes periodic assessment and monitoring of breathing and cardiovascular characteristic, neuromuscular characteristic, mental status, temperature, ache, nausea and vomiting, drainage and bleeding, and urine output (desk 1).

The surgical enjoy may be segregated into 3 levels: (1) preopera- tive, (2) intraoperative, and (3) postoperative. The word “perioperative” is used to encom- bypass all three stages. The perioperative nurse presents nursing care at some point of all 3 stages.

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in caring for a client diagnosed with a small bowel obstruction, what would the nurse expect to do first?

Answers

In caring for a client diagnosed with a small bowel obstruction, the nurse will first Start an intravenous (IV) line.

The first step in providing care for this individual would be to start an IV to administer fluids and electrolytes. Fluid balance is more crucial, despite the fact that an NG tube will be ordered. Giving painkillers may make the situation worse. Drawing lab work is not the first intervention this person would require.

A partial or total obstruction of the small intestine is known as small intestinal obstruction. Digestion products will move on to the large intestine if the small bowel is operating normally. A minor intestinal blockage may prevent some or all of the contents from passing.

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Each year, at least 250,000 children under 6 years of age go blind from a lack of ____.

Answers

Each year, at least 250,000 children under six years of age go blind from lack of (c) vitamin A

What is Vitamin A ?

Vitamins are a class of nutrients required for healthy cell growth, development, and function. There are thirteen necessary vitamins. This indicates that the body needs these vitamins to function properly.

The highest preformed vitamin A concentrations are found in liver, fish, eggs, and dairy products. In the American diet, leafy green vegetables, orange and yellow vegetables, tomato products, fruits, and some vegetable oils provide the majority of the dietary provitamin A.

There are two sources of vitamin A. Retinol belongs to a category of compounds called retinoids that are derived from animal sources. Beta-carotene is a member of the other group of compounds called carotenoids that are found in plants. Beta-carotene is converted by the body

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Full Question: Each year, at least 250,000 children under six years of age go blind from lack of ____.

a. iron

b. calcium

c. vitamin A

d. vitamin B

your patient is in a seated position with his feet flat on the floor. he is having difficulty lifting his toes off the floor. what muscle(s) is impaired from contracting?

Answers

The muscles that are impaired from muscle contraction are Tibialis anterior & extensor digitorum longus.

Humans have a muscle called the tibialis anterior that arises from the upper two-thirds of the lateral portion of the tibia and inserts into the first metatarsal and medial cuneiform bones of the foot. It causes the foot to dorsiflex and invert. Near the shin is where this muscle is primarily found.

It is located on the lateral side of the tibia and is tendinous below and thick and fleshy above. The anterior tibial vessels and deep peroneal nerve are covered by the tibialis anterior in the upper leg.

The feather-like muscle of the front compartment of the leg is called the extendor digitorum longus. The tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, and fibularis tertius muscles are also located in this compartment in addition to the EDL muscle.

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the physician writes orders for a patient to receive an angiotensin ii receptor blocker for treatment of heart failure. what medication does the nurse administer?

Answers

The nurse administer Valsartan (Diovan) drug for a patient to receive an angiotensin ii receptor blocker for treatment of heart failure

Heart failure and excessive blood pressure are both treated with valsartan. Additionally, it increases the likelihood that a person will survive a heart attack longer. It might also reduce the likelihood that those with heart failure will need to visit the hospital. Angiotensin ii receptor blockers, of which Valsartan is a member, are a class of medications (ARBs). In order to facilitate easier blood flow, it acts by relaxing blood vessels. Bringing down high blood pressure reduces the risk of heart attacks, kidney issues, and strokes. Diovan's most frequent adverse effects are headache, vertigo, fatigue, flu-like symptoms, diarrhoea, back discomfort, and joint pain.

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the description of medical interventions for specific diagnoses in which treatment regimens and the patient's progress are evaluated based on nationally accepted standards of care for each diagnosis is called:

Answers

According to generally accepted standards of treatment for each diagnosis, the patient's progress is assessed: clinical recommendations

What do you mean about clinical recommendations?

According to the Iom (IOM), clinical practice guidelines are "statements containing recommendations, meant to maximize care delivery, that also is informed by a systematic analysis of the evidence and also an assessment of the benefits and risks of different care alternatives."

Why are clinical recommendations important and what are they?

Clinical practice recommendations are made in statements that aim to improve patient care. They are based on a thorough study of the available data and an evaluation of the advantages and disadvantages of various alternative care alternatives.

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a client has urinary incontinence and is prescribed an antispasmodic medication, detrol. what should the health care practitioner explain to her client?

Answers

When prescribing an antispasmodic for urine incontinence, the doctor should explain to his patient that results could not be felt for several months.

A person with urinary incontinence accidentally releases pee. Urinary incontinence, commonly known as overactive bladder, can affect anybody, although it is more prevalent in older individuals, particularly women. Bladder control problems can be humiliating and make people refrain from participating in daily activities.

Antispasmodic medications are used to alleviate symptoms including cramps and stomach discomfort (spasm). Irritable bowel syndrome symptoms are treated with them the most frequently. The possible negative effects are often mild.

Detrol is a medication that is used to treat an overactive bladder. Detrol helps you have better bladder control by relaxing the bladder muscles. It lessens urine leakage, the urge to pee immediately, and frequent trips to the restroom. This medicine is a member of the antispasmodic drug subclass.

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the nurse teaches a client about social support. which example of emotional support does the nurse include in the teaching session?

Answers

The example of emotional support that the nurse should include in the teaching session is "Being able to confide in your spouse is an example of emotional support."

What is emotional support?

The expression emotional support makes reference to all actions associated to reinforce the mental self-esteem of a person, which represent a fundamental issue for the normal development of an individual.

It has been shown that an individual with emotional support tends to be more stable in his or her life and therefore they have higher success to reach goals.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that emotional support is a fundamental aspect of the life of a person and this feature should be promoted by professionals.

Complete question:

The nurse teaches a client about social support. Which example of emotional support does the nurse include in the teaching session?

"Accepting a loan from someone is an example of emotional support."

"Providing feedback to a friend is an example of emotional support."

"Allowing a friend to help with your sick mom is an example of emotional support."

"Being able to confide in your spouse is an example of emotional support."

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a child diagnosed with tetralogy of fallot becomes upset, cries, and thrashes around when a blood specimen is obtained. the child becomes cyanotic and the respiratory rate increases to 44 breaths/min. which action should the nurse do first?

Answers

Place the child in knee-to-chest position.

What is the child is facing?

The youngster is going through a hypoxic or "tet spell" episode. As a result, the nurse should kneel the infant to his or her chest. When the legs are bent, the infant with tetralogy of fallot has less blood flowing through the interventricular septal defect and the overriding aorta from the lower extremities. As a result, dyspnea is lessened and the blood that next enters the systemic circulation contains more oxygen.

How would you further explain the situation?

Leg flexion also raises the left ventricle's pressure and vascular resistance. To alleviate dyspnea, infants frequently assume the knee to chest position. The youngster could require a sedative if this position is ineffective. The nurse can check for an abnormal heartbeat and other symptoms after the infant is in this position.

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ou are providing high-quality cpr on a 6-year-old patient who weighs 44 pounds. the aed arrives. it does not have a pediatric setting and includes only adult aed pads. what should you do

Answers

You are providing high-quality CPR on a 6-year-old patient who weighs 44 pounds and as the AED arrives it does not have a pediatric setting and includes only adult AED pads so you should use the adult AED pads.

High-quality CPR performance metrics include: Chest compression fraction >80% Compression rate of 100-120/min. Compression depth of a minimum of fifty millimetre (2 inches) in adults and a minimum of 1/3 the AP dimension of the chest in infants and youngsters. No excessive ventilation.

Automated External electronic device pads (also referred to as AED pads) are an important a part of any deliverance AED machine. These pads square measure placed on the clean chest of someone who is suspected to be plagued by sudden pathology (SCA).

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a team of nurses is preparing a trauma room for the arrival of a child with partial-thickness burns to both lower extremities and portions of the trunk. which intravenous fluid should the nurse be prepared to administer to this client?

Answers

For intravenous fluid, LR is recommended it replaced the lost sodium and corrects the metabolic acidosis.

Superficial partial thickness burns are crimson and blanch with strain vesicles that appear 24 hours after the burn injury. Complete-thickness burns are dry, waxy white, leathery, or tough, and there may be involvement of muscle mass, tendons, and bones.

The primary priority in treating the burn victim is to make certain that the airway remains open. Related smoke inhalation harm may be very common, specially if the patient has been burned in a closed space, inclusive of a room or building. Even patients burned in an open region might also maintain smoke inhalation.

Preserve the burn web page smooth with mild washing with soap and water. Do not practice any ointments to the burn web site except informed by means of your pediatrician. Never observe butter, greases, or different domestic treatments to a burn earlier than discussing with your pediatrician, as those can growth the hazard of contamination as nicely.

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while performing a rectal examination, the nurse notices a firm, irregularly shaped mass. what should the nurse do next?

Answers

When the nurse notices a firm, irregularly shaped mass, the nurse should report the finding and refer the patient to a specialist for further examination.

Which of the following positions would a nurse place a patient for a rectal examination?

The nurse will instruct you to lie on your left side with your knees raised to your chest. This is the most convenient way to examine your rectum. Put on some gloves and inspect your bottom for any problems.

If the nurse notices a firm, irregularly shaped mass during the rectal examination, they may suggest a PSA blood test if one has not yet been ordered. If you have a high PSA level and an abnormal DRE.

Therefore, the nurse may suggest additional tests, such as transurethral ultrasound as the next step.

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compliance officers required to know all osha laws? a. yes, that is why cos become certified. b. yes, it is part of a cos responsibility. c. no, but the co should know where to find the information. d. yes, especially for the state the medical facility is located.

Answers

Yes, particularly for the state where the hospital is situated. the legal mandate and purpose of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA). 2. Typical health risks in the building industry.

Which of the following fall under OSHA's purview?

OSHA was established by Congress to provide safe and healthy working conditions for both men and women by establishing and enforcing standards as well as by offering outreach, education, and aid with compliance. Employers are required by OSHA legislation to provide a secure and healthy working environment for their employees.

What guidelines does OSHA follow?

You are entitled to a secure workplace. To stop workers from being murdered or suffering other types of harm at work, the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (OSH Act) was passed. The legislation demands employers must offer safe working environments free from known hazards to their employees.

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an incision made into the vulva to enlarge the opening and prevent tearing during delivery of the baby is called a(n)

Answers

An incision made into the vulva to enlarge the opening and prevent tearing during delivery of the baby is called An episiotomy

What is Episiotomy ?

During childbirth, it is occasionally necessary for a doctor or midwife to make a cut in the region between the vagina and anus (perineum). Episiotomy is the term for this. The vaginal hole is widened via an episiotomy, making it easier for the baby to pass through.

Mediolateral, median, lateral, and J-shaped episiotomies are among the four varieties. The goal of an episiotomy, a surgical technique, is to expand the vaginal opening during childbirth by creating a small incision in the perineum (the region between the vaginal opening and anus).

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a patient with acute adrenal insufficiency (adrenal crisis) is admitted to the hospital. the rn monitors for resolution of which manifestations to determine that drug therapy with cortisone has been effective?

Answers

Hypotension that does not improve with volume supply is a sign of adrenal insufficiency. A symptom of poor adrenal function is tachycardia. Fever is an indication of adrenal insufficiency.

What distinguishes hypotension from low blood pressure?

Hypotension is the same as low blood pressure. Blood pressure normally drops below a Blood pressure number of 90 and a Systole value of 60 in this disease. A low level of blood pressure is often excellent if it stays within the established ranges. However, this syndrome can occasionally cause fatigue and wooziness.

What primarily contributes to hypotension?

Dehydration, prolonged bed rest, childbirth, certain medical conditions, and some drugs are some of the causes. Elderly adults frequently have this kind of low blood pressure. after-meal hypotension Blood pressure drops for one to two hours after this.

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a client presents with diaphoresis, palpitations, and jitters after taking his morning insulin. what is the priority action by the nurse?

Answers

The priority action taken by the nurse for the client with diaphoresis, palpitations, and jitters after taking morning insulin is to check the glucose level and need to administer the glucose.

Type 1 diabetics do not take oral medications - only type 2 diabetics. The insulin I.V infusion must be prescribed and clarified by a physician. Taking an adequate daily dose of insulin when NPO before surgery will result in hypoglycemia.

Low blood sugar, also known as hypoglycemia or "hypo," occurs when the level of sugar (glucose) in your blood drops too low. It mainly affects the people with diabetes, especially if they take the insulin medicine. Low blood sugar can be dangerous if not treated quickly, but you can usually treat it on your own easily.

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which assessment finding indicates an individual is exhibiting the most frequently sympotn of cancer

Answers

Fatigue is a sign that someone is experiencing cancer, which is the most common symptom.

What causes weariness primarily?

The majority of the time, a number of your routines or habits—particularly inactivity—can be linked to exhaustion. It frequently has depression as an association. Sometimes, exhaustion is a sign of other underlying illnesses that call for medical attention.

How does it feel to be exhausted?

Fatigue is a loss of drive and energy. Along with weariness, other symptoms include sleepiness or apathy (indifference to what occurs). Normal and substantial exhaustion can result from physical exercise, mental stress, boredom, or even from not getting enough sleep.

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the nurse is preparing the client for an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor test to rule out myasthenia gravis. which is the priority nursing action?

Answers

Full Question :The nurse is preparing the patient for an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor test to rule out myasthenia gravis. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

a) Document the results.

b) Ensure atropine is readily available.

c) Assess facial weakness 5 minutes after injection.

d) Administer edrophonium chloride (Tensilon) per orders.

b) Ensure atropine is readily available.

Tensilon side effects ought to be managed with atropine. Before administering Tensilon, atropine should be accessible. Tensilon administration is followed by the evaluation of facial weakness, so these interventions are not top priorities.

What are the maximum not unusual early symptoms of myasthenia gravis?

these are the most not unusual signs of myasthenia gravis: visual troubles, inclusive of drooping eyelids (ptosis) and double imaginative and prescient (diplopia) Muscle weak points,s, and fatigue may range rapidly in intensity over days or maybe hours and get worse as muscular tissues are used (early fatigue).

The remedies for myasthenia gravis areTreatment may additionally encompass:Oxygen through a face mask.The use of a breathing device (ventilator)Intravenous immunoglobulin therapy – a remedy crafted from donated blood, which improves muscle strength by temporarily changing how your immune system works.

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rationale the patient is prescribed memantine (namenda). common side effects to instruct the patient about are:

Answers

Namenda is the brand name of the prescription drug memantine

Memantine in patients with moderate to severe Alzheimer’s disease.

The role of memantine is to binds to NMDA receptors in the brain, they play a role in this Alzheimer's disease, it decreases the abnormal brain activity.

It allows normal glutamate function, but what it do is stops excessive glutamate activity.

it is available in the form of - capsules, tablets and solutions.

The common side effects of Memantine

1. Headache

2. Hypertension

3. Fatigue

4. Constipation and vomiting

6. Increased blood pressure

7. Dizziness, headache and hallucinations.

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a nurse is calculating the intake of a client during the past 9 hr. the client's intake includes lactated ringer's iv at 150 ml/hr, cefazolin 2 g iv intermittent bolus in 100 ml of 0.9% sodium chloride, two units of packed rbcs of 275 ml and 250 ml; two iv bolus infusions of 250 ml of 0.9% sodium chloride, famotidine 20 mg iv intermittent bolus in 50 ml of 0.9% sodium chloride. how many ml of intake should the nurse record?

Answers

2525 ml intake should be recorded by a nurse of client intake during the past 9 hr.

What is famotidine?

Expressions of a solution's concentration.

% by mass = (mass of solute/mass of solution) x 100%

% by volume = (volume of solute/volume of solution) x 100%

% by mass/volume = (mass of solute / volume of solution) x 100%

Famotidine is a medication that is used to treat adult patients with stomach or small intestine ulcers.

Therefore, It can also be used to lessen stomach acidity in conditions including reflux, gastritis, or Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, nurse recorded a 2525 ml intake.

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a critical care nurse is caring for a client with a cerebrovascular accident (cva) the client is prescribed heparin for treatment. the nurse knows to monitor the client for what adverse effects?

Answers

A client with a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) the client is prescribed heparin for treatment of which adverse effects are abdominal or stomach pain or swelling, bleeding from the gums when brushing teeth, backpain, etc.

Heparin is employed to forestall or treat sure vessel, heart, and respiratory organ conditions. anticoagulant is additionally wont to forestall coagulation throughout heart surgery, bypass surgery, excretory organ qualitative analysis, and blood transfusions.

Cerebrovascular accident  is damage to the brain from interruption of its blood offer. A stroke could be a medical emergency. Symptoms of stroke embody bother walking, speaking and understanding, furthermore as palsy or symptom of the face, arm or leg. Early treatment with medication like tPA (clot buster) will minimise brain harm. different treatments specialise in limiting complications and preventing extra strokes.

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a client's holter monitor strip reveals a heart rate with normal conduction but with a rate consistently above 105 beats/minute. what other conditions can cause this response in a healthy heart?

Answers

Sinus tachycardia can be the most probable condition which results into high heart rate above 105 beats/minute. This problem is not very serious and is treatable.

What is Sinus tachycardia?

Sinus tachycardia is a type of irregular heartbeat which is characterized by a faster than the normal heart rhythm. The heart's sinus node generates electrical impulses which travels through the heart muscle that causes the heart to beat. A normal sinus rhythm has an average heart rate of the range between 60 and 100 beats/minute.

Treatment is not necessary for sinus tachycardia as it is not a very serious issue. However, if an underlying condition is causing these symptoms, it needs to be treated on time. Treatments for sinus tachycardia include medications such as beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers which can lower the heart rate.

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which drug would the nurse anticipate being prescribed to ms. weston after she is diagnosed with hypothyroidism?

Answers

Levothyroxine drug would the nurse anticipate being prescribed to ms. weston after she is diagnosed with hypothyroidism.

What happens if you have hypothyroidism?

When the thyroid does not produce and distribute enough tsh into your bloodstream, it is known as hypothyroidism. Your metabolism becomes slower as a result. Hypothyroidism, also referred as an underactive thyroid, can make you feel exhausted, gain weight, and be unable to handle cold temperatures.

What bodily systems are impacted by hypothyroidism?

Numerous factors, including hypothyroidism, can impact the cardiovascular system. Your heart rate will slow if thyroid hormone synthesis is reduced. The arteries become less elastic as just a result of hypothyroidism, and blood pressure increases in an effort to keep your body's blood vessels open.

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which nursing statement about providing care for clients with the human immunodeficiency virus (hiv) infection indicates the need for further teaching?

Answers

Until an effective vaccine is developed, nurses should teach  patients how to eliminate or reduce risky behaviors. People with HIV or who use injection drugs should be instructed not to donate blood or share drug equipment with others.

what is HIV infection ?

HIV denoted as  Human Immunodeficiency Virus, a deficiency in our immune system which attacks T cells, lymphocytes;  it doesn't have any cure.

HIV infection means the person will be affected with AIDS or  Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome and it is a complete disfunction of the immune system leading to death.

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A nurse has applied for a job and during the interview was told that the health care facility is a ""closed shop. "" what does that phrase mean to the nurse?.

Answers

Answer:

The nurse must join a union to be employed there.

Explanation:

the united nations food and agriculture organization (fao) defines as secure access to a nutritious diet coupled with a sanitary environment and adequate health services and care. multiple choice nutrition security food insecurity sustainability food access

Answers

The United international locations meals and agriculture agency (fao) defines it as secure access to nutritious: a couple of preference vitamins security food insecurity sustainability food get entry to a -a person is meals insecure once they lack everyday get admission to enough safe and nutritious food for regular boom and development and lively and healthy existence.

Agriculture is the art and technological know-how of cultivating the soil, growing plants, and raising cattle. It consists of the instruction of plant and animal products for human beings to apply and their distribution to markets. Agriculture influences society in lots of ways, which include supporting livelihoods through food, habitat, and jobs; providing raw materials for food and other merchandise; and building sturdy economies via change.

Agriculture is the arena's biggest industry. It employs multiple billion humans and generates over $1.three trillion bucks really worth of food annually. Pasture and cropland occupy around 50 percent of the Earth's liveable land and offer habitat and meals for a multitude of species.

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match each of the vitamins listed with its primary benefit. - vitamin a - vitamin c - vitamin d - vitamin b6 a. essential for vision, bone growth, and reproduction b. may help prevent osteoporosis c. helps provide immunity against infection d. may help prevent heart disease.

Answers

A vitamin is an organic molecule this is a crucial micronutrient that an organism wishes in small quantities for the right functioning of its metabolism.

Matching:-

vitamin a -  a. is essential for vision.

vitamin c - d. may help prevent heart disease.

vitamin d -  b. may help prevent osteoporosis.

vitamin b6 - c. helps provide immunity against infection.

Vitamins are substances that our bodies want to develop and characteristics generally. They encompass vitamins A, C, D, E, and ok, choline, and the B vitamins (thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, pantothenic acid, biotin, diet B6, diet B12, and folate/folic acid).

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the nurse is reviewing the medication list of a patient admitted for cardiac testing and notes that the patient takes acetazolamide 250 mg po qd. which disorder would the nu expect the patient to report?

Answers

When a nurse is checking a patient's medication list who has been admitted for cardiac testing, she notices that the patient is taking acetazolamide 250 mg PO QD, thus the nurse expects the patient to disclose glaucoma.

A group of eye conditions known as glaucoma can result in vision loss and blindness by harming the optic nerve, a nerve located at the back of the eye. You may not notice the symptoms at first because they can appear gradually. Getting a thorough dilated eye exam is the only way to determine if you have glaucoma.

Acetazolamide is a medication used to treat glaucoma, a condition with a rise in eye pressure that can cause a gradual loss of vision. Acetazolamide lowers eye pressure.

Consequently, we can state that the nurse expects the patient to disclose any glaucoma disorders if they are taking acetazolamide 250 mg PO QD.

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Fortunately, the V-2 came too late in the war to help the Germans win. How did the United State's rocketry program, NASA, etc. benefit from this? besides information on chemical concentration and water temperature, what other machine setting information should be posted on dish washing machines? besides information on chemical concentration and water temperature, what other machine setting information should be posted on dish washing machines? Which table represents a direct variation function?Input x 3 4 5Output y 6 10 14Input x 1 2 3Output y 2 4 8Input x 4 6 8Output y 6 9 12Input x 1 2 3Output y 3 9 15 Does the pentagon have the following type of symmetry? Answer yes or no in each box. Hi can someone please explain and answer? Thank you! Ill give brainly Question 17 of 20The supply of a good available in a market is likely to increase when:A. technology used to make the product is not widely available.B. few workers have the skills needed to create the product.C. companies believe that the product's selling price will go up.D. new regulations increase the cost of making the product.SURMIT what acts as a connector to help convert the nucleotide sequence of mrna into the amino acid sequence of a polypeptide during translation? A country has adopted a dirty-float system over a clean-float system. In doing so the country has agreed to. whereas hearing is a physiological process, attending is a psychological one that is part of the stage of perception. the nurse is administering a medication to a client by piggyback iv infusion. which accurately describes a step in this procedure? 100 grams of ice at 0 c is placed in 500 grams of water at 50 c. What is the final temperature and composition of the mixture?. Which command would you use to copy all files and subdirectories in a directory, including empty subdirectories?. A class is made up of 6 boys and 14 girls. half of the boys wear glasses. a student is selected at random from the class. what is the probability that the student is a boy with glasses? write your answer as a fraction in simplest form. you are a nurse serving as a medical volunteer in a refugee camp. due to extreme poverty, political instability, and displacement, most individuals at the camp have not received any preventative medical care, including vaccinations. while providing care to a young woman in about the fourth month of pregnancy, she mentions that several children, including her toddler, suffered from a mild illness last month. her toddler had a low fever, a runny nose, and a rash that started on his face then moved downward. the illness resolved quickly in all the children. what illness might the children have had and why should/shoudn't vou be concerned? Which of the following statements regarding the 2021 Child Tax Credit (CTC) is FALSE?The CTC is fully refundable and there is no earned income requirement. To claim the CTC, a taxpayer must have a qualifying child under age 17. The amount of CTC for qualifying children has increased from $2,000 per child to $3,000 per child age 6 through age 17. The amount of CTC for qualifying children has increased from $2,000 per child to $3,600 per child age 0 through age 5. Pls help me plsI will give brainliest so pls help Although the post-impressionist artists were all different in approach, they shared an interest in. "The internal validity of the Pre-post designs is threatened by threats related to time. A : true B : false." Concepts like ""defense mechanisms"" or ""repression of destructive impulses"" reflect freuds ideas about. A set of points is shown on the graph.Scatter plot with a point at negative 3 comma 9, a point at 0 comma 5, a point at 1 comma 8, a point at 6 comma 7, and a point at 8 comma 3.Which of the following equations is the best model for a line of fit for the data? y equals 2 thirds times x plus 7 y equals negative 2 thirds times x plus 7 y equals 1 third times x plus 7 y equals negative 1 third times x plus 7