Can you solve this for me? Thank you! :>

Answer:

y=90

Step-by-step explanation:

To isolate y, you must do the inverse operation by dividing each side by 0.3

27/.03=90

Answer:

The total of the three interior angles in any triangle is 180 degrees.

Answer: 4/5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

16w+40 (A) Is The answer

Answer:

If you were taught that the first element in the sequence is at n = 0:

-7 - 5n

If you were taught that the first element is at n = 1:

-2 -5n

Step-by-step explanation:

First, find a pattern in the elements of the sequence. At first glace, I notice that each consecutive number is the previous number minus 5.

Thus it can be seen that for each consecutive number in the sequence, 5 is subtracted from negative 2 n times! Therefore, the expression must be:

-2 - 5n

Let's double check the expression! When n = 3, it should equal -17.

-2 - 5(3) = -17

And when n = 5, it should be -27:

-2 - 5(5) = -27.

This is the case if the first element in your sequence is n = 1, if you've been taught that the first element is n = 0, the expression would be:

-7 - 5n

Answer: The answer is C.

Step-by-step explanation: Monaco has 0.75 sq miles. San Marino has 24 sq miles. 0.75 x c(32)=24.

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

$1.25

Step-by-step explanation:

just divide 8 on both sides and you get the price for one peice of pie

have a great day

Answer:

p=1.25

Step-by-step explanation:

Divide 8 by the variable and sum in order to get P by itself.

10÷8= 1.25

p=1.25

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

$11.50 is the subtotal. "Including tax" means a customer pays extra money other than the subtotal. When you buy something, you cannot pay higher than your remaining cash.

The answer is actually C, 11.50 is the constant as x is being plugged to how many times the constant can be multiplied by. A greater than sign means Kelly earns MORE MONEY than $118

Answer:

B C And D are the correct points hope it helps

Answer: y = 6

Step-by-step explanation:

1. Subtract 7 from both sides to isolate -2y.

-2y = -12

2. Divide both sides by -2 to isolate the y.

y = 6

Answer:

A: 80 and B: 5.5

Step-by-step explanation:

For A, just multiply 20 and 4 and which you would get 80 miles. And for B, if 1 inch is equal to 20 miles, you can divide 110 and 20 but the answer will be 5.5 rather than 5.

I think this is right but if you can, try and see if it’s correct later.

Answer:

The person who answered first is correct.

Step-by-step explanation:

===========================================

Work Shown:

i = P*r*t

126 = P*0.012*7

126 = P*0.084

P = 126/0.084

P = 1500 dollars

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Explanation:

Make sure you use the decimal form of r, and not the percent form.

Answer:

$116.24

Step-by-step explanation:

the simple interest formula is A = P(1 + rt), where A is the final amount, P is the initial amount, r is the interest rate in decimal form, and t is the amount of time in years.

we can plug in the values from the problem and set up this equation:

126 = P(1 + 0.012(7))

simplify and isolate P to get:

[tex]P=\frac{126}{1+0.012(7)}[/tex]

now, we simplify further to get our answer:

P = 116.24

hope this helped, good luck!

Answer:

4 4/15

Step-by-step explanation:

5 1/3 divided by 1 1/4

16/3 divided by 5/4

16/3*4/5

64/15

4 4/15

Answer:

[tex]4 \frac{4}{15}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given expression:

[tex]5\frac{1}{3} \div 1\frac{1}{4}[/tex]

Rewrite the mixed numbers as improper fractions:

[tex]\implies \dfrac{5 \times 3+1}{3} \div \dfrac{1 \times 4+1}{4}[/tex]

[tex]\implies \dfrac{16}{3} \div \dfrac{5}{4}[/tex]

To divide fractions, flip the second fraction, then multiply:

[tex]\implies \dfrac{16}{3} \times \dfrac{4}{5}[/tex]

[tex]\implies \dfrac{16\times4}{3\times5}[/tex]

[tex]\implies \dfrac{64}{15}[/tex]

Divide the numerator by the denominator:

[tex]\implies 64 \div 15 = 4 \; \rm remainder\;4[/tex]

The mixed number answer is the whole number and the remainder divided by the denominator:

[tex]\implies 4 \frac{4}{15}[/tex]

Therefore, if a candy bar of length 5¹/₃ inches is divided into pieces that are each 1¹/₄ inches long, there will be 4⁴/₁₅ pieces of candy bar.

Answer:34

Step-by-step explanation:

45

Answer: 92, 46, 23

Step-by-step explanation:

184/2 = 92

92/2= 46

46/2= 23

Answer:

B.

Step-by-step explanation:

300ml + 500ml = 800ml

B. 800

Answer:

Q1.2 percent

Q2.36.5 percent

Q3.58 percent

Q4.265 percent

Q5.90.13 percent

Answer:

11

Step-by-step explanation:

1/9 is already a simplified fraction. It cannot be simplified any further because there are no common factors between the numerator and denominator that can be divided out.

Answer:

D-2093% increase

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

2280 ROUNDING:228

Step-by-step explanation:

V=πr2h=π·112·6≈2280.79627

Answer:

6) 97,6%

7) 15,5%

8) 47,65%

9) 29,5%

10) 7%

11) 656%

Answer:  The fraction is already in simplest form

Step-by-step explanation:

The given fraction is already in its simpliest form.

To simplify the fraction 3/20, we need to find the greatest common factor (GCF) of the numerator and the denominator and divide both by that factor.

The factors of 3 are 1 and 3, while the factors of 20 are 1, 2, 4, 5, 10, and 20. The greatest common factor of 3 and 20 is 1, as that is the largest number that divides evenly into both.

Dividing both the numerator and denominator by 1, we get:

(3 ÷ 1) / (20 ÷ 1) = 3/20

Since the GCF is 1 and there are no other common factors, the fraction 3/20 is already in its simplified form.

Learn more about Mathematical operations here:

https://brainly.com/question/20628271

#SPJ6

Answer: x = 10

Step-by-step explanation: To find the value of x, we can start by isolating x on one side of the equation. To do this, we can first subtract 2(x+5)/4 from both sides of the equation:

X-4/3 - 2(x+5)/4 = 2

We can then multiply both sides of the equation by 12 to clear the denominators:

4x - 16 = 24

Now we can add 16 to both sides of the equation:

4x = 40

Finally, we can divide both sides of the equation by 4 to solve for x:

x = 10

Therefore, the value of x is 10.

Answer: y=x+6

Step-by-step explanation:

x-y=-6 Step One: subtract x on each side

-y=-6-x Step Two: Divide each side by -1 (which is -y)

y=x+6 Step Three: Rearrange in y=mx+b form.

I hope this is the answer you're looking for! :-)

Answer:

a) Likely

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of an event is a measure of the likelihood of that event occurring. In this case, P(chocolate chip) = 68% means that there is a 68% chance of randomly selecting a chocolate chip cookie from the batch. A probability of 68% is considered a relatively high probability, making it likely that a chocolate chip cookie will be selected.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this is correct. I'm hoping I remembered middle school math correctly. Please feel free to correct me if I'm wrong.