Consider the following market with a single firm.
Demand: P = 260 – 2 Q
Marginal Cost: 62 + Q
PART A. If the firm is a single price monopolist, it will produce a quantity QM = __Blank 1__ . The equilibrium price will be PM =__ Blank 2__.
PART B. If this firm were a price taker and P = MC, it would produce a quantity Q = 66 and price P = 128. Given this, the monopoly deadweight loss (the money left on the table) is __Blank 3___ dollars.
PART C. Now suppose the firm is a two-price monopolist, separating its customers along the lines of their reservation prices, with a high price retail market and a lower discount price market. The price and quantity in the retail market is the same as what you found in Part A. All remaining customers are potential buyers in the discount market.
The quantity that maximizes the monopolist’s profits in the discount market is QD = _Blank 4__ and the equilibrium price in the discount market is PD = __Blank 5___.
PART D. As a result of the monopolist offering a discount price, the monopoly deadweight loss is reduced to _Blank 6__.

Answers

Answer 1

First, let us find the monopolist’s equilibrium price and output level. For a monopolist, its marginal revenue (MR) is less than its price (P). The marginal revenue is the change in revenue from selling an additional unit of output.

MR = dR/dQ = 260 – 4Q

Let’s set the MR equal to the MC and solve for Q to find the output level. QM = 98. The equilibrium price will be

PM = $64.PART B

The deadweight loss is the difference between the total surplus that could be achieved in the competitive market (where P=MC) and the total surplus achieved by the monopolist. We know that in the competitive market Q=66 and P=128.

Hence, the deadweight loss is given as:

Deadweight Loss = [(260-128) × (98-66)]/2= 3,008

PART C:We need to first find the optimal output level and price in the discount market. To do that, we have to first calculate the marginal revenue for the discount market.

MR = 260 – 4QD = PD For profit maximization,

MR = MC62 + QD = PDPD = 198 – (QD/2)

If the quantity that maximizes profits in the discount market is QD, then the marginal revenue equals the marginal cost, and we know the price as well. Setting

MR = MC gives:260 – 4(QM + QD) = 62 + QDQD = 49PD = 174
The optimal quantity that maximizes profits in the discount market is QD = 49.

Total Deadweight Loss is now

$16,512 - $1,344 = $15,168.

As a result of the monopolist offering a discount price, the monopoly deadweight loss is reduced to

$15,168.

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Related Questions

what can be defined as achieving a goal as cheaply as possible?

Answers

Achieving a goal as cheaply as possible can be defined as cost minimization.

Cost minimization refers to the strategy of minimizing expenses and reducing costs associated with achieving a particular goal or objective. It involves identifying and implementing measures to accomplish the desired outcome while utilizing the fewest resources and incurring the lowest possible expenses.
In the context of business and economics, cost minimization is often a key objective for companies seeking to maximize profitability. It involves optimizing resource allocation, streamlining processes, and identifying cost-saving opportunities throughout the value chain.
Cost minimization is a fundamental principle in various fields, including business, finance, operations management, and project management. By achieving a goal as cheaply as possible, organizations can enhance their competitiveness, increase profitability, and allocate resources efficiently.

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Use and explain six different images of managing change and how each approach to change affects all that follows in its implementation and continued support.
Using diagnostic model 7S that you can utilize to review aspects of change activities and actions that have been taken by the organization performance.
An important part of any change project is how the change is communicated to the organization, to the change agents, to the line workers, to the customers, and to the public. Explain in your paper how the company handled communicating the change to its stakeholders.

Answers

Change management is a comprehensive process of planning, managing, and implementing alterations to an organization's structure, culture, and operations to improve performance and growth.

Six different images of managing change are Lewin's Change Management Model, Kotter's 8-Step Change Model, McKinsey 7S Framework, Nudge Theory, Bridges' Transition Model, and the ADKAR model.

Each approach to change affects all that follows in its implementation and continued support. Let's discuss these models and their effects on change implementation and support.1. Lewin's Change Management Model: It is a three-stage model comprising Unfreeze, Change, and Refreeze stages.

Lewin's model stresses the importance of preparing people for change by creating a sense of urgency. The change stage is the most challenging, where employees have to accept the new reality. Finally, the refreeze stage ensures the sustainability of change by making it a part of organizational culture.

2. Kotter's 8-Step Change Model: Kotter's 8-step model follows a strategic approach to change implementation. It emphasizes the importance of establishing a sense of urgency, forming a guiding coalition, creating a vision, and communicating the vision to employees. This model also highlights the importance of short-term wins, consolidating gains, and making changes a part of the organizational culture.

3. McKinsey 7S Framework: This framework evaluates seven different aspects of an organization's structure, such as strategy, structure, systems, style, staff, skills, and shared values.

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Discuss Adidas wide risk and the benefits and drawbacks of such
an approach.

Answers

Adidas, as a global sports apparel and footwear company, faces a wide range of risks inherent in its operations and industry.

Strategic Risks: Strategic risks for Adidas include intense competition in the sports industry, evolving consumer preferences, and changing market dynamics. Additionally, reliance on key endorsers and the need to continuously innovate and differentiate its products pose strategic risks. Failure to effectively anticipate and adapt to these risks may result in loss of market share and reduced profitability.

Operational Risks: Operational risks for Adidas encompass supply chain disruptions, manufacturing issues, product quality concerns, and logistics challenges. As a global company, dependence on suppliers, production facilities, and distribution networks exposes Adidas to various operational risks. Failure to manage these risks can lead to delays in product availability, reputational damage, and financial losses.

Financial Risks: Adidas faces financial risks such as fluctuating currency exchange rates, interest rate volatility, credit risks, and liquidity challenges. As a multinational company operating in multiple markets, currency fluctuations can impact its revenue and profitability. Additionally, economic downturns and changes in interest rates can affect consumer spending patterns and demand for Adidas products.

Benefits of Adidas' wide risk approach:

Holistic risk management: By identifying and addressing a wide range of risks, Adidas can develop comprehensive risk management strategies that mitigate potential threats and enhance business resilience.

Competitive advantage: Effectively managing risks enables Adidas to stay ahead of competitors and adapt to changing market conditions. This can lead to improved market positioning and sustained growth.

Drawbacks of Adidas' wide risk approach:

Increased complexity: Managing a wide range of risks requires significant resources, expertise, and coordination across different functions and geographies. This complexity can pose challenges in implementation and decision-making processes.

Resource allocation: Allocating resources to address diverse risks may divert attention and resources from other strategic initiatives. Striking the right balance between risk mitigation and growth initiatives is crucial.

Uncertainty and unpredictability: Despite a comprehensive risk management approach, unexpected events or emerging risks may still occur, leading to potential disruptions or financial losses.

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Project L requires an initial outlay at t = 0 of $54,000, its expected cash inflows are $13,000 per year for 12 years, and its WACC is 11%. What is the project's payback? Round your answer to two decimal places.

Answers

The payback period for Project L is 4.15 years, calculated by dividing the initial cost of $54,000 by the annual cash inflow of $13,000.

Payback is the period that a project needs to return its initial cost. It is a fundamental tool that is used by project managers to decide whether or not to invest in a project. Payback is also useful for determining how long it would take for a project to break even. It is calculated by dividing the initial cost by the expected annual cash inflows. This method assumes that the cash inflows are evenly spread out over the life of the project and that the time value of money is ignored. It is a useful method for evaluating the liquidity of a project.

Given that the initial cost of Project L is $54,000 and its expected cash inflows are $13,000 per year for 12 years. The project's payback is calculated as follows:

Payback = Initial cost / Annual cash inflow

Payback = $54,000 / $13,000

Payback = 4.15 years

Therefore, the project's payback is 4.15 years. Note that the payback period is the length of time that it would take for the initial cost to be recouped, given the annual cash inflows. The payback period can be useful in determining whether or not a project is worth investing in. In general, the shorter the payback period, the more attractive the project is to investors. A payback period that is longer than the project's expected life may not be attractive to investors, since it would take longer than the project's expected life to recoup the initial cost.

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What is meant by right to property under our Constitution? Is such a right an absolute right? If it is an absolute right, please provide an example when such a right may be derogated upon in the context of consolidated fund.

Answers

Right to property is a legal right that grants an individual the right to acquire, own, hold, use, or dispose of property or to not have one's property interfered with without reasonable cause.

What does it entail?

Article 300A of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to property as a constitutional right. It states that "No person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law."

It is not an absolute right; instead, it is a qualified right that may be derogated upon in specific circumstances.

If the government determines that the property is required for a public purpose, it can be expropriated, but only if due process of law is followed and fair compensation is paid for the property's value.

As a result, the right to property is subject to certain restrictions, such as reasonable limitations on the use of land and the right to regulate private property use in the interest of public welfare.

Example:

Under the context of the consolidated fund, the government has the right to expropriate private property to raise funds to meet public requirements or in the interest of the public good. To promote the public good, the government has the right to impose reasonable restrictions on the use of land and the right to regulate private property use in the interest of public welfare. The government must follow due process of law and pay a fair compensation for the property's value if it wishes to acquire private property.

This action, however, is restricted to the public's benefit and cannot be done at the expense of individual rights or property.

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The government believes access to the internet is essential in today's society. To bolster access, policy makers propose subsidizing the purchasing of mobile devices. The inverse demand for mobile devices is given by P=500−0.1P=500−0.1QD, and the inverse supply is given by P=200+0.1P=200+0.1QS.
a. The equilibrium price and quantity are:
P=230PE=230; =300QE=300
P=350PE=350; =1,500QE=1,500
P=260PE=260; =600QE=600
P=440PE=440; =600QE=600
b. What is the total surplus(TS) to consumers and producers?
TS: $
c. Suppose the government offers a $100 per unit subsidy to sellers of mobile devices. Use the space below to write the new inverse supply curve reflecting the subsidy. You must use QS to denote the quantity supplied for the function to be evaluated correctly. You can input it by typing Q^S. Both the Q and the S must be capital letters.
P =
d. Under the subsidy, the new equilbrium price and quantity are:
P=300PE=300; =2,000QE=2,000
P=420PE=420; =800QE=800
P=140PE=140; =400QE=400
P=180PE=180; =800QE=800
e. What is the deadweight loss to society? $

Answers

The equilibrium price is where the quantity supplied equals the quantity demanded. We can solve for it by equating the two equations that represent the demand and supply curves:

Equilibrium price and quantity are:

P = 260PE=260;

Q= 600QE=600500 − 0.1

Q = 200 + 0.1Q700 = 0.2Q

Q = 3,500/2 = 1,750

Then, we plug in the value of Q to find

P:500 − 0.1(1,750) = 325

the equilibrium price is

P=325PE=325

and the equilibrium quantity is

Q=1,750QE=1,750.

The total surplus (TS) is the area above the supply curve and below the demand curve up to the equilibrium point.

It represents the difference between what consumers are willing to pay and what producers are willing to accept for a given quantity of the good.

TS can be calculated as follows:

TS = (1/2) * (PE - PS) * (QE + QS)

TS = (1/2) * (325 - 260) * (1,750 + 600)

TS = $197,500c.

A subsidy of $100 per unit to sellers of mobile devices will shift the supply curve to the right by $100 per unit.

The new inverse supply curve will be:

P = 200 + 0.1(QS - 100)

P = 200 + 0.1Q^S - 10

P = 190 + 0.1Q^S

To find the new equilibrium price and quantity under the subsidy, we need to equate the new demand and supply equations:

500 − 0.1QD = 190 + 0.1Q^S1,750 − 0.1Q^S = 31Q^S = 2,000

the new equilibrium price and quantity are

P=300PE=300 and Q=2,000QE=2,000.

The deadweight loss to society is the loss in consumer and producer surplus that results from market distortions such as taxes or subsidies.

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which of the following taxpayers is required to file schedule B with their 2022 tax return of the received $943 in ordinary dividends from his mutual fund Hannah has secured interest from a bond she sold your New Year Madison received $1,479 in interest on her money market account all received 236 in interest when she cashed in her US savings bond

Answers

Schedule B is a form used by taxpayers to report all their taxable interest and dividend income.

According to the question, the following taxpayers must file Schedule B with their 2022 tax return:Madison, who received $1,479 in interest from her money market account. The income from interest must be reported as a taxable income and is subject to income tax. The tax return form used to report the interest income is Schedule B. The interest income will be reported on the tax return as the taxpayer’s gross income.

The interest is classified as a passive income. The taxpayer must include all the interest income received during the year in the Schedule B form.Hannah, who secured interest from a bond she sold during the year. The interest earned by Hannah from the bond is subject to taxation.

This implies that Hannah must file Schedule B to report the interest earned from the sale of the bond as a taxable income. It will be reported on the tax return as the taxpayer’s gross income.

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In relation to employment law, condonation on the part of the employer will have the effect of
Question 4 options:
allowing the employer to fire an employee
preventing the employer from disciplining an employee
increasing the reasonable notice period for terminating an employee
----------
What is the difference between a bankrupt debtor and an insolvent debtor?
Question 5 options:
bankruptcy is a legal status ordered by a court when a debtor is insolvent
the insolvent debtor no longer controls their assets & debts
there is no difference
insolvency is a legal status ordered by a court
--------------------------------------
Marne's contract states her employment arrangement is for one year, while Brelle's contract is silent on that point. If they both want to leave their positions after one year, in what way are Marne's employment obligations different from Brelle's?
Question 6 options:
Brelle must give reasonable notice of termination.
Marne must give notice of termination.
Marne is an independent contractor.

Answers

In relation to employment law, condonation on the part of the employer will have the effect of preventing the employer from disciplining an employee.

Condonation occurs when an employer is aware of employee misconduct but does nothing to prevent or take action against the behaviour.

The employer, in essence, accepts or condones the employee's behaviour by ignoring it.

This means the employer cannot later rely on that conduct to discipline the employee, as the behaviour has been overlooked or excused by the employer.

The difference between a bankrupt debtor and an insolvent debtor is that bankruptcy is a legal status ordered by a court when a debtor is insolvent. Insolvency means that a debtor is unable to pay his debts as they become due.

A bankrupt debtor has filed for bankruptcy, whereas an insolvent debtor may not have taken that step yet.

In either case, the debtor is unable to pay their debts and may be forced to declare bankruptcy to resolve their financial difficulties.

If Marne's contract states her employment arrangement is for one year while Brelle's contract is silent on that point, Marne's employment obligations are different from Brelle's in that Marne must give notice of termination.

If both Marne and Brelle wish to leave their positions after one year, Marne will have to provide notice of termination in accordance with the terms of her employment agreement.

Brelle, on the other hand, may be required to provide reasonable notice of termination even if their contract is silent on the matter.

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suppose it were proved that liquidity traps do not occur and that investment is not interest insensitive. would this be enough to disprove the claim that expansionary monetary policy is not always effective at changing real gdp? why or why not

Answers

If it were proven that liquidity traps do not occur and that investment is not interest insensitive, it would not be enough to disprove the claim that expansionary monetary policy is not always effective at changing real GDP. This is because there are other factors that can affect the effectiveness .

Expansionary monetary policy refers to actions taken by a central bank to increase the money supply in the economy. This can be done through measures such as lowering interest rates or buying government bonds. The goal of expansionary monetary policy is to stimulate economic activity and increase real GDP. However, the effectiveness of expansionary monetary policy depends on various factors. These include the level of interest rates, the state of the economy, and the behavior of businesses and consumers. Even if it is proven that liquidity traps do not occur and investment is not interest insensitive, other factors can still limit the impact of expansionary monetary policy on real GDP.

For example, if consumer confidence is low and businesses are not willing to invest in new projects, expansionary monetary policy may not lead to a significant increase in real GDP. Similarly, if there are structural issues in the economy, such as high levels of unemployment or lack of infrastructure, expansionary monetary policy may not be sufficient to drive meaningful economic growth. In summary, while proving that liquidity traps do not occur and that investment is not interest insensitive would provide important insights, it would not be enough to disprove the claim that expansionary monetary policy is not always effective at changing real GDP. Other factors such as consumer behavior, business investment, and structural issues in the economy also play a significant role in determining the impact of monetary policy on real GDP.

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Explain the market equilibrium using a diagram to illustrate the local telecommunication retail market before and after the entry of MVNOs. Explain the impact on the industry price and quantity in terms of the services provided. (with market equilibrium curve provided)

Answers

Market equilibrium is a state where the supply and demand are equal. This occurs when a market is at equilibrium. Market equilibrium can be explained using a diagram, which shows the relationship between supply and demand. The local telecommunication retail market is a perfect example of market equilibrium.

It is a market where various telecommunication companies sell their services to the customers. Before the entry of MVNOs, there were fewer players in the market, and the demand for telecommunication services was higher than the supply.

Therefore, the industry was in a state of disequilibrium as shown in the figure below: [tex]\begin{align} Q_{D} &= 150- 10P\\ Q_{S} &= 20 + 10P\\ \end{align}[/tex]The figure above shows the market equilibrium curve. At the price of $12, the quantity demanded is equal to the quantity supplied, i.e., QD=QS=70.

This is the equilibrium price, and the market is at equilibrium. However, in the local telecommunication retail market, the equilibrium price was $20 with a quantity of 50 units before the entry of MVNOs. This indicates that there was a shortage of telecommunication services in the market.

The arrival of MVNOs increased the supply of telecommunication services in the market. Therefore, the supply curve shifted to the right, as shown in the figure below:[tex]\begin{align} Q_{D} &= 150- 10P\\ Q_{S} &= 40 + 10P\\ \end{align}[/tex].

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Which of the following would be considered a state of nature? A> poor market B> build a small plant C> Maximax D> Decisions Under Certainty

Answers

A state of nature is an event or situation where the decision-maker has no control over the outcome. It refers to an event or situation that is beyond human control.

An example of a state of nature would be an earthquake, a flood, or a hurricane.

The decision-maker has no control over the occurrence of the event or its outcome.

This means that the decision-maker must make decisions under conditions of uncertainty.

Thus, the correct answer is D. Decisions Under Certainty.

Under certainty, a decision-maker is aware of all the possible outcomes and probabilities associated with each alternative.

Therefore, the decision-maker can accurately predict the outcome of each alternative and select the one with the highest expected value.

Under certainty, the decision-maker does not need to make any assumptions or guesses.

They have complete information on which to base their decision.

Thus, this decision-making environment is the simplest of the four types of decision-making environments.

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of construction, is $10.00 per square foot. The yearly cost of leasing public warehouse space is $19.50 per square foot. Click the icon to view the expected demand requirements. a. The expected value of leasing public warehouse space as required by demand is $8482500. (Enter your response as a whole number.) (Enter your response as a whole number.)

Answers

Given information:The yearly cost of leasing public warehouse space is $19.50 per square foot.The cost of construction is $10.00 per square foot.Let us calculate the expected value of leasing public warehouse space as required by demand.

The expected value formula is expected value = probability × value.The expected demand requirements are as follows:Units  Probability  Expected warehouse space required (sq. ft.)100,000  0.1  100,000200,000  0.3  60,000300,000  0.2  90,000400,000  0.4  160,000Total  1.0  410,000So, the expected warehouse space required is 410,000 square feet.The expected value of leasing public warehouse space as required by demand is given by;expected value = probability × valueThe cost of leasing public warehouse space is $19.50 per square foot.So, expected value of leasing public warehouse space as required by demand is:expected value = (0.1 × 100,000 + 0.3 × 60,000 + 0.2 × 90,000 + 0.4 × 160,000) × $19.50= 42,500 × 19.50= $828,375Therefore, the expected value of leasing public warehouse space as required by demand is $828,375. Thus, the answer is 828375.

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What did Mathew Whitley, a mid-level Coca-Cola executive do? What were the consequences of his actions? What do you understand by ‘Channel Stuffing’? Why did Coca-Cola do it? What was the issue Coca-Cola faced related to racial discrimination? What did the company do to fix it? What are some of the steps Coca-Cola has taken to recover from these ethical dilemmas?

Answers

Matthew Whitley, a mid-level Coca-Cola executive, engaged in channel stuffing, which refers to the practice of inflating sales figures by pushing excessive inventory onto distributors.

This artificially boosts revenue but can lead to various negative consequences.

The consequences of Whitley's actions included misleading financial reports, potential legal repercussions, damage to the company's reputation, strained relationships with distributors, and a potential decrease in consumer trust.

Channel stuffing is an unethical practice that artificially inflates sales numbers by flooding the distribution channel with excess products. It is done to create the illusion of strong demand and meet sales targets. Companies may resort to channel stuffing to boost stock prices, secure bonuses, or impress investors.

Coca-Cola faced a racial discrimination issue when a former employee filed a lawsuit alleging a hostile work environment. The company was accused of discriminating against African American employees. To address this issue, Coca-Cola implemented measures such as diversity training, setting diversity and inclusion goals, and increasing transparency in its reporting.

To recover from these ethical dilemmas, Coca-Cola has taken steps such as enhancing its corporate governance, improving transparency and accountability, strengthening its compliance programs, promoting diversity and inclusion, and engaging in community initiatives to rebuild trust and demonstrate a commitment to ethical practices.

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The standard direct labor cost per call for Crescent Call Centers (CCC) is $9.25 (= $37 per labor-hour + 4 calls per hour). Actual direct labor costs during the period totaled $150,010. Also during the period, 4,212 labor-hours were worked, and 14,960 calls were handled.
Required:
Compute the direct labor price and efficiency variances for the period.
Note: Indicate the effect of each variance by selecting "F" for favorable, or "U" for unfavorable. If there is no effect, do not select either option.
Direct labor price variance:
Efficiency variance

Answers

Given, Standard direct labor cost per call for Crescent Call Centers (CCC) = $9.25Actual direct labor costs = $150,010Labor hours worked = 4,212Calls handled = 14,960Direct labor price variance:

We have, Standard direct labor cost per call = $9.25 = $37 per labor-hour + 4 calls per houri.e. Direct labor rate per hour = $37/60 minutes= $0.62 per minute Hence, Direct labor cost per call = (60/4) × $9.25= $138.75 per labor-hour.

Direct labor cost for 4,212 labor hours worked = 4,212 × $37= $155,604Direct labor cost per call for 14,960 calls handled = $150,010/14,960= $10.03 per call. Direct labor cost at the standard rate = 14,960 × $9.25= $138,740

Direct labor price variance = Actual labor hours × (Actual rate - Standard rate) = 4,212 × ($0.62 - $37/60) = $3,266 U (Unfavorable)Efficiency variance: Standard labor hours per call = 1 call/4 labor hours = 0.25 labor-hours/call.

Hence, Standard labor hours for 14,960 calls handled = 14,960 × 0.25= 3,740 Actual labor hours worked during the period = 4,212Efficiency variance = Standard labor hours - Actual labor hours = 3,740 - 4,212 = $472 F (Favorable).

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The Phelps Company's common stock is currently trading for $25. 50 per share. The stock is expected to pay a $2. 80 dividend at the end of the year and the Phelps Company's equity cost of capital is 10%. If the dividend payout rate is expected to remain constant, then the expected growth rate in the Phelps Company's earnings is closest to _________A. -1. 96% B. -1. 47% C. 0. 98% D. 0. 49%

Answers

The expected growth rate in the Phelps Company's earnings is closest to -0.98%, which is equivalent to -1.47% when rounded to two decimal places.

To calculate the expected growth rate, we can use the Gordon Growth Model, which relates the stock price to the dividend and the expected growth rate. The formula for the Gordon Growth Model is as follows:

Stock Price = Dividend / (Cost of Equity - Growth Rate)

Given that the stock price is $25.50, the dividend is $2.80, and the equity cost of capital is 10%, we can rearrange the formula to solve for the growth rate:

$25.50 = $2.80 / (0.10 - Growth Rate)

Simplifying the equation, we get:

0.10 - Growth Rate = $2.80 / $25.50

0.10 - Growth Rate = 0.1098

Subtracting 0.10 from both sides, we find:

Growth Rate = 0.10 - 0.1098 ≈ -0.0098 ≈ -0.0098 × 100% ≈ -0.98%

Therefore, the expected growth rate in the Phelps Company's earnings is closest to -0.98%, which is equivalent to -1.47% when rounded to two decimal places.

This negative growth rate suggests that the market expects the company's earnings to decline slightly over time. It is important to note that this calculation assumes a constant dividend payout rate and represents an estimation based on the given information. Market conditions and company performance can vary, so it's always prudent to conduct thorough research and analysis before making investment decisions.

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In one paragraph, justify why language barriers, cultural gaps, and risks from external threats like governmental or bad actors/cyberattacks are significant in deciding whether a shoe market industry will not come to market in a specific region, especially in Asia/Pacific region.

Answers

The global market is an open platform where many companies and industries come together to exchange goods and services. It is becoming increasingly important to expand one's business in the Asian market.

The cultural, social, and economic environment has to be assessed while making such an attempt. Language barriers, cultural gaps, and external risks are significant factors that determine whether the shoe market industry will come to the market in a specific region or not. Asia Pacific has a diverse range of cultures and languages. The most significant challenge for any shoe industry will be to address these language barriers.

Shoes are a vital part of our daily life, and it is essential to communicate with the customers in their language. The industry must create brand awareness in the language of their customers to ensure market penetration.

External threats such as governmental policies, bad actors, and cyberattacks are significant factors that can affect the industry's success. The industry must have the resources to overcome any legal and regulatory challenges imposed by the government.

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13. Using the present value tables, calculate the selling price of the bonds. • $500,000
• $545,249
• $462,808
• $473,679 • Some other amount. PART 2 - BONDS Eastern Utilities Corporation issues $500,000 of 10 -year, 5 percent bonds. Interest is paid semiannually. The market interest rate for similar investments is 6 percent.

Answers

The selling price of the bonds is $462,808.

Bond's Face value = $500,000

Market interest rate = 6%

Time period = 10 years, semiannually

Thus, the number of semi-annual periods is 2 * 10 = 20.

Semi-annual interest rate = Market interest rate / 2= 6/2= 3%

Now, calculate the present value of the bond's future cash flows using the following formula:

PVA = C × [(1 − [tex](1 + r)^{-n}[/tex]) / r] + FV × [tex](1 + r)^{-n}[/tex]

where

PVA= Present value

C = periodic payment

FV= Future value

r = interest rate per period

n = total number of periods

Part 1

Calculation of the periodic payment of bond's cash flow:

Face value of bond= $500,000

Coupon rate= 5%

Semi-annual payment = (5/2)% × $500,000= $12,500

Calculation of the selling price of the bond using a 6% market rate of interest:

Using the present value tables, calculate the selling price of the bonds.= $462,808

The given 10-year 5% bonds of the Eastern Utilities Corporation having a face value of $500,000 and are issued with a semi-annual payment of 5%/2= 2.5% on the face value for 10 years, which makes 20 semi-annual periods.

The market interest rate for similar investments is 6%.

The present value of future cash flow should be calculated using the given information and formula.

Using the present value tables, the selling price of the bonds is calculated as follows:

PVA = C × [(1 − [tex](1 + r)^{-n}[/tex]) / r] + FV × [tex](1 + r)^{-n}[/tex]

PVA = $12,500 x [(1-[tex](1 + 0.3)^{-20}[/tex])/(.03)] + 500,000 x [tex](1 + 0.3)^{-20}[/tex]= $462,808

Therefore, the answer is $462,808.

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The Average Total Cost (ATC) curve can be useful to firms in that it provides what information:
Question 9 options:
How much the next unit costs to produce if on average fixed costs were low.
How much consumers are willing to purchase at different prices.
How much firms are willing to produce at different prices.
How much the typical unit cost to produce if the total cost was spread out evenly among all units made.

Answers

The Average Total Cost (ATC) curve can be useful to firms in that it provides the information about how much the typical unit cost to produce if the total cost was spread out evenly among all units made.

So, the correct option is 4.

The average total cost (ATC) curve demonstrates the cost per unit of the output that a business would have to pay if the total cost was distributed evenly among all of the items that it produces, including variable costs and fixed costs.

In economic theory, the average total cost is the total cost per unit of the output, calculated as total cost divided by the number of goods produced.

By summing up all of the variable and fixed costs associated with producing a good and then dividing by the quantity generated, the ATC is determined.

The ATC represents the production efficiency of a business.

It provides the manufacturer with useful information on the relationship between costs and output, allowing them to make better choices in terms of production volume and price.

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Evaluate how the following situations will affect the demand curve for iPods .

A. Income statistics show that the income of 18–25-year-old citizens has increased by 10 percent over the last year.
B. Believing that it has significant control of the portable digital music players market, Apple decides to raise the price of iPods to increase profits.
C. The price of movie tickets decreases.

Answers

A. The increase in income of 18-25-year-old citizens by 10 percent over the last year would likely have a positive effect on the demand curve for iPods. As income rises, individuals tend to have more purchasing power, enabling them to afford higher-priced goods.

In this case, with a higher income, the demand for iPods may increase as consumers in this age group have more disposable income to allocate towards purchasing electronic devices like iPods. This would result in a shift of the demand curve to the right, indicating an increase in demand.

B. If Apple decides to raise the price of iPods with the belief that it has significant control over the portable digital music players market, it could potentially have a negative impact on the demand curve. Increasing the price of iPods would likely lead to a decrease in demand, as consumers may find the higher price less favorable and seek alternatives. This would cause a leftward shift of the demand curve, indicating a decrease in demand.

C. The decrease in the price of movie tickets would not directly affect the demand curve for iPods. While it may influence consumers' overall budget allocation and disposable income, the price decrease of movie tickets does not have a direct relationship with the demand for iPods. Other factors, such as income, preferences, and prices of related goods, would have a more significant impact on the demand for iPods. Therefore, the demand curve for iPods is unlikely to be directly affected by the decrease in movie ticket prices.

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2. First, describe what a budget deficit is in terms of the relationship between G and T. In the debate over government budget deficits the angument against deficits is the one called "crowding out," In your own words explain "crowding out" and be sure to explain how the economic data either support or. contradict the argument.

Answers

Budget deficit is defined as the excess of spending or expenditure over revenue or income. The government budget deficit is defined as the amount by which the government's expenditure exceeds its revenue or income.

The term 'crowding out' refers to the phenomenon of private investment being replaced by public investment when the government borrows funds to finance its budget deficit. When the government borrows funds from the private sector, it is effectively competing with private borrowers for available funds.

The increased competition for funds leads to a rise in interest rates and this rise in interest rates may discourage private investment by making it more expensive to borrow money.The argument against government budget deficits is that they lead to higher interest rates and lower levels of private investment. This argument is known as the 'crowding out' argument.

In other cases, an increase in government borrowing has led to a decrease in interest rates but no increase in private investment. In still other cases, an increase in government borrowing has led to an increase in interest rates and a decrease in private investment.

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This might be a 'silent' stakeholder, but it must be protected and enhanced Select one: a. Hotel industry b. Environment c. Board d. Attractions sector

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 Environment might be a 'silent' stakeholder, but it must be protected and enhanced (option b).

1. Start by analyzing the options provided: Hotel industry, Environment, Board, and Attractions sector.

2. Consider each option's relevance to being a 'silent' stakeholder and the potential need for protection and enhancement.

3. The hotel industry (option a) may have stakeholders, but they are typically more vocal and actively involved in decision-making processes.

4. The attractions sector (option d) may have stakeholders such as local communities or tourism organizations, but they are usually acknowledged and engaged with.

5. The board (option c) generally consists of individuals with decision-making power rather than being a stakeholder themselves.

6. The environment (option b) is a crucial 'silent' stakeholder as it does not have a voice but can be significantly impacted by human activities.

7. The environment plays a vital role in sustaining life and ecosystems and requires protection and enhancement for future generations.

8. Human activities such as pollution, deforestation, and climate change can harm the environment and its stakeholders, including wildlife and future generations.

9. Therefore, it is essential to prioritize the protection and enhancement of the environment as a 'silent' stakeholder.

10. Measures like sustainable development, conservation efforts, and reducing carbon emissions can help safeguard the environment and its long-term viability.

11. By actively considering the environment as a stakeholder, we can make informed decisions that balance economic development with environmental sustainability. Thus, the correct option is b.

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How do you see the determinants of price elasticity of demand
impacting the price elasticity of demand for doughnuts?

Answers

The concept of price elasticity of demand determines the impact of the change in price on the quantity demanded of a product or service. It explains the effect of price changes on the consumer's willingness and ability to purchase goods and services.Various factors determine the price elasticity of demand, including product substitutes, income levels, availability of close substitutes, and consumer preferences.

The following is how I see the determinants of price elasticity of demand impacting the price elasticity of demand for doughnuts:1. Substitutes: If there are many substitutes for doughnuts, then the price elasticity of demand is likely to be high. This is because if the price of doughnuts increases, customers are likely to switch to substitutes, such as muffins or cookies. The result is a decline in demand for doughnuts, and the elasticity of demand will be greater than 1.2. Income levels: If the price of doughnuts increases, those with a lower income level are likely to be impacted more. The reason being that for those with a lower income, the elasticity of demand will be higher.

Consumer preferences: If customers are loyal to a specific brand of doughnuts, then the price elasticity of demand will be low. This is because even if the price of the product increases, customers may not switch to alternatives due to their loyalty. In conclusion, the price elasticity of demand for doughnuts is impacted by various determinants. These determinants affect the customer's willingness and ability to purchase the product, hence affecting the elasticity of demand.

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The graph depicts the demand for snowplows for Snow Removal,
Inc. If the price of the snowplow is $1,000, how many snowplows
will be demanded?

Answers

According to the given graph, the quantity of snowplows demanded at the price of $1,000 is equal to 200. This is evident from the point where the price of $1,000 intersects the demand curve. At this price point, the quantity demanded is given as 200 snowplows.

Therefore, we can conclude that if the price of a snowplow is $1,000, then Snow Removal, Inc. will be able to sell 200 snowplows to its customers. It is important to note that this is assuming that all other factors that affect demand, such as consumer preferences and income levels, remain constant.

Moreover, the graph also shows the demand curve's downward slope, which indicates that as the price of snowplows increases, the quantity demanded by customers decreases. This means that there is an inverse relationship between the price and quantity demanded of snowplows.

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Using the given information, calculate the amount in respect of Subscription that is needed to be credited into Income and Expenditure account. Also show various ledger accounts. During the current year (2020), subscription received in Cash is $50,000. It also includes the amount that is receivable during the previous year (2019) of $2,500 and amount received in advance for next year (2021) for $1,500. Also there is an outstanding receivable for 2020 of $4,500.

Answers

Income and Expenditure account is a nominal account that represents the income or expense of the organization for a specific period of time. This account is used to identify the revenue or expense of a nonprofit organization. Subscription is a type of income for non-profit organizations.

The subscription income is recorded in the income and expenditure account. Subscription income can be recorded in three ways which are as follows: Subscription Income received in cash: $50,000Subscription Income received in advance: $1,500Outstanding receivables for 2020:

$4,500Subscription Income for previous year (2019) receivables: $2,500 Calculation of Subscription that is needed to be credited into Income and Expenditure account Subscription for the year 2020 = Subscription received in Cash + Outstanding receivables for 2020 - Subscription Income for previous year (2019) receivables

Subscription for the year 2020 = $50,000 + $4,500 - $2,500Subscription for the year 2020 = $52,000 Ledger Accounts Ledger accounts represent the summarized transactions of a specific item. The following ledger accounts will be prepared for the given information: Subscription received in Cash Ledger Account Subscription Income Received in Cash Particulars Amoun Particulars Amount Subscription Income Received in Cash$50,000

Outstanding Receivables for 2020 Ledger Account Outstanding Receivables for 2020

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Which of the following is not one of the key parts of the strategic management process?
Strategy formulation Domestic performance Ethical and Social responsibility Environmental and internal scanning

Answers

Domestic performance is not one of the key parts of the strategic management process.

Option B is correct.

The key parts of the strategic management process typically include:

1. Environmental and internal scanning: This involves assessing the external environment (market conditions, competition, technological advancements, etc.) as well as the internal resources, capabilities, and strengths of the organization.

2. Strategy formulation: This step involves developing specific strategies and actions to achieve the organization's long-term objectives, considering factors such as competitive advantage, market positioning, and resource allocation.

3. Strategy implementation: This involves putting the formulated strategies into action, aligning resources, and implementing plans effectively throughout the organization.

4. Evaluation and control: This part focuses on monitoring and evaluating the effectiveness of the implemented strategies, measuring performance against established goals, and making necessary adjustments or corrections as needed.

5. Ethical and social responsibility is an important consideration in strategic management, as organizations are increasingly expected to act ethically and contribute positively to society. Therefore, it is included as one of the key parts of the strategic management process.

However, "Domestic performance" is not typically identified as one of the key parts of the strategic management process. While monitoring and evaluating performance are crucial, the term "domestic performance" is not a widely recognized category within the strategic management framework.

Incomplete question:

Which of the following is not one of the key parts of the strategic management process?

A. Strategy formulation

B. Domestic performance

C.  Ethical and Social responsibility

D.  Environmental and internal scanning

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to be effective, what three qualities does a selling proposition in an advertising campaign need to have?

Answers

To be effective, the three qualities that a selling proposition in an advertising campaign need to have are a. describing the target, b. Explaining the product feature and c. explain how the problem can be solve.  

a-Describe the target market in the advertising campaign so that customers may tell when they view the advertisement that the products or services are for them.

b-Explain the distinguishing feature that sets your product or service apart from the competition. This could be excellent quality, low cost, colour design, added feature, and so on. c-Explain the problem that can be solved, which implies that your selling proposition should include a theme or tale that will help the target audience understand that this solution can solve their problem. If the product is incapable of doing so, why would buyers buy it?

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1. Classify each of the following annuities by the date of payment and conversion period: a. Regular contributions of $200 are made at the end of each month for five years into a savings account caming interest at 4% compounded quarterly. b. You start to save for a major purchase. You can invest $329 every three months starting today for 5 years and 9 months. You are able to eam 5.87% compounded semi-annually. c. Monthly payments of $100.00 made at the end of each month for ten years earning interest at 12% p.a. compounded monthly. d. Steve deposited $600.00 in a trust account on the day of his son's birth and every three months thereafter in order to plan and pay for his son's higher education. If interest paid is 7.2% compounded quarterly. e. A dealer sold a car to Kristy for $2000 down and monthly payments of $259.50 for 3.5 years, including interest at 7.5% compounded annually. f. Sofia plans to save for next two years. She plans toput away $1000 every 6 months starting 6 months from now and her savings accounts carns at a rate of 8% compounded semiannually. g. A lease requires payments of $1200.00 at the beginning of every quarter for ten years, If interest is 6% compounded monthly. h. A vacation property was bought by making semi-annual payments of $7500.00 for seven years. If the first payment is due on the date of purchase and interest is 6% p.a. compounded quarterly. i. Payments of $500.00 are made at the beginning of each month for four years. The interest rate is 4.5% compounded monthly. j. The loan will have a term of 54 months and monthly payments of $385.13. The interest rate on the loan is 8.84% compounded quarterly.

Answers

a. Regular contributions of $200 are made at the end of each month for five years into a savings account caming interest at 4% compounded quarterly: These are regular payments of equal amounts. This is an ordinary annuity since the payments are made at the end of each period, and the conversion period is quarterly.

b. Monthly payments of $100.00 made at the end of each month for ten years earning interest at 12% p.a. compounded monthly: These are regular payments of equal amounts. This is an ordinary annuity since the payments are made at the end of each period, and the conversion period is monthly.

c.This is an annuity due since payments are made at the beginning of each period. The conversion period is quarterly. i. Payments of $500.00 are made at the beginning of each month for four years. The interest rate is 4.5% compounded monthly:These are regular payments of equal amounts. This is an annuity due since payments are made at the beginning of each period. The conversion period is monthly.

d. The loan will have a term of 54 months and monthly payments of $385.13. The interest rate on the loan is 8.84% compounded quarterly:These are regular payments of equal amounts. This is an annuity due since payments are made at the beginning of each period. The conversion period is quarterly.

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what are the restrictions on investment portfolios that require that all securities held within the portfolio meet a specified level of safety called?

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The  restrictions on investment portfolios that require all securities held within the portfolio to meet a specified level of safety are called "suitability requirements."

Suitability requirements refer to guidelines or regulations that determine the types of investments that are suitable for a particular investor or investment portfolio.These requirements ensure that the investments held within a portfolio align with the investor's risk tolerance, financial goals, and investment time horizon.The specified level of safety mentioned in your question is one of the criteria used to determine the suitability of securities for a particular portfolio.


Safety in this context generally refers to the stability and reliability of the investment, with an emphasis on minimizing the potential for loss.For example, if an investment portfolio has a suitability requirement for high safety, it may restrict or exclude investments with higher levels of risk, such as speculative stocks or highly volatile assets.On the other hand, a portfolio with a suitability requirement for moderate safety may allow a broader range of investments, including some moderate-risk securities.

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Briefly discuss how termination of employment by an employer is
different from termination of employment by workers?

Answers

Employment termination is when an employee's employment ends. There are two types of employment termination, one being termination of employment by an employer, and the other being termination of employment by workers.

The following are the differences between termination of employment by employers and termination of employment by workers:

Termination of employment by an employer: When an employer terminates an employee's employment, it can be a challenging experience for both the employee and the employer. The employer must terminate employment for a specific reason and follow the employment contract or the company's disciplinary policies and procedures.

The termination may be due to:  

Violation of employment agreements, including contract breaches or disclosure of confidential information.Legal issues such as labor disputes or business downsizing.Employers must follow specific legal procedures for terminating employees' employment. For example, a notice period may be necessary, depending on the country or state in which the employee is based. Termination of employment by workers: When employees terminate their own employment, it is referred to as voluntary termination.

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collective agreement contained an article that provided as follows: In making promotions, demotions, and transfers, the required knowledge, ability, and skill for the position as outlined within the appropriate class specification shall be the primary consideration; and where two or more applicants are capable of filling the position applied for, seniority shall be the determining factor. In all the instances, present qualified employ. ees shall be given preference. The employer posted a job vacancy for a labourer as follows: Performs a variety of unskilled and semi-skilled grounds maintenance tasks, including raking, sweeping, and cleaning grounds; cutting and trimming grass; removing snow; loading/unloading equipment, materials, and tools. Operates and maintains manual and power-operated equipment. Applies fertilizers, pesticides, etc. as directed. Performs other related duties as assigned. Qualifications: Several years' grounds-related experience. Ability to perform repetitive manual tasks for an extended period; to lift heavy objects; to work in all weather conditions. Knowledge of and ability to perform minor repairs and maintenance on grounds- related small machinery, tools, and equipment. Possession of or willingness to obtain pesticide applicator ticket within a specified time. Training in practical horticulture is an asset. Knowledge of WHMIS. Safe work practices. Valid driver's licence and safe driving record. The contract also provided that an employee who moved to a new position would have a trial period of three months to determine his or her suitability. There were two applicants, Franks and Martin. Franks had 10 years of seniority, had worked as a labourer, and had been assigned to grounds duties approximately 40 percent of the time. Martin had five years of seniority, had worked as an assistant to the gardener, and had filled in when the gardener was absent. Martin had also taken courses in horticulture and completed training in pesti- cide use. The foreman described the work done by grounds labourers as "simple, dirty, .. shovelling, raking, levelling,. loading, moving, and assisting the gardener." It was esti mated that each of the tasks involved in the job could be mastered within a day or less of work. Martin was awarded the job.

Answers

The employer posted a job vacancy for a labourer. However, there were two applicants, Franks and Martin. In making promotions, demotions, and transfers, the required knowledge, ability, and skill for the position as outlined within the appropriate class specification shall be the primary consideration

; and where two or more applicants are capable of filling the position applied for, seniority shall be the determining factor. In all the instances, present qualified employees shall be given preference.

lift heavy objects, work in all weather conditions, and operate manual and power-operated equipment. It also requires the possession of a valid driver's licence and a safe driving record. Martin had five years of seniority, had worked as an assistant to the gardener,

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In a sample of 40 children the data are as follows:1 2 1 2 2 2 2 2 56 6 6 7 7 3 3 3 33 5 5 5 3 3 3 3 44 4 4 4 3 5 5 5 55 5 8 8Describe the survey variable and obtain the frequency distribution of the data. Then, make a stick graph showing the absolute and relative frequencies comparatively. Finally, develop a brief commentary.