The extra flaps of skin are an example of Convergent evolution.
What is Convergent evolution?
Convergent evolution is the independent evolution of capabilities which might be comparable in species spanning over exclusive eras. Convergent evolution produces analogous systems having comparable features or forms.
However, they're now no longer visible withinside the last common ancestor of these units.
These structures do not reflect homology, even though they are analogous. There are similarities in the phenotypic level, where apparent characteristics are shared by lineages. The implicit DNA sequences, however, vary.
Convergent evolution occurs when species take similar ecological niches, where they accommodate in a kind of similar manner by responding to selective pressures that are similar.
Characteristics coming via Convergent evolution are called 'analogous structures'.
Therefore, the extra flaps of skin in both flying squirrels and sugar gliders are an example of Convergent evolution.
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Explain how a leaf obtains water for photosynthesis
Answer:
Leaves obtain water for photosynthesis from the air and the soil.
in a particular plant, green seed color is dominant to blue. if two plants with green seeds were crossed and resulted in 302 green and 98 blue seed plants, what was the most probable genotype of each parent?
If two plants with green seeds were crossed and resulted in 302 green and 98 blue seed plants, then the most probable genotype of each parent will be heterozygous since 3:1 phenotypic ratio is the result we can observe for a monogenic trait in a Punnett square.
What is a Punnett square?A Punnett square is a diagram used in genetics to estimate genotype and phenotypic frequencies after a cross, which may be monogenic or include more than a single gene.
In this case, the cross is between two heterozygous individuals for a monogenic trait that exhibits complete dominance, it is the reason for which we can see a proportion 3:1 in the phenotypic ratios in a Punnett square.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that a Punnett square can be used to determine the phenotypic ratios, which are statistically close to the observed in this example to a 3:1 ratio.
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the superior esophageal sphincter is closed during inhalation of air, so that air doesn't enter the and enters the and trachea instead.
When a person breathes in, the sphincter contracts and closes, preventing air from going into the esophagus and instead allowing it to go into the larynx and the trachea.
What is superior esophageal sphincter?
The term "upper esophageal sphincter" (UES) refers to the area of the esophagus that is located between the pharynx and the cervical esophagus and has a higher pressure than the rest of the esophagus. This sphincter's function in the body is to defend against the backflow of food into the airways while also preventing air from entering the digestive system. It does this by acting as a barrier.
Acid that has flowed back into the esophagus can be able to enter the throat if the upper esophageal sphincter is damaged.
Therefore, the the superior esophageal sphincter is closed during inhalation of air, so that air doesn't enter the esophagus and enters the larynx and trachea instead.
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where is the chloroplast location?
Answer:
Chloroplasts are commonly found in guard cells located in plant leaves, roughly 1–2 μm thick and 5–7 μm in diameter.
What group of organisms carry
out photosynthesis?
A. consumers
B. producers
C. decomposers
Answer:
your answer will be B which is producers because they make their own food which creates energy for them to grow and survive
What is the average of 2cm squared and 4cm squared
Answer:
((2 (cm squared)) + (4 (cm squared))) / 2 =
0.0003 m2
Explanation:
griffith experiment. why did an injection of both living. ir cells and dead iiis cells kill the mice when each of those cells individually did nothing
R-strain cells and heat-killed S-strain cells individually did not kill the cells because R-strain was non-virulent and the virulent S-strain lost its virulence due to being killed by heat. But when both were injected simultaneously in the cells, some transformation took place from heat-killed S-strain to the R-strain and the R-strain became virulent and killed the cells.
Virulence is the ability of a pathogen to cause harm to the host cell. It is a measure of the degree of capability. In Latin, the meaning of the word virulence is full of poison.
Transformation is the process of uptake of exogenous DNA which is not covered by an cell membrane or envelope.
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The hiv virus attacks only a certain type of white blood cells, and not other cell types. Why?.
HIV virus infects and destroys white blood cells called CD4+ cells. The body can no longer defend itself against infection if too many CD4+ cells are destroyed.
What is HIV?
HIV, human immunodeficiency virus, attacks the body’s infection fighting cells, which makes a person vulnerable to diseases and infections. More specifically, HIV attacks the white blood cells called the CD4+ cells.
There is no effective cure for HIV, so once you contract the virus, it stays for life. There is, however, an effective treatment with HIV medicine. But, if left untreated, HIV can lead to AIDS, acquired immunodeficiency syndrome.
AIDS is the last stage of HIV. This occurs when the immune system of the body is badly damaged.
A person is said to have progressed to AIDS from HIV when their CD4 cell number falls below 200 per cubic ml of blood.
Therefore, HIV virus infects and destroys white blood cells called CD4+ cells. The body can no longer defend itself against infection if too many CD4+ cells are destroyed.
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The genetic code consists of ____ codons that specify amino acids, and ____ codons that do not specify amino acids.
The genetic code consists of 61 codons that specify amino acids, and 3 codons that do not specify amino acids.
The genetic code specifies how many amino acids there are.The four nucleotides included in mRNA—A, U, G, and C—can combine in 64 different ways according to the codon's three-letter structure. The following 61 codons are related to amino acids, whereas the final three of these 64 codons are stop signals that signal the completion of protein synthesis.
Instead of coding for amino acids, three of the 64 potential codons indicate the end of a protein. The 61 remaining codons describe the 20 amino acids that are utilized to form proteins. Methionine is coded for by the AUG codon, which is located at the beginning of the DNA
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which of the following is an acceptable definition of an adaptation among biologists? which of the following is an acceptable definition of an adaptation among biologists? a phenotypic variant that results in the highest fitness among a specified set of variants in a given environment. a derived character that evolved in response to a specific selective agent. a trait that evolved by natural selection for a particular function (because it increases fitness) from an ancestor that did not have that trait. all of these are acceptable definitions.
The most acceptable definition of adaptation among biologists is: a trait that evolved by natural selection for a particular function (because it increases fitness) from an ancestor that did not have that trait.
Adaptation is the phenomenon of an organism adjusting to its surrounding and changing environment. This adaptation may or may not increase the fitness of the individual. Sometimes the adaptations are only to maintain the living of the organism.
Natural selection is the phenomenon of evolution where the organisms that adapt to the changing environment are able to survive better and longer than the organisms those are not able to do so.
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Which three of the following best describe what would happen if mitosis did not take place?.
Organisms would be single-celled. Asexual reproduction would not occur.
Body tissues would not repair
themselves are the best which describes what would happen if mitosis did not take place.
Mitosis refers to the procedure of cell
division, in which a cell goes through a
carefully mediated nuclear division, which results in the production of two genetically similar daughter cells. The mitosis comprises five active stages, that is, prophase, premetaphase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. In a single-celled species like an amoeba, it
is the process of mitosis by which the cells reproduce. After undergoing through the five stages of mitosis, it is via the procedure called cytokinesis, the single cell dissociates into two similar cells, thus, completing the reproduction.
During injury, the process of mitosis takes place to substitute the damaged cells. This repair is mainly essential for the blood vessels and skin that safeguards the organs and muscles in the body. Mitosis also assists to substitute the lost blood via a wound.
Thus, if the process of mitosis would not
take place, then the organism would
remain a single-cell, asexual reproduction single-cell, asexual reproduction would not take place, and the tissues single-cell, asexual reproduction would not take place, and the tissues of the body would not be able to repair single-cell, asexual reproductionwould not take place, and the tissuesof the body would not be able to repairthemselves.
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Complete question:
Which three of the following best describe
what would happen if mitosis did not take
place?
A. Organisms would be single-celled.
B. Chromosomes would not duplicate.
C. Asexual reproduction would not occur.
D. Body tissues would not repair
themselves.
E. The production of gametes would not
Occur.
All of the following factors influence the economy of a society except for which one?
*
1 point
needs & wants of people
available resources
supply & demand
healthcare available
Answer:
Economists generally agree that economic development and growth are influenced by four factors: human resources, physical capital, natural resources, and technology. Highly developed countries have governments that focus on these areas.
Carbon monoxide in cigarette smoke interferes with the ability of blood cells to carry.
Carbon monoxide in cigarette smoke interferes with the ability of blood cells to carry oxygen.
Cigarette smoke contains carbon monoxide, which binds to hemoglobin in red blood cells, reducing the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity. Carbon dioxide levels, blood pH, body temperature, environmental factors, and diseases can all have an impact on oxygen transport and delivery. With an increase in carbon dioxide and temperature, as well as a decrease in pH within the body, hemoglobin's oxygen-carrying ability decreases. Smoking raises the number of leukocytes, neutrophils, lymphocytes, and monocytes in the blood, as well as the hematocrit, hemoglobin, and mean corpuscular volume. The smoking relationships observed were long term for white blood cell indices and short term for red blood cell indices.
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which body region would have the most sensory receptors and in turn have more space dedicated to them in the primary somatosensory cortex?
The area of the body that will have the most sensory receptors and is dedicated to them in the primary somatosensory cortex is a sense of touches such as the skin, soles of the feet, or the palms of the hands.
What is a sensory receptor?A sensory or receptor is an organ or cell that is useful for receiving stimuli. By using this tool, the nervous system recognizes changes in various forms of energy, both in the internal and external environment. 7 sensory systems must be stimulated as early as possible for optimal development, namely tactile, vestibular, proprioceptive, olfactory, visual, auditory, and taste.
The primary somatosensory cortex is the anterior portion of the parietal lobe (Brodmann areas 3, 1, and 2), located behind the central area and anterior to the parietal association areas (Brodmann areas 5, 7, 39, and 40). This division receives information from the ventral posterior nucleus of the thalamus. The somatosensory cortex is the main receptive area for the sense of touch, kinesthesia (movement), and proprioception (body position).
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a student stimulated his earthworm twice with a stimulus interval of 1ms and a voltage above the threshold for the median axon (but below the threshold of the lateral axon). he only saw one biphasic waveform response. explain what is occurring inside the median axon to prevent the second biphasic waveform. also, how many action potentials do you expect are being generated by his stimulation?
A student stimulated his earthworm twice with a stimulus interval of 1ms and a voltage above the threshold for the median axon (but below the threshold of the lateral axon) result of an action potential propagating past our negative and positive electrodes.
A threshold is what you step across when you input a room. A threshold takes you from one vicinity into any other, and when you're approximately to begin something new, you're also on a threshold. A threshold is a point of departure or transition.
Threshold electricity (FTP): you may estimate FTP with your high-quality current 20-minute strength value (either from a committed 20-minute take a look at or a sufficiently tough 20-minute effort from a race or exercising). Multiply that price by ninety five% to get your FTP. you can also estimate FTP from a latest best 45-60 minute electricity output.
In electrophysiology, the edge capability is the important stage to which a membrane capability need to be depolarized to initiate an motion potential. In neuroscience, threshold potentials are necessary to modify and propagate signaling in both the important fearful device (CNS) and the peripheral anxious gadget (PNS).
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Although stress does not create cancer cells, it may affect their growth by suppressing the activity of: lymphocytes. ... .oxytocin. the adrenal glands.
We hypothesised that central oxytocin might be involved since stress causes intracerebral oxytocin release irrespective of gender.
A major area of study in this subject is how stress impacts our ability to fight off illness.Psychoneuroimmunology's main goal is to comprehend how stress impacts our ability to resist illness. Emotion-focused coping is most typified by trying to lessen stress by avoiding or ignoring a stressor.
When you make an effort to reduce stress in a direct way, as by altering the stressor you are utilising?Problem-focused coping is the attempt to actively reduce stress by altering the stressor or how one interacts with that stressor.
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What happens to the rate of
photosynthesis as temperature
decreases?
A. The rate will stay the same.
B. The rate will decrease.
C. The rate will increase.
Answer:
c
Explanation:
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The most important adaptive advantage associated with the filamentous nature of fungal mycelia is.
The large surface area that the filamentous form of fungal mycelia offers is the most significant adaptive benefit suitable for invasive growth and absorptive feeding.
A mycelium, also known as mycelia, is a fungus's root-like structure made up of a mass of branching, thread-like hyphae. Mycelium-based fungi can be found in and on soil as well as many other substrates. A mycelium can be small, growing into an invisible colony, or it might expand to cover thousands of acres, as in the case of Armillaria.
Due to their function in the microbial breakdown of plant matter, mycelia are essential to both terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems. As they grow, they add to the organic portion of the soil and release carbon dioxide into the atmosphere. Many soil invertebrates rely on mycelium as a major food source. Nearly all plant species depend on them, and many species have coevolved with fungus, making them essential to agriculture and to all plant species. Mycelium plays a key role in the fitness of plants by influencing their health, nutrient uptake, and growth.
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The human genome project was launched in 1986 to better understand the human genome, when was it completed?.
The human genome project was launched in 1986 to better understand the human genome, completed in 2003.
What is human genome project ?The Human Genome Project was an international scientific research project aimed at determining the base pairing of human DNA and identifying, mapping and sequencing all the genes of the human genome physically and functionally. Construction began in 1990 and was completed in 2003.The Human Genome Project will chemically sequence the entire human genetic makeup (i.e., the whole genome), identify all 50,000 to 100,000 genes in the genome, and provide the research tools to analyze them all.It is an international research project whose main mission is to genetic information.Despite the controversy, HGP was initiated in his 1990s, led by American geneticist Francis Collins, with support from the US Department of Energy and the National Institutes of Health (NIH). Scientists around the world quickly joined the effort.To learn more about human genome project from the given link :
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Compared to the cell in g1, the number of chromosomes in one cell _______ after the s phase and _______ after the m phase.
Compared to the cell in G1, the number of chromosomes in one cell is 14 after the S phase and 14 after the m phase.
A cell's growth and division are governed by a series of events known as the cell cycle. The majority of a cell's time is spent in interphase, where it grows, replicates its chromosomes, and gets ready for cell division. After that, the cell enters mitosis, completes its division, and leaves interphase.
In the G1 phase, the cell synthesizes, and in the S phase, DNA replication, the cell cycles in the order G1–S–M.
In the beginning, there were 14 chromosomes in the G1 phase.
The number of chromosomes does not change during the S phase. Thus, there are once more 14 chromosomes.
Again, there is no change at the beginning of the M phase.
Thus, the cell will have the chromosome number at G1, after S, and after M stage individually are
14,14,14.
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(complete question)
Compared to the cell in g1, the number of chromosomes in one cell _______ after the s phase and _______ after the m phase. if it has 14 chromosomes at the beginning of interphase?
Accuracy in the translation of mrna into the primary structure of a polypeptide depends on specificity in the _____.
Accuracy in the translation of mRNA to the primary structure of polypeptide depends on the binding of the anticodon to the codon and the attachment of amino acids to tRNAs.
On what does translation of mRNA depends?
The main components required for translation are mRNA, ribosomes, transfer RNA and other enzymatic factors. mRNA carries the sequence information for the protein to be synthesized.
The translational efficiency of a given mRNA depends on concentration in the cell and sequence as well as on the available cellular resources, including pools of free ribosomes, aa‐tRNAs and availability of translation factors.
Assessing a translation for accuracy can be done by working from side-by-side printouts, systematically uncovering and assessing short sections of text.
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Sunlight hits different locations on Earth with varying intensity. How does this
differential heating affect the atmosphere?
A. At the equator, insolation is less intense, so the air is warmer and
rises.
B. At the equator, insolation is more intense, so the air is warmer and
rises.
C. At the equator, insolation is less intense, so the air is warmer and
sinks.
D. At the equator, insolation is more intense, so the air is warmer and
sinks.
The differential heating affect the atmosphere because at the equator, insolation is more intense, so the air is warmer and rises and is denoted as option B.
What is Insolation?This is a term which is referred to as the amount of solar radiation that is received by a planet. The energy in this process has some absorbed and reflected in the atmosphere and is more intense at the equator.
This high intensity causes the air to be heated which makes it warmer and rises up and is therefore the reason why option B was chosen as the correct choice.
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DNA is considered the blueprint of life, yet in eukaryotic organisms such as humans, it never leaves the nucleus. Which of the following is the BEST explanation for how DNA provides the code for protein synthesis in the cytoplasm?
Inside the nucleus, DNA is translated into mRNA, which then leaves the nucleus before being transcribed into proteins.
The DNA in the nucleus is transcribed into mRNA, which then leaves the nucleus and be translated into proteins at the ribosome.
The DNA in the nucleus is translated into proteins, which then leave the nucleus and enter the cytoplasm where transcription of mRNA can occur.
Under the right conditions, DNA is converted into tRNA, which then leaves the nucleus and is translated into proteins.
DNA is the blueprint of life that never leaves the nucleus but yet makes protein, so the statement saying "The DNA in the nucleus is transcribed into mRNA, which then leaves the nucleus and is translated into proteins at the ribosome" is true. The second option is true.
How does the DNA regulate the cell?Because DNA preserves the genetic content of the organism, it does not enter the cytoplasm directly to encode the protein in eukaryotes. So it transcribes the mRNA, which further goes to the cell cytoplasm and codes for the proteins with enzymes and ribosomes. In this way, DNA being in the nucleus regulates the cell and protein synthesis.
Hence, the second option is true regarding this process.
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What is the sequence of the 5’ end of the mrna transcribed from this prokaryotic gene?.
The prokaryotic gene's mRNA transcript's 5' end has the sequence UUGA.
During transcription, what happens at the 5 end?Transcription comes to a halt during termination, which happens when RNA polymerase crosses a stop (termination) sequence in the gene. The finished mRNA strand separates from the DNA.
Does mRNA's 5' end mark the beginning of translation?There are unique initiation locations where translation starts rather than just at the 5' end of the mRNA. Therefore, the 5' terminal sections of mRNAs from prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells are noncoding sequences known as 5' untranslated regions.
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During gene expression, when dna is being transcribed into rna, the non-coding sections are removed. The remaining coding segments are connected. This process is called.
The process in which the non-coding sections of the DNA are removed and the coding sections are connected is referred to as splicing.
After the process of transcription, the mRNA that has been produced in not ready to be translated. This is because it contains the introns and the exons.
The introns are the non-coding region of the DNA whereas the exon is the coding region of the DNA.
The non-coding regions of the DNA do not code for any known proteins and hence are removed before the translation process. The process through which the introns or the non-coding regions are removed is referred to as splicing.
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remove plasma water and solutes by adding dialysate. b. remove fluids and solutes through the process of convection. c. remove plasma water in cases of volume overload. d. combine ultrafiltration, convection and dialysis
Continuous Veno-venous hemofiltration is used to: (b) remove fluids and solutes through the process of convection.
Continuous Veno-venous hemofiltration is a form of treatment for the people with acute renal failure. This treatment is pursued when the patient is unstable and cannot tolerate hemodialysis. In this the dialysis catheter is inserted into the veins.
Convection is the method of movement of solvent and even some solutes through a semi-permeable membrane. This process is applied in the process of dialysis. The solutes gets adsorbed in the surface of membrane and therefore being removed. A hydrostatic or transmembrane transmembrane pressure gradient is involved in this.
The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
Continuous veno-venous hemofiltration is used to
remove fluids and solutes through the process of convection.remove plasma water in cases of volume overload.remove plasma water and solutes by adding dialysate.combine ultrafiltration, convection, and dialysis.To know more about dialysis, here
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Males with high fertility rates tend to _______. Select both answers that apply.
arrange these taxonomic terms from most inclusive (most general) to least inclusive (most specific). 1. tetrapods 2. animals 3. amniotes 4. vertebrates 5. deuterostomes
deuterostomes → vertebrates → animals→ tetrapods → amniotes
taxonomic terms from most inclusive (most general) to least inclusive (most specific).
What does biological classification entail?
Taxonomic ranks are used in biology to categorize organisms. These ranks include, among others (in order from most inclusive to least inclusive): Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species, and Strain.
Taxonomy is the science of categorization in the broadest sense, but it is more specifically the classification of living and extinct creatures, or biological classification.
Therefore, Domain (most inclusive), kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, and species make up the taxonomic hierarchy from most to least inclusive.
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What type of mutation has occurred in the following example?
A.) deletion mutation
B.) insertion mutation
C.) point mutation
Which letter choice is correct? A, B, or C? Use screenshot to help
If a drug that specifically prevented the interaction of cytochrome c with other proteins was added to respiring mitochondria in a test tube, what effects would be observed?.
The cell won’t be able to completely oxidise glucose if an additive molecule that hinders the electron transport chain is applied. As a result, less oxygen is consumed.
When complex I is inhibited by antimycin A, electron transport from complexes or flavoproteins containing FADH2 to cytochromes is prevented.In this instance, the initial Complex Ill constituents are completely reduced and the subsequent constituents are oxidised. The final complex of eukaryotic oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria is called cytochrome c oxidase. This process combines the reduction of electron carriers during metabolism with the reduction of molecular oxygen to water as well as the transfer of protons from the inner matrix of the mitochondria to the intermembrane gap.Adenosine triphosphate, an energy-carrying molecule, is present in the cells of all living things (ATP). ATP stores the chemical energy produced by the disintegration of food molecules before releasing it to drive other cellular processes.Cells often require chemical energy for three types of tasks: driving metabolic activities that wouldn’t occur naturally; transferring required materials across membranes; and doing mechanical work, like flexing muscles.
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