For a patient who has severe dysfunctional uterine bleeding, intervention that is the priority is : transfuse blood
What is Dysfunctional uterine bleeding?Dysfunctional uterine bleeding is described by periods that are too short or too long and also bleeding that's too heavy or that contains many clots.
Some of the symptoms of abnormal uterine bleeding are: Pelvic pain or uncomfortable pressure or menstrual bleeding lasting more than 7 days.
Any uterine bleeding that takes place independent of menstruation or bleeding that is heavier or lasts longer than usual is called as dysfunctional uterine bleeding. It can sometimes prove to be a sign of a serious medical condition.
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at 10-weeks gestation, a high-risk multiparous client with a family history of down syndrome is admitted for observation following a chorionic villi sampling (cvs) procedure. what assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
At 10-weeks gestation, a high-risk multiparous client with a family history of down syndrome is admitted for observation following a chorionic villi sampling (cvs) procedure therefore the assessment finding which requires immediate intervention is uterine cramping and is denoted as option A.
What is Uterine cramping?This is referred to as the process in which the uterus contracts to help expel its lining and is common during the menstrual period in which the hormone known as prostaglandins triggers it.
Since we are dealing with a pregnant individual then the assessment finding which will require immediate intervention is uterine cramping so as to prevent the expulsion of the content of the uterus lining such as the fetus thereby making option A the most approrpiate choice.
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The options are:
A. Uterine cramping.
B. Intermittent nausea.
C. Systolic blood pressure < 100 mmHg.
D. Abdominal tenderness.
b. if the best-case round-trip message transit time is 124 msec (0.124 sec), what is the error of the clock on the client?
According to the given condition, there is no error from the client end, but the time taken is the number of network hops done by the
server
.
Round trip time (RTT) is the duration from when a
browser
sends a request to another server and waits for the response. It is measured in milliseconds. RTT is typically measured using a ping sound — a command-line tool that bounces a request off a server and calculates the time taken to reach a user device. Actual RTT may be higher than that measured by the ping due to server throttling and network congestion.
There are few factors that affect the RTT such as
distance
- the length of a signal to travel correlates with the time taken for a request to reach a server and a response to reach a browser.
Transmission
medium – the medium used to route a signal (e.g., copper wire, fiber optic cables) can impact how quickly a request is received by a server and routed back to a user
Network
hops - the intermediate route the server takes time to cover is known as network hops.
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the home health nurse is developing a treatment care plan for an older retired client with medicare insurance. what factor will the nurse take into consideration as the plan is developed?'
The home health nurse is developing a treatment care plan for an older retired client with medicare insurance and factor taken into consideration as the plan is developed is treatments are covered by publicly funded health care plan.
A home health nurse, will work one-on-one together with the client within the comfort of their homes. This enables you to develop deeper relationships and add a a lot of personal setting than a medical workplace or hospital. Different perks of being a home health nurse embrace having a lot of independence and autonomy than in ancient nursing roles, with the pliability to choose your own schedule. And whereas several in-home nurses are RNs, the task is additionally a good entry-level role—perfect if you are a commissioned job nurse (LVN) or nurse trying to realize a lot of expertise and doubtless earn your baccalaureate in nursing.
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an order is written for cyclosporine 5 mg/kg iv. how many milliliters of a 50 ml bag containing 100 mg of cyclosporine per milliliter should be administered to a 165 pound liver transplant patient? (answer must be numeric; no units or commas.)
A patient receiving a transplant who weighs 165 pounds should be given 3.75 milliliters of the a 50 ml package containing 100 mg or cyclophosphamide per milliliter.
What is patient or patience?Like a word, "patience" is the capacity to wait patiently or put up with adversity for a long period of time without being upset or angry. The plural version of the term "patient," however—"patients"—designates a person that receives medical attention.
What type of person is patient?Here are a few indicators that you are dealing with a patient person: Instead of moving forward without the complete knowledge, support, or resources they require, they would choose to wait for them. They have the capacity to reflect and slow down during work.
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an 20-year-old primipara is getting ready to go home. she had a second-degree episiotomy with repair. she confides in the nurse that she is afraid to go to her postpartum checkup because she is afraid to have the stitches removed. which reply by the nurse is best?
20-year-old primipara is getting ready to go home. she had a second-degree episiotomy with repair Anticipatory Guidance.
Multipara refers to a female who has had or more possible pregnancies. This term is used irrespective of whether or not the infant is born alive. The pregnancy ought to closing as a minimum 20 weeks for it to be considered a possible being pregnant. Primipara describes a lady who has had one viable being pregnant.
A lady who has by no means carried a pregnancy past 20 weeks is nulliparous and is referred to as a nullipara or para zero. A lady who has given birth as soon as is primiparous and is called a primipara or primip. A female who has given start , three, or four times is multiparous and is referred to as a multip.
“Nulliparous” is a fancy medical phrase used to describe a lady who hasn't given birth to a child. It would not always imply that she's in no way been pregnant — a person who's had a miscarriage, stillbirth, or non-compulsory abortion but has in no way given delivery to a live baby remains known as nulliparous.
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the nurse providing care for the laboring woman should understand that late fetal heart rate (fhr) decelerations are the result of:
The nurse providing care for the laboring woman should understand that late fetal heart rate (fhr) decelerations are the result of Uteroplacental insufficiency
What is Uteroplacental insufficiency ?Placental insufficiency is a disorder in which placental vascular remodelling fails, impairing placentation and causing acidosis and foetal hypoxia.
A visibly discernible, progressive decline in the foetal heart rate, usually occurring after the uterine contraction, is referred to as late deceleration. A steady decrease is one that takes 30 seconds or more to go from the beginning to the lowest point.Both improper placental growth and placental injury can result in placental insufficiency. When you are carrying twins or more, for instance, the placenta may not always develop to the proper size. Sometimes it doesn't attach to the uterine wall adequately or has an irregular form.Learn more about Uteroplacental insufficiency here:
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a nurse asks a client who is 10 weeks' pregnant about her alcohol use. the client admits she sometimes has several glasses of wine with dinner. how would the nurse respon
The nurse would warn the client about Learning disability.
What is Learning disability ?The capacity to comprehend or use spoken or written language, perform mathematical computations, coordinate motions, or focus attention are all impacted by learning difficulties. Even though they can affect very young children, learning problems are typically not identified until the kid is of school age. According to research, 8 to 10 percent of American youngsters under the age of 18 suffer from a learning problem.Special education is the most typical form of treatment for learning difficulties. A diagnostic educational evaluation that determines the child's academic and intellectual potential and level of academic performance may be carried out by educators with specialized training. After the evaluation is finished, the fundamental teaching strategy is to build on the child's skills and strengths while addressing and making up for any weaknesses or disabilities.Learn more about Learning disability refer :
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a client asks the nurse whether the client needs to alter any of the client's activities because the client is taking lithium carbonate. which response would be most appropriate?
The most appropriate response is to increase the salt intake slowly as it helps one to perspire heavily.
Lithium carbonate is used to treat bipolar disorder.
It is a mood stabilizing and calming effect in individuals
one should not increase or decrease the salt intake, as it may affect.
as, less salt can make your lithium levels rise, while increasing your salt intake can cause it to fall.
if you intake less sodium diet (salt), best to avoid a low-sodium (low-salt) diet as it can increase the levels of lithium in your blood and also increase the level of Na intake.
Patient should also take some precautions before taking lithium like,
1. A patient with liver, heart damage should not intake lithium carbonate
2. one who is breastfeeding should avoid.
3. Problem with thyroid function
4. or, taking any other medicines.
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the nurse is administering milrinone to a client with heart failure. the nurse should prioritize what assessment when monitoring the client for common adverse effects?
The nurse should prioritize Blood pressure assessment when monitoring the client for common adverse effects
What is heart failure ?When your heart cannot pump enough blood for your body's requirements, heart failure, also referred to as congestive heart failure, occurs. This may occur if your heart is unable to pump enough blood. Another scenario is when your heart is unable to pump blood effectively.
Milrinone lowers arterial pressure, the pressure at the end of the left ventricle, and PVR while raising cardiac index. The heart rate can rise, though this is not always the case, and bradycardia can also happen.Patients with Class III and IV heart failure are more likely to die and require hospitalisation when receiving long-term oral milrinone treatment. The risk seemed to be higher in patients with NYHA Class IV symptoms.Learn more about Heart failure here:
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tran is a 12-year old patient who is experiencing back pain. upon examination, you notice that his vertebral column has a pronounced lateral curvature, along with weakness in the muscles on one side, particularly in the thoracic region. an mri scan of his back shows two herniated discs between t8 and t9 and t9 and t10. what is the diagnosis?
MRI scan of his back shows two herniated discs between T8 and T9 and T9 and T10 so the diagnosis is scoliosis and the muscle weakness allowed the curvature to develop, which then compressed the discs in the lower thoracic region, leading to herniation.
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is a style of scan that uses sturdy magnetic fields and radio waves to provide elaborate pictures of the within of the body. A MRI scanner could be a massive tube that contains powerful magnets. You lie within the tube throughout the scan.
Scoliosis is a sideways curvature of the spine that almost all typically is diagnosed in adolescents. Whereas spinal curvature will occur in individuals with conditions like brain disease and inherited disease, the explanation for most childhood spinal curvature is unknown. Most cases of spinal curvature area unit gentle, however some curves worsen as kids grow.
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which patient is least likely to develop a buildup of metabolic acid? a healthy, poorly-oxygenated man using carbohydrates as his primary source of energy. a healthy, well-oxygenated man using carbohydrates as his primary source of energy. a healthy, well-oxygenated man using protein as his primary source of energy. a healthy, well-oxygenated man using fat as his primary source of energy.
b. A healthy, well-oxygenated man using carbohydrates as his primary source of energy is least likely to develop a buildup of metabolic acid.
What is metabolic acidosis?
The buildup of acid in the body due to kidney disease or kidney failure is called metabolic acidosis. When your body fluids contain too much acid, it means that your body is either not getting rid of enough acid, is making too much acid, or cannot balance the acid in your body.
What happens when acid builds up in your body?
Metabolic acidosis itself causes rapid and deep breathing as your body tries to compensate for it. Confusion or lethargy may also occur. Severe metabolic acidosis can lead to shock or death.
How do carbohydrates affect the metabolic rate?
Studies have suggested that low-carbohydrate diets increase your metabolism compared to high-carbohydrate diets, which may help you lose more weight.
Thus, a healthy, well-oxygenated man using carbohydrates as his primary source of energy is least likely to develop a buildup of metabolic acid.
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a subject in a clinical research trial experiences a serious, a subject in a clinical research trial experiences a serious, unanticipated adverse drug experience. how should the investigator proceed, with respect to the irb, after the discovery of the adverse event occurrence? adverse drug experience. how should the investigator proceed, with respect to the irb, after the discovery of the adverse event occurrence?
Report the adverse drug experience in a timely manner, in keeping with the IRB's policies and procedures, using the forms or the mechanism provided by the IRB.
What is an adverse drug experience?An Adverse Drug Experience is any adverse reaction that occurs following the use of a drug product. ADEs can be mild (itching, sneezing) to severe (death). ADEs include complaints of ineffectiveness, product defects and human safety associated with the handling of animal drug products.
Adverse drug reactions are classified into six types (with mnemonics): dose-related (Augmented), non-dose-related (Bizarre), dose-related and time-related (Chronic), time-related (Delayed), withdrawal (End of use), and failure of therapy (Failure).
Examples of such adverse drug reactions include rashes, jaundice, anemia, a decrease in the white blood cell count, kidney damage, and nerve injury that may impair vision or hearing. These reactions tend to be more serious but typically occur in a very small number of people.
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characteristics of the dash diet include which of the following? a. rich in fruits and vegetables b. low-fat dairy products c. low in saturated fat d. low in carbohydrates are. low in cholesterol f. high in omega-6 fatty acids g. low in total fat
A DASH diet is high in fruits, whole grains, and vegetables. Dairy products with no or little fat, fish, poultry, beans, and nuts are all included.
What does DASH DIET stand for?The DASH diet is high in fruits, vegetables, whole grains, reduced dairy products, and lean protein yet low in sodium. Dietary Strategies to Stop High blood pressure is known as DASH. The diet was initially developed to assist in reducing excessive blood pressure.
The DASH diet includes what foods?This strategy suggests: eating whole grains, fruit, and veggies. Dairy products with no or low fat, fish, poultry, legumes, nuts, & vegetable oils are a few examples. restricting the consumption of foods high in calories, such as high fat, whole-fat dairy products, or tropical oils including coconut, palm kernel, & palm oils.
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when assessing a patient with a behavioral issue, you need to ask questions about three contributors: proper cns functioning, whether the patient took hallucinogenic or other drugs/alcohol, and:
when assessing a patient with a behavioral issue, you need to ask questions about three contributors: proper CNS functioning, whether the patient took hallucinogenic or other drugs/alcohol, and Significant life changes.
Behavior patterns that are disruptive and harmful to you and those around you are categorized as behavioral disorders. When these disorders are not treated, they can have an impact on adult life and make it difficult for you to maintain healthy relationships, a regular job, and other functions of a typical adult. These disorders are typically diagnosed and treated in early childhood.
The body's processing center is the central nervous system. The brain controls most bodily processes, including awareness, movement, thought, speech, and the five senses of sight, hearing, feeling, tasting, and smelling.
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which intervention will a nurse expect to implement in a patient newly diagnosed with an oral candida infection in the mouth and throat
Teach the patient how to take nystatin with an oral candida infection in the mouth and throat.
How do you get Candida infection?In the body, including the mouth, esophagus, gut, and vagina, Candida often exists without creating any issues. If vaginal conditions change to favor Candida growth, an infection may result. Infections may be more likely to occur as a result of factors such as hormones, medications, or immune system abnormalities.
Is Candida a serious infection?An infection known as invasive candidiasis is brought on by a yeast called Candida, which is a form of fungus. Invasive candidiasis is a dangerous illness that can affect the blood, heart, brains, eyes, bone, and other regions of the body, unlike vaginal "yeast infections" or Candida diseases in the mouth and throat (commonly known as "thrush").
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he home care nurse is visiting a client who is in a body cast. while performing an assessment, the nurse plans to evaluate the psychosocial adjustment of the client to the cast. what is the most appropriate assessment for this client?
The nurse plans to evaluate the psychosocial adjustment of the client to the cast therefore the most appropriate assessment for this client is sensory stimulation and is denoted as option 1.
Who is a Nurse?This is referred to as a healthcare professional who specializes in taking care of the sick and ensuring that adequate recovery is achieved in other to prevent complications.
The most appropriate assessment which is necessary for a a client who is in a body cast is to stimulate the sensory parts so as to be sure that here are no nerves damaged which is therefore the correct choice.
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The options are:
1. The need for sensory stimulation
2. The amount of home care support available
3. The ability to perform activities of daily living
4. The type of transportation available for follow-up care
Which part of patient interaction involves the health care worker letting patients know how well they performed and giving pointers about getting better results the next time?.
Feedback and follow-up involve the health care worker letting patients know how well they performed and giving pointers about getting better results the next time.
What happens in the feedback and follow-up stage?
They should let patients know how well they performed and give any pointers or tips about getting better results the next time.
What is important in patient interaction?
Empathy, strong communication, and shared decision-making are essential for a positive patient-provider relationship.
What type of response looks at the patient as a person and acknowledges his or her concerns and feelings?
Empathy, after all, means seeing something from another's perspective—understanding how and why a person thinks and feels a certain way.
Thus, feedback and follow-up is the correct answer.
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when performing a scrotal assessment, the nurse notices that the scrotal contents transilluminate and show a red glow. on the basis of this finding the nurse would:
If transillumination of scrotum show a red glow the the nurse would suspect the presence of serous fluid in the scrotum.
When the processus vaginalis is not completely eliminated, a communication connection between the tunica vaginalis and the peritoneum permits serous fluid to gather around the testicles. Similar to testicular neoplasms, the ensuing hydrocele manifests as a painless swelling of the scrotum. Transilluminating the scrotum makes it easy to distinguish between the two situations because a solid tumor will not transmit light while a hydrocele will seem softly red.
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when a patient experiences a severe spinal injury, he or she: a.most commonly has a palpable spinal deformity. b.might lose sensation below the level of the injury. c.will likely be paralyzed from the neck down. d.often loses motor function on one side of the body.
When a patient experiences a severe spinal injury might lose sensation below the level of the injury.
A spinal cord injury can motivate one or more signs and symptoms including Numbness, tingling, or a lack of or changes in sensation in the fingers and toes. Paralysis could take place immediately or develop over the years as swelling and bleeding affect the spinal wire. pain or pressure in the head, neck, or lower back.
Surgical treatment is on occasion had to evaluate the injured spinal cord, stabilize fractured backbones, launch the strain from the injured area, and manipulate some other accidents that may have been a result of the accident. Your treatment might also encompass: remark and scientific management inside the extensive care unit (ICU)
Diagnostic checks for spinal wire injuries may additionally consist of a CT scan, MRI, or X-ray these exams will help the medical doctors get a better look at abnormalities in the spinal wire. Your physician can be capable of seeing precisely where the spinal cord injury has befallen.
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a patient calls the clinic for instructions before having a papanicolaou (pap) smear. the most appropriate instructions from the nurse are:
when a patient called the clinic for instructions before having a Papanicolaou (pap) smear, the most appropriate instructions from the nurse delivered are: avoid douching within 24 hours of your appointment, intercourse, and inserting anything into the vagina.
The Pap test could be a method that collects cells from the cervix so that they can be looked at closely within the lab to discover cancer and pre-cancer. The professionals at first place a speculum interior of the vagina. The speculum may be a metal or plastic instrument that keeps the vagina open so that the cervix can be seen clearly. Following, employing a little spatula or brush, a test of cells and mucus is delicately scratched from the exocervix, later a little brush or a cotton-tipped swab is embedded into the opening of the cervix to collect a sample from the endocervix. In case your cervix has been evacuated as a portion of the treatment for cervical cancer or pre-cancer, the cells collected from the upper portion of the vagina will be examined.So it is advised to avoid intercourse, douching within 48 hours, op inserting a tampon, and applying the cream as during the test it may wash off the cellular deposits and may change the Ph level of the vagina.
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the nurse is preparing to explain what a co-occurring disorder is to the family of an adolescent client diagnosed with bipolar disorder and daily marijuana use. what information is most important for the family to understand about the complexity of a co-occurring disorder?
Co-occurring disorders (CODs) are undertreated illnesses that have serious effects on the people who have them as well as their families. Between 30% and 45% of adolescents and young adults with mental health disorders and 65% or more of children and teenagers have a co-occurring substance use disorder.
What are the co-occurring disorders that are most frequently diagnosed?Five disorders that co-occur most frequently
Generalized anxiety disorder (type 1) (GAD)
Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder, number two
Stress Disorder, number three
Clinical Depression (#4)
5. Bipolar illness.
What is the most effective method of assessing co-occurring disorders?Tools for Co-Occurring Disorders Assessment
Index of Addiction Severity (ASI). Identification Test Use Disorder. Form III for Mental Health Screening. Scale of Columbia Severity Rating
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a healthcare professional assesses a patient who presents with a single lesion on the trunk that is circular, demarcated, and salmon pink. the lesion measures approximately 3 to 4 cm in diameter. what treatment option does the professional educate the patient about?
A single lesion called a "herald patch" marks the beginning of pityriasis rosea. Typically found on the trunk, this lesion is circular, demarcated, salmon pink, and measures 3 to 4 cm in diameter.
What is defined as healthcare?Efforts done, especially by educated and qualified experts, to preserve or restore one's physical, mental, or emotional well-being. used with a hyphen as necessary. When provided effectively, health care may play a key role in a nation's economy, growth, and industrialization as well as in fostering the general physical, mental, and social well-being of its citizens.
What is the purpose of healthcare?Commercial firms focus on making money in order to retain their value and remain in business. Health care must prioritise making a social profit in order to fulfil its promise to society.
Other categories of health services include nutritional support, pharmaceutical care, laboratory and diagnostic services, dental care, substance abuse treatment, preventative care, physical and occupational health, and preventative care..
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which program is designed to manage the physical and personal safeguard of the patients served, staff, and individuals coming to the organization? group of answer choices
The codes of ethics of professional organizations serve as safeguards for the wellbeing of human study subjects.
What are the codes of programs for organizations?
The rules and expectations that the organization expects its members to uphold when doing daily tasks within the organization are referred to as the organization's codes of ethics.
It should be mentioned that professional organizations' rules of ethics contain safeguards for the wellbeing of human study subjects.
The set of rules that individuals and organizations must abide by when making decisions is known as the code of ethics in an organization.
A few examples of a common code of program at a company are:
Integrity
Objectivity
Professional competence and due care
Confidentiality
Professional behaviour.
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the nurse is caring for a patient the first postoperative day following a laparotomy for a small bowel obstruction. the nurse notices new bright-red drainage about 5 cm in diameter on the dressing. which action should the nurse take first?
The nurse is caring for a patient on the first postoperative day following a laparotomy for a small bowel obstruction. the nurse notices new bright-red drainage about 5 cm in diameter on the dressing Continue to take vital signs every 15 minutes.
A laparotomy is a surgical incision (cut) into the abdominal hollow space. This operation is executed to take a look at the stomach organs and aid prognosis of any issues, consisting of stomach ache. in lots of instances, the trouble – as soon as diagnosed – can be fixed throughout the laparotomy. In other instances, a 2nd operation is required.
Laparotomy is essentially a surgery that involves a big incision in the abdomen to facilitate a procedure. even as laparoscopy is a minimally invasive surgical operation which every so often referred to as a keyhole surgical procedure as it makes use of a small incision.
A laparotomy is probably needed to look for problems within the stomach or internal organs or to deal with a particular circumstance. for example, it might be executed to discover why you've got belly (tummy) pain, when you have damage in your stomach, to have a look at the unfold of sure sicknesses along with endometriosis and most cancers.
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to determine a client's state of nitrogen balacnce, a 24 hour urinary urea nitrogen collection is done. what additional action must be taken to ensure the lab value is assess correctly
The additional action to be taken to ensure lab value is assessed correctly is to add a coefficient of 4 to that number to account for nitrogen lost in feces, hair, nails, and skin
Proteins contain a lot of nitrogen. The difference between the amount of nitrogen consumed and the amount excreted in the urine and faeces is known as nitrogen balance. The majority of nitrogen is excreted as urea in the urine, but between 30% and 50% of it can also be found in feces.
When it comes to the digestion of dietary carbohydrates, particularly starch and non-starch polysaccharides (dietary fibre), the human large intestine is important. Only lately has the possibility of considerable protein degradation occurring in the colon been recognised. Total nitrogen entering the human large bowel from the terminal ileum ranges from 05 to 4 g per day.
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hjeff is a dietician and is going to perform several clinical/physical observations on his client. these will include obersevations such as
These will include observations such as Changes in skin color, eyes, fingernail shape, and hair texture.
What does a dietitian do?Registered dietitians assist patients who are having trouble losing weight or who require dietary improvements for other medical conditions, such as managing diabetes. They collaborate with patients to comprehend their individual requirements and difficulties before creating a meal plan.
Is the dietician a doctor?Some hospitals refer to their registered dieticians as "clinical nutritionists" to emphasize that they do more than just lay out diet plans; they also work with patients to treat their diseases. It's crucial to realize that dieticians are allied healthcare professionals but not medical doctors.
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what are two ways to tell if bleeding is life-threatening? select all that apply. volume spread flow range quality
That is oozing blood from the wound. continuously flowing blood from the wound. The ground is covered in blood.
Half a can of soda worth of blood loss is considered to be life-threatening in an adult. Even though it may be relatively less severe, bleeding can nonetheless be fatal in children and infants. Take quick action if blood is squirting, pooling, or streaming continuously. The person's activities are considerably hampered by the disease and/or treatment's moderate to severe side effects. The individual's condition is anticipated to deteriorate gradually. Their illness is in its latter stages or is about to.
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the nurse is caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with an elevated cholesterol level. the nurse is aware that plaque on the inner lumen of arteries is composed chiefly of what?
A patient is been diagnosed with an elevated cholesterol level and the nurse is aware that plaque on the inner lumen of arteries is composed chiefly of lipids and fibrous tissue.
As T-lymphocytes and monocytes infiltrate to ingest lipids on the blood vessel wall and so die, a fibrous tissue develops. This causes plaques to make on the inner lumen of blood vessel walls. These plaques don't accommodates white cells, lipoproteins, or high-density cholesterin.
Elevated cholesterol level is when there is an excessive amount of cholesterin within the blood, the cholesterin and different substances might kind deposits (plaques) that collect on artery walls. Plaques will cause associate degree artery to become narrowed or blocked. If a plaque ruptures, a grume will kind. Plaques and blood clots will scale back blood flow through an artery.
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the nurse and occupational therapist are planning an outdoor volleyball game and picnic for eight mental health clients. what action should the nurse take for the two clients taking nortriptyline for depression?
The nurse and occupational therapist are planning an outdoor volleyball game and picnic for eight mental health clients. hypokalemia.
Occupational therapists deal with injured, unwell, or disabled patients thru the healing use of regular activities. They assist those sufferers to expand, get better, and improve, as well as preserve the abilities wished for daily living and operating.
Occupational remedy (OT) is a department of health care that facilitates human beings of every age who have bodily, sensory, or cognitive troubles. OT can assist them to regain independence in all regions of their lives. Occupational therapists help with barriers that affect a person's emotional, social, and bodily needs.
Occupational therapy helps human beings whose fitness, surroundings, or social situations make it tough to participate in the activities that count to them. An occupational therapist will paint with you to pick out strengths and problems you can have in ordinary existence.
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impaired swallowing indicates the need for a: group of answer choices mechanically altered diet. low-sodium diet. fat-restricted diet. low-fiber diet.
Impaired swallowing indicates the need for a mechanically altered diet.
Dysphagia, or impaired swallowing, is a condition that makes it difficult to consume food or liquids without choking.
The throat's muscles and nerves are weakened as a result of this disorder.
Conversely, a mechanically changed diet is a unique form of food created for people with dysphagia or any other type of swallowing issue. This diet is made by adjusting the food's consistency.
For instance, swallowing aids such soft foods, purred foods, ground meat, etc.
Therefore, foods that are easy to swallow are included in mechanically changed diets.
Impaired swallowing may be a short-term or long-term problem, and it may be fatal. Dysphagia can affect people of any age, but older folks are more likely to develop it.
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