g B. PROTEINS 1. Name the gastric enzyme that initiates protein digestion. Explain how this enzyme is activated. Pepsin is the gastric enzyme that initiates protein digestion. It is activated by stomach acid into the active form. It then breaks down the protein in our food into smaller particles like peptide fragments and amino acids. 2. Name the ducts in the pathway by which pancreatic juice flows from the pancreas to the duodenum. The Pancreatic duct. 3. Describe 3 ways the body uses these amino acids..

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

1-the gastric enzyme is pepsin, which is why it is a peptidase, since it catalyzes the binding of proteins within the stomach. Its activation method is the acidic pH of the stomach.

2-Pancreatic juice is a juice that hydrolyzes and helps the digestion of proteins or peptides, since this is the EXOCRINE substance of the pancreas, this juice being exocrine is poured into the main pancreatic duct of the pancreas and then through the choledochol in the blister of toilet at intestinal level.

3-amino acids are used by the body for hormonal, transport, and structural purposes. It also has other functions such as the conformation of the same DNA, but there are 3 that must be answered.

Explanation:

Proteins have structures or junctions that are quaternary, tertiary, binary, and primary.

the easiest to degrade with the quaternary and tertiary while the other two do not.

It is important that you know this fact why these structures are ordered from the outside to the inside or inside the protein, the outermost ones are the quaternary ones and the innermost ones are the primary ones.

A protein ceases to be protein and becomes free and separated amino acids when it reaches the heart of the protein and breaks the primary bond, or the sea the strongest and most difficult to break.

These amino acids have multiple functions but they can be said which, when united, are the unit that makes up proteins or peptides.


Related Questions

To determine if the substance in the first test tube
above is indeed a meat, you could also test it
using

Answers

Answer:

Biuret solution

Explanation:Just did the lab

Your phylogenetic analysis resulted in 100 equally optimal trees and you would like to summarize the results showing only clades that are found in all trees. Therefore, you would use the:______

a. Majority rule consensus algorithm
b. Strict consensus algorithm
c. Adams consensus algorithm
d. The bootstrap algorithm

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is option B.

Explanation:

Strict consensus algorithm is the most restrictive approach that includes only that components that are shared by all the members of the group. In the strict consensus tree only those trees would be considered shared clades by all the trees.

The clades must be exact same or replicated in all the trees in this type of algorithm to analysis of the phylogenetic group. A 100% threshold in support leads to the Strict consensus trees algorithm.

Thus, the correct answer is : option B.

In the lab on Trophic Interactions you were looking at behavior of mosquito larvae. The question being asked was: Does prey behavior change in the presence of a predator? What would be an appropriate null hypothesis for this experiment? Recall in Treatments 2 and 3, a predator was added to the mosquito tanks.

Answers

Answer:

Null hypothesis: the behavior of mosquito larvae doesn't change in the presence/absence of predators added to the tanks in Treatments 2 and 3.

Explanation:

In statistics, the null hypothesis states that there are no differences between the two variables tested in the experiment, while the alternative hypothesis uses the experimental data in order to reject the null hypothesis. In this case, the alternative hypothesis will use the data from treatments 2 and 3 to confirm that predators can modify the behavior of mosquito larvae.

Why are detritivores, decomposers and omnivores not assigned trophic levels

Answers

Answer:

The reason is because detritivores and decomposers and omnivores are multilevel food chain consumers in an ecosystem making them not qualified to be assigned to a given trophic level

Explanation:

An organism is placed in a trophic level based the level it is from where the food chain starts with the start of the food chain having a level of 1 for the food producers such including plants and algae

Level 2 organisms are called primary consumers and consists of organism that eat only plants known as herbivores such as cattle

Level 3 organisms are called secondary consumers and consists of animal eating organism known as carnivores such as foxes  etc.  

Level 4 organisms are called tertiary consumers  

Level 5 organisms are the a p e x p r e d a t o r s

Detritivores and decomposers such as bacteria, earthworm flies fungi consume the wastes produced at all trophic levels, therefore they cannot be assigned to a particular trophic level

Similarly, omnivores consumes both plants at level 2 and animals at level 3 making it ambiguous to assign them to one particular trophic level.

Scenario: You are a research scientist and are working with eukaryotic cells obtained from a newly discovered organism, Oviductus oblatus. You want to determine if this organism’s cells are similar in structure an organization to other eukaryotic cells. You collect the cells and examine them using a light microscope and a cell stain in an attempt to see the internal cellular structures. Lo and behold you are happy because you are able to see particular structures using this method. You find the following features: Organism’s cell are able to move Internal structures appears to be made of protein fibers Internal structures protein fibers measured 7.0 nanometers diameter Internal structures protein fiber appears to be two strands intertwined with each others Based on this information you come to the conclusion that you have been able to identify in these cells the structure of ____. You conclude the cells of Oviductus oblatus are indeed (name the main type of cell it appears to be) ______ cells. Discussion: Post your answers for the above scenario and include evidence that supports your choice

Answers

Answer:

Based on this information you come to the conclusion that you have been able to identify in these cells the structure of microfilaments or actin filaments. Oviductus oblatus are indeed eukaryotic cells

Explanation:

In eukaryotic cells, the cytoskeleton is composed of three well defined filamentous structures: microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filaments. Each of these filamentous structures is a polymer of proteinic subunits united by weak, not covalent connections.

The microfilaments are the thinnest of the three structures. They have a diameter of 7 nanometers and are composed of many proteinic monomers united. This monomeric protein is called actin. Many monomers get combined to form a structure that assembles a double helix.

Due to the fact that these microfilaments are made of actin monomers, they are also known as actin filaments.

Actin filaments have directionality which means that their extremes have different structures.

In eukaryotic cells, genes that codify for actin microfilaments are highly conserved in all organisms, which is why they are often used as molecular markers for different studies.          

You come upon an outcropping of sandstone while working in the field in Southern Utah. You notice cross-beds. Which of the following would you be able to determine about this deposit, just from looking at it? Group of answer choices A.the complete mineral composition of the sandstone B.the direction of the wind at the time it was deposited C.the tectonic history of the deposit D.the origin of the sand in the deposit

Answers

Answer:

B. the direction of the wind at the time it was deposited

Explanation:

Cross beds refers to those rock beds which are formed due to the deposition of bed forms such as dunes. These cross beds are the group of inclined layer which is formed due to the flowing of water or wind. These rock beds represents the movement or direction of wind and water at the time of deposition and as a result cross beds are formed. So we can say that cross beds were formed due to the direction of wind.

Which of the following body parts has striped muscles?

Answers

Answer:

- Heart

Step by step explanation:

Answer:

Heart

Explanation:

phosphate from atp is removed to make adp and a free phosphate molecule

Answers

Answer:

ATP is a nucleotide consisting of an adenine base attached to a ribose sugar, which is attached to three phosphate groups. ... When one phosphate group is removed by breaking a phosphoanhydride bond in a process called hydrolysis, energy is released, and ATP is converted to adenosine diphosphate (ADP).

Interplanetary material that enters the earths atmosphere and collides with the ground rather than burning up is called

Answers

Explanation:Meteorito o meteoro

Which is an example of the way matter cycles through the bodies of living
things?
A. Salmon swimming in a river
B. Salmon eating shrimp
C. Shrimp swimming in the ocean
D. People watching salmon
SUBMIT

Answers

C I think, I mean it’s the only logical answer, hope this helps!

in what way do these trees suggest that some of these species of blood flukes have switched hots?

Answers

Answer:

Prevention. The basic means of preventing Schistosoma infection is avoiding contact with fresh water infested with Schistosome parasites. Swimming, wading, or any other aquatic activities in these bodies of water exposes the skin to possible penetration by the cercariae.Explanation:

Name a serious disease caused by protozoa​

Answers

Answer:

African sleeping sickness is caused by protozoa in the Trypanosoma genus. These organisms are carried by the tsetse fly and transmitted to humans via tsetse fly bites. According to the World Health Organization, Trypanosoma brucei gambiense causes more than 90 percent of African sleeping sickness cases.

soil erosion soil erosion can be prevented by the following ways except A. mulching B. erracing C. strip cropping D. deforestation E. planting of cover crops​

Answers

Answer:

Answer is D, Deforestation

Explanation:

Hope this helps

Have a nice day :D

In lab we looked at succession using marine organisms. The process of succession also happens because of wildfires, and those communities do recover and follow the general model of succession. Below is a photo I took one year after a fire at Lake Tahoe. You can see see the burned trees in this photo. What proportion of r-selected species relative to K- selected species should we expect to see at this early stage of recovery?

Answers

The given question is not complete, the complete question is:

In lab we looked at succession using marine organisms. The process of succession also happens because of wildfires, and those communities do recover and follow the general model of succession. Below is a photo I took one year after a fire at Lake Tahoe. You can see see the burned trees in this photo. What proportion of r-selected species relative to K-selected species should we expect to see at this early stage of recovery? a.  # of r-selected species > # of K-selected species b. # of r-selected species = # of K-selected species c. # of r-selected species < # of K-selected species. The diagram is given in the attachment below.

Answer:

The correct answer is option A, that is, the population of r-selected species will be more in comparison to the k-selected species.

Explanation:

Based on the evolutionary strategies, the preferred selection of the species that generate small body sizes, short life span offspring, and exhibit early semelparity and thrive in unstable surroundings is r-selection. These species possess the tendency to overcome the huge loss of offspring and are considered opportunists.  

On the other hand, the preferred selection of the species that exhibit delayed reproduction, generate few large body size, possess long life span offspring and iteroparity, and thrive in stable surroundings is k-selection. Thus, it is clear that the r-selected species will be more in number than the species that are k-selected as r-selection plays an essential role in the initial phases of succession.  

Anaplerotic reactions serve to:__________.
a) divert materials out of the citric acid cycle for use in biosynthesis.
b) regulate energy production by bypassing the citric acid cycle.
c) replenish the citric acid cycle if it becomes depleted of intermediates by biosynthetic demands.
d) produce pyruvate, which initiates the cycle when glucose degradation is not occurring.

Answers

Answer: Option C.

replenish the citric acid cycle if it becomes depleted of intermediates by biosynthetic demands.

Explanation:

Anaplerotic reactions that form intermediates for kreb cycle, citric cycle. They form intermediates for metabolic pathways like citric cycle. The citric cycle is important for energy production and biosynthesis. Anaplerotic reactions help to restore or replenish intermediates in citric cycle if there is depletion of intermediates biosynthetic demands.

You are running an experiment to study seed germination and accidentally left a dish of seeds covered with a little water in a totally dark room. When you return a few days later, you notice that the seeds have sprouted long roots and long shoots. What was the source of most of the matter that makes up these roots and shoots?A. oxygen in the airB. carbon dioxide in the airC. water in the dishD. glucose in the seed

Answers

Answer:

D. glucose in the seed

Explanation:

Plants generally make their food through the process of photosynthesis in the presence of sunlight by utilizing carbon-dioxide and water and produces oxygen and carbohydrate.

But due to the absence of sunlight, plant will be unable to use carbon dioxide and water for photosynthesis and oxygen is a by-product.

So the reason of seed germination is the presence of glucose in the seed. Seeds generally germinate through the process of inhibition, that require uptake of water. Glucose works as energy source in humans and plants as well. sugar or glucose allow the seed to utilize the water and help foster its growth.

Hence, the correct option is D. glucose in the seed.

Consider how the following behaviors, characteristics, or facts affect the risk for CVD. Determine whether each increases, decreases, or has no effect on the risk for CVD.

a. Having elevated LDL cholesterol levels
b. having reduced HDL cholesterol levels
c. being a premenopausal woman
d. being exposed to secondhand smoke
e. participating in exercise
f. having elevated HDL cholesterol levels.

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Having elevated LDL cholesterol levels - this increases the risk for CVD as it also brings about CHD

Having reduced HDL cholesterol levels- this increases the risk of CVD as a low HDL increases omes risk of CVD at lower rates

Being a premenopausal woman - I dont think this has any effect on the risk for CVD

Being exposed to secondhand smoke -

This also increases the risk of stroke associated with CVD

- participating in exercise: this decreases the risk of CVD

Having elevated HDL cholesterol levels - this decreases ones risk of CVD as it helps to clear cholesterol from arteries delivering them back to the lover and reducing the risk for CVD

All 113 baby mice in an experiment are Rr, the parents are probably (do a Punnett square to be sure)

a

RR x RR

b

RR x rr

c

Rr x Rr

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is option B.

Explanation:

If am individual cross between two true breed mice the probability of offspring with heterozygous condition  is 100 percent in such cross. True breed is an individual organism with homozygous for the particular character either dominant or recessive.

So, if mice with RR (purebred or homozygous dominant) bred with mice with  rr (homozygous recessive), all the offspring will be heterozygous in genotype which is Rr.

Thus, the correct answer is : option B. (Punnet square is attached)

Answer:

B

Explanation:

Give an example of a biological mutagen

Answers

Answer:

An example of a biological mutagen is Bacteriophage MU.

Other examples of mutagen are radioactive substances, ultraviolet radiation and certain chemicals

Which of the following is not a cause of water pollution?
a jet fuel
b laundry soap
c ammonia
d none of the above​

Answers

Answer:

D) none of the above

Explanation:

took the quiz on edgenudity

The right answer is (a) jet fuel.

What is water pollution?

Water pollution refers to the presence or introduction of harmful substances or pollutants into bodies of water such as lakes, rivers, oceans, and groundwater.

These pollutants can come from a variety of sources, including natural and human-made sources. While there are many different types of pollutants that can cause water pollution, some of the most common sources of water pollution include:

Industrial waste: Industries and factories release a variety of pollutants into water bodies, such as chemicals, heavy metals, and organic compounds.

Agricultural runoff: Fertilizers and pesticides used in agriculture can leach into waterways and cause significant pollution. Agricultural runoff can also contain soil, animal waste, and other contaminants that can degrade water quality.

Sewage and wastewater: Sewage and wastewater from homes and businesses contain a wide range of pollutants, including human waste, chemicals, and pharmaceuticals. These pollutants can have serious impacts on aquatic life and human health.

A jet fuel is not typically a cause of water pollution. While spills of jet fuel or other petroleum products can occur and can cause significant harm to aquatic ecosystems, they are not one of the most common causes of water pollution.

The most common causes of water pollution include things like industrial waste, agricultural runoff, sewage and wastewater, and improper disposal of household chemicals and medications.

Learn more about water pollution at:

https://brainly.com/question/19920929

#SPJ7

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a.The Moon usually sets about 12 hours after it rises.
b.The Moon rises in the west and sets in the east.
c.The Full Moon rises around sunset.
d.The Moon takes a little more than 29 days to orbit the Earth.

The answer is b

Answers

Answer:

the answer is b

Explanation:

the sun sets in the south

7. A similarity between New Zealand and Australia is that- *

the native populations in both countries are the Aboriginies.

the monarch for both countries is Queen Elizabeth II.

neither country depends on tourism to boost their economy.

the nickname "Kiwi" refers to both Australians and New Zealanders.

Answers

Answer:

the monarch for both countries is Queen Elizabeth II.

Explanation: They are Island nations of the south Pacific.

The two countries were colonized  by Abel Tasman, but were colonized by the British.Therefore recognized the Queen as the monarch. They both have a stable society and progressive movements. Both countries have good standard of living, with high sense of innovation and share almost the same type of food, wines, culture and music. They also have one of the best Diary  farms in   the world. They love the same sports-Rugby.

Karl wants to devise a green and novel way to power some LEDs in a swimming pool as part of his science project. Consider the swimming pool when its in use to be a model of the ocean. Which form of renewable energy will he be able to generate from the swimming pool? A. tidal B. wind C. wave D. geothermal

Answers

Explanation:

I doubt between options b and c

Answer:

Wave

Explanation:

I just took the test on plato and it was correct :)

During digestion fat is broken down into

Answers

Answer:

Lipase

Explanation:

Lipase enzymes break down fat into fatty acids and glycerol. Digestion of fat in the small intestine is helped by bile, made in the liver.

Based on the objective you should feel comfortable calculating expected genotype frequencies when given observed allele frequencies. You should also be able to compare expected genotype frequencies from HWE to observed frequencies and determine if evolution is occurring.Here's a sample problem. You can do this without a calculator!Let's take the noob gene, a gene with two known alleles that determines feather color in the eastern lark. The two alleles, let's call them delta and gamma, can be sequenced. In fact, looking at a population in southern GA, you discover that 60% of the alleles in the population are the delta allele.1. What is the percentage of the gamma allele in the population?2. Even more interesting, based on HWE what is the expected frequency of the population that is homozygous gamma? 3. Now, after surveying an isolated population of eastern larks, you find that 20% of the population is homozygous gama (gamma gamma), 65% heterozygous (gamma delta) and 10% homozygous delta (delta delta) and 5% of the population is a previously undescribed genotype - zeta zeta (homozygous zeta). What can you conclude about evolution in the population and why? If evolution is occurring, which mechanism(s) would be responsible?

Answers

Answer and Explanation:

60% of the alleles in the population are the delta allele

1. What is the percentage of the gamma allele in the population?

According to Hardy-Weinberg, the allelic frequencies in a locus are represented as p and q, referring to the allelic dominant or recessive forms. The genotypic frequencies after one generation are p² (Homozygous dominant), 2pq (Heterozygous), q² (Homozygous recessive). Populations in H-W equilibrium will get the same allelic frequencies generation after generation. The sum of these allelic frequencies equals 1, this is p + q = 1.

In the same way, the sum of genotypic frequencies equals 1, this is

p² + 2pq + q² = 1

Being

p the dominant allelic frequency, q the recessive allelic frequency, p²the homozygous dominant genotypic frequency q² the homozygous recessive genotypic frequency 2pq the heterozygous genotypic frequency

According to the sum of the allelic frequencies

p + q = 1

1 equals 100%

100% ------ 1

60%------0.6

40%------0.4

The percentage of gamma allele in the population is 40%.

2. what is the expected frequency of the population that is homozygous gamma?

The genotypic frequencies, F, after one generation are p² (Homozygous dominant), 2pq (Heterozygous), q² (Homozygous recessive).

F(gamma)= p²= 0.4²=0.16 =16%

F(delta)= q²= 0.6²=0.36 = 36%

F (gamma-delta) = 2xp2q= 2 x 0.4 x 0.6 = 0.48 = 48%

3.  20% of the population is homozygous gama (gamma gamma), 65% heterozygous (gamma delta) and 10% homozygous delta (delta delta) and 5% of the population is a previously undescribed genotype - zeta zeta (homozygous zeta). What can you conclude about evolution in the population and why? If evolution is occurring, which mechanism(s) would be responsible?      

20% gamma-gamma

10% delta-delta    

65% gamma-delta  

5% zeta-zeta  

This population has different genotypic frequencies with respect to the population in southern GA:

The gamma genotypic frequency is a little bit higher in the isolated population (16% vs 20%)

The delta genotypic frequency is considerably lower in the isolated population (36% vs 10%)

The heterozygotic genotypic frequency is also higher in the isolated population (18% vs 64%)

It appeared a new phenotype in the isolated population, probably due to a mutation in one of the genes. We can assume that this is a new mutation because its frequency is still low (5%).

Maybe, the mutation occurred in an individual of the isolated population, and with time, this mutation increased its frequency, up to a point of being phenotypically visible. This could be a case of a bottleneck example.

The founder effect is a special case of genetic drift, where a few organisms of one population settles down in a new area carrying the genes of the original population.  

Genetic drift is the random change in the allelic frequency in a population, from one generation to the other. The magnitude of this change is inversely related to the size of the original population. These changes produced by genetic drift accumulate in time, and eventually, some alleles get lost, while some other might get set.      

Founder effect refers to the consequences that occur from the origin of a new population that derives from a small number of founder individuals that come from an ancestral bigger population. This small group shows poor genetic variation and a high possibility of expressing a peculiar allelic composition. Some mutation might occur and it can accumulate in time.

     

The trait for medium-sized leaves in iris is determined by the genetic condition PP'. Plants with large leaves are PP, whereas plants with small leaves are P'P'. The trait for red flowers is controlled by the genes RR, pink by RR', and white by R'R'. A cross is made between two plants each with medium-sized leaves and pink flowers. If they produce 640 seedlings, what would be the expected phenotypes, and in what numbers would they be expected

Answers

Answer:

See the answer below

Explanation:

Medium size leaves genotype = PP'

Large leaves genotype = PP

Small leaves genotype = P'P'

Red flower genotype = RR

Pink flower genotype = RR'

White flower genotype = R'R'

Two plants each with medium-sized leaves (PP') and pink flowers (RR') were crossed.

PP'RR'   x   PP'RR' (let PP' = Aa and RR' = Bb)

Progeny and expected phenotypes

1 PPRR - large leaves, red flower = 1/16 x 640 = 40 seedlings

2 PPRR' - large leaves, pink flower = 2/16 x 640 = 80 seedlings

2 PP'RR - medium leaves, red flower = 2/16 x 640 = 80 seedlings

4 PP'RR' - medium leaves, pink flower = 4/16 x 640 = 160 seedlings

1 PPR'R' - large leaves, white flower = 1/16 x 640 = 40 seedlings

2 PP'R'R' - medium leaves, white flower = 2/16 x 640 = 80 seedlings

1 P'P'RR - small leaves, red flower = 1/16 x 640 = 40 seedlings

2 P'P'RR' - small leaves, pink flower = 2/16 x 640 = 80 seedlings

1 P'P'R'R' = small leaves, white flower = 1/16 x 640 = 40 seedlings

8. The function of lipoproteins in blood serum is to:
a. aid in blood clotting
b. transport cholesterol
c. maintain pH
d. remove defective red blood cells​

Answers

B. Transport cholesterol

I need the answers to this question super quick!! Thank yoh

Answers

Answer:

They are "anti" condons or "stop" condons

Explanation:

Viruses reproduce by .

Answers

the virus attaches itself to the host cell and inserts it's genetic material into it. then the host cell spreads the viruses genetic material which will result in spreading the virus.

true or false if you click on the name of a structure you identified incorrectly or correctly you will be taken to the module in APR where you can review this structure

Answers

Answer:

True.

Explanation:

When you are given a given structure and you ick on it to know if its correct or wrong you will be taken to a module on APR where u can review this structure and see clearly if it's right or wrong. That is how the website as be programmed. Once you click on it, u are automatically directed to APR to review and clarify your answers.

Other Questions
SL Part 1: Function Families > 01: Graphs and Functions22. Find the constant of variation k for the direct variation.f(x)2-17-3.5Ok= -2Ok=0Ok=0.5Ok= -0.5 A politician holds a press conference that is televised live. The sound picked up by the microphone of a TV news network is broadcast via electromagnetic waves and heard by a television viewer. This viewer is seated 2.7 m from his television set. A reporter at the press conference is located 5.5 m from the politician, and the sound of the words travels directly from the celebrity's mouth, through the air, and into the reporter's ears. The reporter hears the words exactly at the same instant that the television viewer hears them. Using a value of 343 m/s for the speed of sound, determine the maximum distance between the television set and the politician. Ignore the small distance between the politician and the microphone. In addition, assume that the only delay between what the microphone picks up and the sound being emitted by the television set is that due to the travel time of the electromagnetic waves used by the network. Topic: ProbabilityOnly complete question 9. Do 4/ A,B for 11 points. The perimeter of a right triangle is 24 meters, and the area is 24 square meters. The lengths of the sides are each multiplied by 4. What is the area of the new triangle? help Find the length of side AB. Give your answer to 1 decimal place. Assuming 100% efficient energy conversion, how much water stored behind a 50 centimetre high hydroelectric dam would be required to charge battery Practice 7 : Essay Descriptive You recently attend a wedding.Describe the wedding. how is part iv different from the other parts of the story what is its purpose "the nose"? Jason has two pairs of pants, four shirts, and two pairs of shoes from which to choose to wear to school. How many possible outcomes does Jason have? A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16 a is directly proportional to b. When a is 6, b is 72. Find b when a is 8. 3 Rovinsky Corporation, a company that produces and sells a single product, has provided its contribution format income statement for November. Sales (5,700 units) $ 319,200 Variable expenses 188,100 Contribution margin 131,100 Fixed expenses 106,500 Net operating income $ 24,600 If the company sells 5,300 units, its net operating income should be closest to: Los lados de un tringulo rectngulo miden 6m, 8m y 10m. respectivamente. Cunto medirn los catetos de un tringulo semejante al primero si su hipotenusa mide 15m? The density of atmosphere (measured in kilograms/meter3) on a certain planet is found to decrease as altitude increases (as measured from the planet's surface). What type of relationship exists between the altitude and the atmospheric density, and what would the atmospheric density be at an altitude of 1,291 kilometers?A. inverse plot, 0.45 kilograms/meter3B. inverse plot, 0.51 kilograms/meter3C. quadratic plot, 1.05 kilograms/meter3D. inverse plot, 1.23 kilograms/meter3E. inverse plot, 0.95 kilograms/meter3 The Industrial Revolution began in Great Britain for all of the following reasons except _____. A- high taxesB- entrepreneursC- skilled workers A point (3, 2) is reflected across the x-axis followed by a reflection across the y-axis. Find the image of the point after the described transformations. answers: A) (3, 2) B) (3, 2) C) (3, 2) D) (3, 2) Help!You have just finished writing a personal narrative.Which questions could you ask yourself to make sure you have developed a well-written story? Select all that apply. (Select more than one)A) What was the purpose of my story, and did I achieve that purpose?B) How did I use sensory language in descriptions in my story?C) How long is my story, and should it be longer?D) What will the readers reaction be to my story? Tengo muchos libros y mucha ropa, y soy muy ordenado. Para m las cosas ms importantes son mi ___ para los libros y mi ___ para mi ropa. Will this check make them rich? Why does Travis think they will be rich? A raisin in the sun. The system of equations above has solution (x,y).What is the value of x ?