which of the following possible mechanisms for how enhancers can stimulate transcription from great distances are currently thought to be correct?
Enhancers are DNA-regulatory regions that trigger the transcription of a gene or genes to higher levels than would be the case in their absence. These elements work at a distance by generating chromatin loops to bring the enhancer and target gene into proximity
Gene expression is specifically regulated at two levels. First, the amount of mRNA that can be produced from a specific gene is restricted, which controls transcription. The second level of control involves post-transcriptional processes that manage how mRNA is translated into proteins.
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Determining relationships between alleles
You decide to conduct a genetic analysis of these mutant lines by crossing each with a pure wild-type line. The numbers in the F2 indicate the number of progeny in each phenotypic class.
From these results, determine the relationship between the mutant allele and its corresponding wild-type allele in each line.
Label each mutant line with the best statement from the list below. Labels may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Codominance. The dominance in which the two alleles or traits of the genotypes (of both homozygotes) are displayed simultaneously in offspring is referred to as codominance (phenotype). In cross-breeding, neither a dominant nor a recessive allele exists.
How do genes and alleles relate to one another?A gene is a segment of DNA or RNA that controls a certain trait. Genes are subject to mutation and can exist in two or more distinct forms; an allele is one of these forms.
Is the ABO blood types' manner of inheritance indicative of dominance? Is there codominance or regression?Inheritance of the ABO blood type is autosomal dominant. The O allele is recessive and the codominant alleles are A and B.
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What do the enzymes in the acrosome do?; Does the acrosome contain enzymes?; What is the enzyme produced by acrosome?; What is the function of the acrosome ?
The enzymes present in acrosome help in the penetration of sperm into the egg. Yes, the acrosome contains enzymes. They produce hydrolytic and proteolytic enzymes. Their main function is to break the outer covering of the egg and allows sperm entry.
A unique membrane organelle that covers the proximal region of the sperm nucleus is called the acrosome. Numerous hydrolytic enzymes are found in this acidic vacuole that helps the sperm to penetrate the egg coverings. This acrosome contains two types of enzymes hyaluronidase and proteolytic enzymes.
The hyaluronic acid polymers in the intercellular cement that binds the ovarian granulosa cells together are depolymerized by hyaluronidase. Proteolytic enzymes acrosin break down the structural proteins of tissue cells that are still attached to the ovum.
These enzymes thereby allow the sperm to enter the egg. Then, the sperm releases its nucleus into the cytoplasm of the egg to complete fertilization.
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which statement best describes how a plant can be affected by environmental factors
The way that a plant responds to environmental conditions is illustrated by the way that it grows toward the sun.
How does a plant turn its growth to face the sun?Plants will bend toward an angled source of light to better access the light they require to thrive. Auxins, a type of hormone found in plant tissues, cause the cells on the plant's dark side to swell and bend toward the light.
What is the term for a plant moving toward the sun?Phototropism, or the tendency of a plant to grow toward or away from a light source, is one significant light response in plants. Negative phototropism is the growth away from light, and positive phototropism is the growth towards a light source.
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research on people's response to retirement has indicated that ceos generally adjust very well to retirement, whereas blue-collar workers fare less well. this disparity is due to the retirees':
According to studies on how people react to retirement, CEOs adjust to it much more successfully than blue-collar workers do. The perceived control of the retirees is what causes this discrepancy.
The degree to which a person perceives that a situation is under his or her control and that they are equipped with the knowledge and abilities needed to achieve the desired (or avoid the undesirable) result is known as perceived control. Contingency (i.e., does the individual believe that this outcome is controllable) and competence (i.e., does the person regard themselves as capable of producing the desired event or suppressing the undesired occurrence) are the two main components.
In contrast to objective control, perceived control focuses on an individual's viewpoint (i.e., what the person believes is accepted as the reality for that individual, regardless of the actual control available). An illusion of control is when someone believes they are in control but actually isn't.
Hence, perceived control are equipped with the knowledge and abilities needed to achieve the desired.
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What triggers the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
Calcium ions are released from of the sarcoplasmic reticulum as a result of depolarization of a sarcolemma (muscle membrane) brought on by nerve stimulation.
When a muscle fiber is stimulated, a wave of depolarization travels down the t-tubule, triggering the release of calcium ions into the sarcoplasm by the SR. In order to relax the muscle, calcium is put back up into to the SR and lowers the calcium ion density in the sarcoplasm. Muscle action potential passing through transverse tubule releases calcium ion release valves in the sarcoplasmic reticulum membranes, which permits calcium ions to rush into the sarcoplasm. Calcium ion binds to troponin just on thin filament, revealing the binding affinity for myosin. Voltage-gated Ca2+ channels open when a nerve impulse depolarizes a cell membrane. The ensuing Ca2+ influx activates ryanodine receptor on the SR membrane, leading to the occurrence of CICR and the subsequent release of more Ca2+ into the cytosol.
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polar molecules cannot easily pass through the cell membrane, but hydrophobic molecules can easily pass through the membrane. the two molecules shown in the diagram both have effects that include raising blood pressure. comparing two molecules, which statement is true?
Ephedrine can be easily pass with the cell membrane more than the epinephrine. Option (A) is Correct.
In reaction to stress, the adrenal medulla releases the hormone epinephrine, which is mediated via sympathetic fibers. Because the gland sits atop the kidney, the word "epinephrine" derives from the Greek words "epi," which means "above," and "nephros," which means kidney. Due to the name of its gland, epinephrine is also known as adrenaline.
For this reason, epinephrine and norepinephrine receptors are often referred to as adrenergic receptors. Based on how the adrenergic receptors responded to epinephrine, norepinephrine, and the adrenergic agonist isoproterenol, Ahlquist classified the adrenergic receptors as either or in 1948. Compared to the receptors, the receptors react to significantly lower amounts of epinephrine or norepinephrine. While epinephrine and norepinephrine affect 1 receptors in roughly similar amounts, 2 receptors are more responsive to epinephrine. Phenoxybenzamine and propanolol both inhibit the receptors.
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Correct Question :
all of the following are reasons it might be beneficial for bacteria to take up foreign dna except that
With the exception of eating foreign DNA, all of the following justifications for bacterial uptake of foreign DNA are advantageous.
The transformation of exogenous, DNase-sensitive DNA into a DNase-protected state inside a bacterium is known as DNA absorption. This DNA uptake in gram-negative bacteria can be accomplished by breaking through the outer membrane. In contrast, DNA uptake in gram-positive bacteria occurs with passage over the cytoplasmic membrane and is comparable to that of gram-negative bacteria.
Bacterial DNA absorption is advantageous since it aids in the creation of recombinants that may be applied to a variety of situations. Patients with hereditary diseases can employ DNA uptake to repair broken chromosomes and DNA.
In organisms like bacteria, new genes can be introduced for various purposes.
Option A is the right response, so that is what it is.
The complete question is:-
All of the following are reasons it might be beneficial for bacteria to take up foreign DNA EXCEPT that Question 77 options: a) DNA could be used for food by bacteria. b) the uptake of foreign DNA would result in potentially beneficial recombinants. c) the uptake of foreign DNA might allow a cell to repair damaged chromosomes. d) the uptake of foreign DNA could allow completely new genes with new functions to enter the recipient cell. e) the uptake of foreign DNA could result in the breakage of the plasma membrane of the recipient cell.
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Select the correct answer.
Ethylene is a hormone that controls which aspect of the development of produce?
A.
Growth
B.
Fertilization
C.
Ripening
D.
The number of seeds
Answer:
a. growth
Explanation:
The movement of tectonic plates in two different locations is shown below:
Two blocks labeled Location A and Location B are shown. At Location A the top layer of the block shows two horizontal arrows pointing towards each other. Small dunes are shown in the middle between the two arrows. The block labeled B has a vertical line in the middle. On the left of the line there is an arrow pointing down. On the right of the vertical line there is an arrow pointing up
Which statement is most likely true?
Subduction may occur in both locations.
Earthquakes may occur in both locations.
Subduction may occur in Location A only and a volcanic eruption may occur in Location B only.
An earthquake may occur in Location A only and a volcanic eruption may occur in Location B only.
Answer:
The magnetic orientation of rocks may change in Location A and subduction occurs in Location B.
Answer:
The statement that is most likely true is: "Subduction may occur in Location A only and a volcanic eruption may occur in Location B only."
In Location A, the movement of the tectonic plates is shown as two horizontal arrows pointing towards each other, which is a common depiction of the movement of plates that are colliding or converging. This type of movement can lead to the formation of mountains, as well as to the occurrence of earthquakes.
In Location B, the movement of the tectonic plates is shown as an arrow pointing down on the left side of the vertical line and an arrow pointing up on the right side. This is a common depiction of the movement of plates that are diverging or moving apart. This type of movement can lead to the formation of mid-ocean ridges, as well as to the occurrence of earthquakes and volcanic eruptions.
Overall, the movement of tectonic plates shown in the diagram indicates that subduction may occur in Location A and a volcanic eruption may occur in Location B.
which of the following statements is not true about transcription in prokaryotes? the 5' tataat 3' sequence is found at position -10 from the the 1 initiation start site. once transcription begins, the transcrition bubble proceeds bidirectionally in both directions. the 5' ttgaca 3' conserved sequence is the site where rna polyemrase binds to the dna to begin transcription. the 1 site is always an a or a g to begin transcription. prokaryotic transcription utilizes only one strand of the double helix as the template.
The statement "once transcription begins, the transcription bubble proceeds bidirectionally in both directions" is not true about transcription in prokaryotes.
What are Prokaryotes?
Prokaryotes are single-celled organisms that lacks a true nucleus. They are found in all environments, from the deepest oceans to the upper atmosphere. Examples of prokaryotes include bacteria and archaea. Prokaryotes are generally much smaller than eukaryotes, typically ranging from 0.2 to 2.0 micro meters in length.
What is Transcription?
Transcription is basically the process of copying DNA into RNA. It is a key part of the process of gene expression, during which information from a gene is used to direct the assembly of a protein. During transcription, a single strand of the DNA double helix is used as a template to create a complementary strand of messenger RNA (mRNA). The mRNA molecule is then used to direct the synthesis of the specified protein.
Therefore, the correct option is Option B.
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Trur or False, Liquer de tirage is a blend of sugar/juice/yeast that is added to the still champagne wine prior to its secondary fermentation.
The given statement is true that Liquer de tirage is a blend of sugar/juice/yeast that is added to the still champagne wine prior to its secondary fermentation.
Champagne is an alcoholic beverage which is actually a sparkling wine. It is different from normal wine as it made using the best variety of red and white grapes of the France. The strength of alcohol in champagne is 12%. Champagne is a white wine with bubbles.
Fermentation is the process of breakdown of sugar in the absence of oxygen in order to produce alcohol. This process is widely used for the production of alcoholic beverages.
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which of the statements concerning asexual reproduction is false?
a) genetic diversity occurs in sexual reproduction.
b) asexually reproducing organisms can repair their own DNA.
c) there are no special reproductive cells in asexual reproduction.
d) a gametophyte produces haploid cells in the alternation of generations from sexual reproduction.
Asexually reproducing organisms can repair their own DNA. B This is false.
What is asexual reproduction?Asexual reproduction is a mode of reproduction in which a new offspring is produced by a single parent.
There are different types of asexual reproduction such as:
Binary fissionBudding Vegetative propagation Spore formation (sporogenesis) FragmentationParthenogenesis ApomixisTherefore asexual reproduction occurs when an organism makes more of itself without exchanging genetic information with another organism through sex.
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Where do cells come from?
A. the nucleus
B. spontaneous generation
C. other cells
Answer:
Explanation:
Cells come from other cells. Specifically, cells can be produced through a process called cell division, in which a parent cell divides into two or more daughter cells. There are two main types of cell division: mitosis and meiosis.
During mitosis, a parent cell divides into two identical daughter cells, each with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell. This process is important for the growth and repair of tissues in the body.
During meiosis, a parent cell divides into four non-identical daughter cells, each with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell. This process is important for sexual reproduction, as it produces the sperm and egg cells that are necessary for the creation of a new organism.
In summary, cells are produced through the process of cell division, which can occur through either mitosis or meiosis.
Answer:
The answer is C: other cells.
All cells come from other pre-existing cells. Cells divide through processes of mitosis and meiosis (depending on if it is a somatic or a zygote cell).
collagen activates factor x. group of answer choices true false
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Anhydrase is an enzyme in erythrocytes essential for the transport of carbon dioxide as bicarbonate ions.
Answer:
false
Explanation:
TRUE/FALSE. tactile localization and two-point thresholds are dependent on the density of touch receptors in the integument, and vary from one part of the body to another.
TRUE/FALSE. tactile localization and two-point thresholds are dependent on the density of touch receptors in the integument and vary from one part of the body to another
The density of sensory receptors and the dimensions of the neuronal receptive fields are two parameters that affect two-point discrimination. The accuracy of a region's sensory perception increases with the density of its sensory receptors. In comparison to the hand, fingertip sensory receptor density is three to four times higher.
The two-point discrimination test is used to determine a patient's capacity to recognize two nearby spots on a small patch of skin and the degree of that ability. It is a gauge of tactile agnosia, or the inability to distinguish between these two sites despite having normal proprioception and cutaneous sensation. This test revealed two different threshold types: the difference threshold and the amount of stimulus change necessary to cause a perceptible difference.
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A man is heterozygous for dimples and a heterozygous carrier for PKU disease. He marries a woman who is also heterozygous for dimples and a heterozygous carrier for PKU disease.
Determine the following:
a. Genotype of man:
b. Genotype of woman:
c. Possible gametes of the man
d. Possible gametes of the woman
Man's genotype: Dd, Pp, and woman Genotype: Dd, Pp, and Female Gametes: Dp, DP, dP, and Potential Male Gametes: Dp, dP, dp, DP
What does it mean to be heterozygous?A gene region where there are two distinct alleles present. One regular allele and one mutant allele, or two distinct mutated alleles, can make up a heterozygous genotype (compound heterozygote).
What is an example of heterozygosity?You have such a mutant gene for that gene is if two versions differ from one another. For instance, having one gene for red hair and one gene for brown hair might indicate that you are heterozygous for hair type. Which qualities are expressed depends on how the two alleles are related.
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The cell cycle is fundamental to the reproduction of eukaryotic cells. (a) Describe the phases of the cell cycle. (b) Explain the role of THREE of the following in mitosis or cytokinesis: • Kinetochores • Microtubules • Motor proteins • Actin filaments (c) Describe how the cell cycle is regulated and discuss ONE consequence of abnormal regulation.
The cell cycle is fundamental to the reproduction of eukaryotic cells:
a) The phases of cell cycle include G1, S, G2, M phase.
b) Role of following:
Kinetochores: Structure present on the chromosome that provide binding area for spindle fibers.
Microtubules: These are the structure present in the cell that help in cargo movement, and give support to the cell.
Motor proteins: kinesins and dynein are the motor proteins that help in cargo transport by carrying the cargo filled vesicles.
Actin filaments: are involved in the movement of muscles.
c) The cell cycle is regulated by various proteins some of which help the cycle to move forwards whereas some halt it in case of some anomaly.
if cell cycle is abnormally regulated it can lead to cancer.
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omplete the description of experimental evidence that would be consistent with these conclusions. Drag the terms on the left to the appropriate blanks on the right to complete the sentences. Terms can be used once, more than once, or not at all. ATP One could treat a G protein-GDP complex with γ-[32P]ATP and ask whether radiolabeled s synthesized The fact than GTP is synthesized. The fact that it is not indicates that the G protein cannot phosphorylate the bound that radiolabeled conditions. One can also show that activation of the G protein requires the presence of Finally, one can demonstrate that the isolated by showing its ability to convert at least not with as a phosphate donor. One can also show ADP can displace bound, unlabeled under various GDP subunit has ase activity, to and Pi in the absence of added
If radiolabeled GTP is generated, one may treat a G protein-GDP complex with -[32P]ATP and find out. That it isn't means that the G protein, at least when using ATP as a phosphate donor, is unable to phosphorylate the bound GDP.
One may also demonstrate how, depending on the circumstances, bound, unlabeled GDP can be replaced by radiolabeled GTP. It is also possible to demonstrate that GTP is necessary for the activation of the G protein. The isolated subunit can also show that it has GTPase activity by demonstrating its capacity to convert GTP to GDP and Pi even in the absence of additional GDP.Phosphorylation in chemistry is the joining of a phosphate group to a molecule or an ion. This mechanism, as well as its opposite, dephosphorylation, are frequent in biology and may have evolved as a result of natural selection. Numerous enzymes are frequently activated (or deactivated) by protein phosphorylate .
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The largest moment magnitudes measured to date are from earthquakes that occurred in subduction zones. True/False
The greatest moment magnitudes observed to date come from earthquakes in subduction zones. This assertion is correct.
Subduction zone earthquakes have produced the greatest moment magnitudes ever recorded. As a comparative unit of measurement, the acceleration caused by gravity is expressed as 1.0 g, or 9.8 meters per second squared (32 feet per second squared).
Subduction zones are when two oceanic plates clash, one of which subducts into the other's interior and the other of which overrides. At subduction zones, the greatest earthquakes ever recorded have occurred.
Deep earthquakes occur at subduction zones when one of the tectonic plates floating on top of the Earth dives under the other and is “subducted” into the mantle.
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The sausage from Paul's breakfast would mostly contain ______ that may negatively impact his blood cholesterol (lipoprotein) levels.
The sausage from Paul's breakfast would mostly contain saturated fats that may negatively impact his blood cholesterol (lipoprotein) levels.
Dietary fats include saturated fat. Along with trans fat, it is one of the harmful fats. Most of the time, these fats are solid at room temperature. High quantities of saturated fat are found in foods like butter, cheese, red meat, palm and coconut oils, and butter.
The consumption of excessive amounts of saturated fat can cause heart disease and other health issues.
Generally saturated fats do not have any double or triple binds in carbon atoms of fatty chains.
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if you were developing a new cancer drug, what would be an appropriate target protein for the new drug therapy?
The researchers discovered that the absence of the AMBRA1 protein can promote tumour growth in mice and is associated with less favourable prognoses in several types of human malignancies.
What does AMBRA1 do?The researchers demonstrated that AMBRA1 functions as a critical tumour suppressor, as these molecules are frequently referred to in healthy cells, by suppressing tumour growth. The latest research demonstrates that AMBRA1 targets additional proteins that aid in cell division for destruction when cell division is not required.The latest findings may provide potential methods for preventing the out-of-control cell division brought on by the loss of AMBRA1 and for making cancer cells more susceptible to CDK4/6 inhibitors.The topic of whether AMBRA1 is involved in cancer was raised by the revelation that AMBRA1 aids in the regulation of cyclins and, consequently, cell division. Low levels of AMBRA1 were discovered by the researchers to be a marker of poor outcomes for individuals with a variety of cancer types using data gathered by The Cancer Genome Atlas (TCGA).To learn more about tumour refer :
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seeing your breath on a cold day is an example of what change; how to see your breath on warm day; at what temperature can you see your breath; why can i see my breath inside; what is glycolysis?; what is the fog that comes out of your mouth called; why do scientists think that glycolysis evolved before the other stages of cellular respiration?; breath vapor
The process of breath on cold day is called as the condensation process of the process.
We name it water vapor. When wet air cools off, the water vapor withinside the air can alternate from a fueloline to a liquid, ensuing in endless tiny droplets of waterEvery day a median individual breathes in round 14,000 litres of air, and with each breath, we launch a small quantity of water vapour.
Over a day, this builds as much as round 400g of water vapour created. People who're lively will breathe out extra because of better inner temperature dew factor, air can not maintain water vapor; whilst air is cooled past dew factor water vapor turns to liquid shape, the bodily technique called condensation. It is that this liquid shape of your breath – minuscule droplets of water – that creates the fleeting, misty cloud we see whilst inhaling air.
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morning commuter traffic in cities contributes toindustrial smog. in this type of air pollution, a mixing ofnitrous oxide from certain plants, nitrogen oxides from cars, and uv radiation from the sun results in a variety of pollutants, such as ground-level ozone, which can cause coughing and breathing problems.
Cities' morning commuter traffic causes photochemical smog.
When certain plants' hydrocarbons, automobiles' nitrogen oxides, and the sun's UV rays interact, they produce a range of pollutants, including ground-level ozone, which can impair breathing and induce coughing.
The photochemical interaction of hydrocarbon and nitrogen oxides in the lower atmosphere, which mostly relies on sunshine, results in photochemical smogs. Ozone gas is created when a hydrocarbon reacts with nitrogen oxide in the presence of light, although nitrogen oxide can also react with sunlight on its own to create nitrogen dioxide. Smog is created as a result of this.
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Which of the following characteristics are associated with the plant depicted above? (check all that apply) A. Vascular tissue B. Sporophyte dependent on gametophyte C. Sporophyte not dependent on gametophyte D. Production of gametes by meiosis E. Seeds F. Flowers G. Secondary growth H. Homospory I. Heterospory J. Spores are dispersal stage K. Chloroplast DNA inversion
The correct option is B : Sporophyte dependent on gametophyte .Probably Psitolum niudam is depicted in the first picture. There is no vascular tissue in them. Gametophytes are required for sporophytes. Meosis results in spore production. They manifest homospory.
All sperm produced in all antheridia depicted are genetically identical to each other and to the male gametophyte that produced them since the gametes are produced by mitosis from perennial male plants. To carry out fertilization, sperm are discharged and swim across water to female plants.
Male and female reproductive organs (gametangia) grow and generate eggs and sperm (gametes) through straightforward mitosis in the haploid (containing a single set of chromosomes) gametophyte phase.
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this___ both excited and inhabits the activities of the thalamus to control and adjust muscle tone.
The nucleus both excited and inhabits the activities of the thalamus to control and adjust muscle tone of globus pallidus.
In the dorsal region of the diencephalon, there is a substantial mass of gray matter called the thalamus (a division of the forebrain). The cerebral cortex receives nerve fibers released from the thalamus that go in all directions, enabling hub-like information exchanges. It transmits sensory and motor data to the cerebral cortex, where it regulates a variety of processes including awareness, sleep, and alertness. The thalamus is a paired gray matter structure that is superior to the midbrain in the forebrain and is located close to the center of the brain. Its nerve cells extend in all directions to the cerebral cortex. The interthalamic adhesion, a flattened gray band that makes up the upper portion of the lateral wall of the third ventricle, connects the medial side of the thalamus to the comparable surface of the opposing thalamus. The medial and lateral geniculate nuclei, the pulvinar, and the lateral nuclei of the thalamus are located in the lateral section of the brain, which is the phylogenetically youngest region of the thalamus (neothalamus).
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The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is an important technique in biotechnology because it allows researchers to __________.
Millions of copies of a certain DNA region can be produced in the lab using the polymerase PCR process. In the 1980s, it was initially created.
Which of the following is utilized to identify PCR's end results?Agarose gel electrophoresis, which divides DNA products according to size and charge, is the technique that is most frequently employed for evaluating the PCR product.
What process would you employ to duplicate the molecules more often?Molecule cloning Gene expression, gene duplication, and gene-specific research are all made possible via cloning. The DNA fragment must first be put into a plasmid in order to be delivered to bacteria in a form that will allow for copying or expression.
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each of the following effects is associated with the action of postganglionic sympathetic fibers except___ A) increased sweat secretion B) dilation of the pupils C) reduced circulation to the skin D) decreased heart rate E) increased blood flow to skeletal muscles
The correct option is D i.e. decreased heart rate is the effect which is not associated with the action of postganglionic sympathetic fibers.
Norepinephrine, or noradrenalin, is a neurotransmitter used by the sympathetic division's adrenergic postganglionic fibers. The postganglionic neurons in sweat glands produce acetylcholine to activate muscarinic receptors in the sympathetic nervous system, whereas the postganglionic fibers of the parasympathetic division are cholinergic and use acetylcholine as a neurotransmitter. Post-ganglionic neurons are similar to the chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla, which develops simultaneously with the sympathetic nervous system and performs as a modified sympathetic ganglion. Presynaptic nerve axons in the sympathetic nervous system terminate in the paravertebral or prevertebral ganglia. The paravertebral ganglia are always reached at that level by the spinal nerve from which the axon originated. Preganglionic neurons release acetylcholine at synapses within the ganglia, which activates nicotinic acetylcholine receptors on postganglionic neurons. With two notable exceptions, postganglionic neurons respond to this stimulus by releasing norepinephrine, which stimulates adrenergic receptors on the target tissues in the periphery. By activating specific tissue receptors, the sympathetic nervous system's effects are triggered.
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TRUE/FALSE if the extra toes do not cause any change in the fitness of the mouse, the mutation could increase in frequency in a population of mice over time
The selection coefficient of a single mutant, or its fitness in comparison to a common reference genotype, can be calculated using information about the progeny size, growth rate, or other relevant quantities.
Natural selection can lead to macroevolution, or a change in allele frequencies over time, with fitness-increasing alleles becoming more prevalent in the population over several generations. Relative reproductive success can be measured by fitness.
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Match the following actions with the correct phase- A. B. C. D. E. Of the phase listed, this is the first in which the cells are haploid- A. B. C. D. E. homologous chromosomes align at the center of the cell- A. B. C. D. E. The cell splits into two daughter cells- A. B. C. D. E. A diploid number of chromosomes are present at the end of the cell- A. B. C. D. E. sister chromatids are pulled apartA. telophase 1B. metaphase 1C. cytokinesisD. telophaseE. anaphase 2
A cell divides into two identical daughter cells after duplicating all of its components, including its chromosomes.
The cell division process known as meiosis is what produces egg and sperm cells. A vital process for life is mitosis. Telophase I, Metaphase I, and Anaphase 2 are stages in the meiotic cycle. Spindle fibers vanish during telophase I, and the reconstructed nuclear envelope indicates that the cells are haploid. In metaphase 1, the homologous chromosomes align at the equatorial plate to ensure genetic diversity among the progeny. Sister chromatids are drawn to the opposing poles during anaphase II. Cytokinesis and Telophase are steps in the mitosis process. Cytokinesis occurs when a cell divides into two daughter cells, and if the cell has a diploid number of chromosomes at the end of the cell then it is telophase.
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