HELPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPP
A: equilateral
B: isosceles
C: right
D: scalene

HELPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPA: Equilateral B: Isosceles C: RightD: Scalene

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

B.Isosceles

Explanation:

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Answer 2

Answer:

B. Isosceles

Hope this helps :)


Related Questions

what evidence can be cited from the fossils to reconstruct climate change over time?

Answers

Answer: When studying the museum’s collection of plant fossils for information about the climate, Wing and Barclay start with plant leaves.

Roughly 56 million years ago, during a time called the Paleocene Eocene Thermal Maximum (PETM), Earth’s average temperature rose four to eight degrees Celsius in less than 10,000 years. The cause was geologic processes releasing trillions of tons of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere. The dramatic shift in global climate forced massive upheaval in ecosystems around the world.

“It’s the best analogue for the climate change we’re experiencing today,” Barclay said.

Fossil plants and their leaves from the PETM show that ecosystems shifted massively because of the rapid increase in global temperature. But global warming during the PETM did not come from humans. So, scientists today are working on ways to extrapolate information from that period and apply it to the even faster and more drastic events of today.

how do you use fossils to see change

Answers

Fossils help show use how the earth looked like millions of years ago, Plant fossils show use what the wild life would have ate and the nutrients they had. it also helps show the bone structure of animals helping us create an actually picture of the past.

- can I have brainlist  please

Which of the following molecules do NOT break down Proteins?
A. Pepsin
B. Protease
C. Protein kinase
D. Trypsin

Answers

Answer:A pepsin

Explanation:

Answer:  Protein kinase is your anwser please mark brainliest thank yoou

Explanation:

Which of the following is NOT part of the non-specific immune response?
A. Inflammation
B. Phagocytosis
C. Antibodies
D. Interferons

Answers

D.Interferons. .......

D. Interferons are not a part of the non-specific immune response.

What is the function of interferons?

Interferons were first described as an antiviral thing that interferes with viral replication in mammalian cells (10). they're secreted from inflamed cells and spark off an innate immune reaction that promotes now not best cytokine production but additionally herbal killer mobile features and antigen presentation.

Interferons (IFNs) — the body's first line of antiviral defense — are cytokines that are secreted by host cells in reaction to virus infection. by using inducing the expression of hundreds of IFN-inspired genes, numerous of that have antiviral capabilities, IFNs block virus replication at many ranges.

Interferons are a circle of relatives of clearly-happening proteins which are made and secreted with the aid of cells of the immune gadget (an example, white blood cells, natural killer cells, fibroblasts, and epithelial cells).

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How can we preserve animal resources​

Answers

Explanation:

Top 10 ways to save wildlife

Adopt. From wild animals to wild places, there's an option for everyone. ...

Volunteer. If you don't have money to give, donate your time. ...

Visit. Zoos, aquariums, national parks and wildlife refuges are all home to wild animals. ...

Donate. ...

Speak Up. ...

Buy Responsibly. ...

Pitch In. ...

PLEASEEE HELP!! Ill mark brainlist

How/why does the DNA separate?
Discuss porosity or pores, electricity, DNAS charge & size of DNA pieces. Highlight all the 4 terms

Answers

Electrophoresis is a technique commonly used in the lab to separate charged molecules, like DNA, according to size.

Gel electrophoresis is a technique commonly used in laboratories to separate charged molecules like DNA?, RNA? and proteins? according to their size.

Charged molecules move through a gel when an electric current is passed across it.

An electric current is applied across the gel so that one end of the gel has a positive charge and the other end has a negative charge.

The movement of charged molecules is called migration. Molecules migrate towards the opposite charge. A molecule with a negative charge will therefore be pulled towards the positive end (opposites attract!).

The gel consists of a permeable matrix, a bit like a sieve, through which molecules can travel when an electric current is passed across it.

Smaller molecules migrate through the gel more quickly and therefore travel further than larger fragments that migrate more slowly and therefore will travel a shorter distance. As a result the molecules are separated by size.

Gel electrophoresis and DNA

Electrophoresis enables you to distinguish DNA fragments of different lengths.

DNA is negatively charged, therefore, when an electric current is applied to the gel, DNA will migrate towards the positively charged electrode.

Shorter strands of DNA move more quickly through the gel than longer strands resulting in the fragments being arranged in order of size.

The use of dyes, fluorescent? tags or radioactive? labels enables the DNA on the gel to be seen after they have been separated. They will appear as bands on the gel.

A DNA marker with fragments of known lengths is usually run through the gel at the same time as the samples.

By comparing the bands of the DNA samples with those from the DNA marker, you can work out the approximate length of the DNA fragments in the samples.

How is gel electrophoresis carried out?

Preparing the gel

Agarose gels? are typically used to visualise fragments of DNA. The concentration of agarose used to make the gel depends on the size of the DNA fragments you are working with.

The higher the agarose concentration, the denser the matrix and vice versa. Smaller fragments of DNA are separated on higher concentrations of agarose whilst larger molecules require a lower concentration of agarose.

To make a gel, agarose powder is mixed with an electrophoresis buffer and heated to a high temperature until all of the agarose powder has melted.

The molten gel is then poured into a gel casting tray and a “comb” is placed at one end to make wells for the sample to be pipetted into.

Once the gel has cooled and solidified (it will now be opaque rather than clear) the comb is removed.

Many people now use pre-made gels.

The gel is then placed into an electrophoresis tank and electrophoresis buffer is poured into the tank until the surface of the gel is covered. The buffer conducts the electric current. The type of buffer used depends on the approximate size of the DNA fragments in the sample.

Preparing the DNA for electrophoresis

A dye is added to the sample of DNA prior to electrophoresis to increase the viscosity of the sample which will prevent it from floating out of the wells and so that the migration of the sample through the gel can be seen.

A DNA marker (also known as a size standard or a DNA ladder) is loaded into the first well of the gel. The fragments in the marker are of a known length so can be used to help approximate the size of the fragments in the samples.

The prepared DNA samples are then pipetted into the remaining wells of the gel.

When this is done the lid is placed on the electrophoresis tank making sure that the orientation of the gel and positive and negative electrodes is correct (we want the DNA to migrate across the gel to the positive end).

Separating the fragments

The electrical current is then turned on so that the negatively charged DNA moves through the gel towards the positive side of the gel.

Shorter lengths of DNA move faster than longer lengths so move further in the time the current is run.

The distance the DNA has migrated in the gel can be judged visually by monitoring the migration of the loading buffer dye.

The electrical current is left on long enough to ensure that the DNA fragments move far enough across the gel to separate them, but not so long that they run off the end of the gel.

Illustration of DNA electrophoresis equipment used to separate DNA fragments by size. A gel sits within a tank of buffer. The DNA samples are placed in wells at one end of the gel and an electrical current passed across the gel. The negatively-charged DNA moves towards the postive electrode. Image credit: Genome Research Limited

tank.

What is the citric acid cycle.

Answers

Answer:

Citric acid cycle also known as the Krebs cycle, is the second stage of the three-stage process by which living cells break down organic fuel molecules in the presence of oxygen to harvest the energy they need to grow and divide.

why renin is found more in case of babies
can someone answer it​

Answers

Answer:

newborn infants. Bioassayable andimmunoassayable renin activities were elevated during the first six days after delivery. At 3 to 6 weeks of age, although elevated above that in adult control subjects, renin activity was lower than in the first postnatal week. Cord blood renin values were greater than those for maternal renin during labor. Renin substrate concentration was elevated in infants less than six days of age and also in 3- to 6-week-old infants. The enhanced activity of the renin-angiotensin system may contribute to the increased renal vascular resistance and the altered renal hemodynamics that occur in the newborn infant.

Answer:

It's the same so don't complain OK it is correct so don't worry about it as much ok

A microbiologist identifies a bacterium that is capable of degrading cellulose, lignin, chitin, latex, aromatic chemicals, and keratin. It produces metabolic byproducts that give soil a musty smell as well as some that can be used as antibiotics. Which of the following genera is being described?
a. Campylobacter.
b. Streptomyces.
c. Neisseria.
d. Pseudomonas.

Answers

The answer is B. Streptomyces

Which of the following best explains what will happen if the blood gets too cold? A) It will have a high viscosity and increased resistance. B) It will have a low viscosity and increased resistance. C) It will cause low blood pH and decrease resistance. D) It will change the shape of blood cells and decrease resistance.

Answers

It will have a high viscosity and increased resistance.

Effect of temperature on blood

Low temperatures cause narrowing of blood vessels and arteries which leads to restricting blood flow and reducing oxygen to the heart.

Our heart must pump harder to circulate blood through the blood vessels which results in increasing of our blood pressure and heart rate.

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Answer:

The correct answer is A

Explanation:

i got it correct on my flvs exam

which protist is not correctly linked to the type of movement it shows?

Answers

Answer:

Sporozoa-flexing the pellicle

Explanation:

Sporozoa do not have flagella, cilia, or pseudopodia and they show gliding movement, amoeboids show movement by pseudopodia, ciliates by cilia and zooflagellates show by flagella, the pellicle is shown by paramecium.

So, the correct option is 'Sporozoa-flexing the pellicle'.

What must happen before a cell can begin mitosis? View Available Hint(s) for Part A The sister chromatids must be separated. The nuclear envelope must

Answers

Answer:

What must happen before a cell can begin mitosis? The chromosomes must be duplicated, which occurs during interphase.

Explanation:

24. What is evidence for the endosymbiotic theory? (a) rna can catalyze metabolic reactions. (b) meteorites contain organic molecules. (c) amino acids can be synthesized from inorganic compounds.

Answers

I think it’s A but i’m not sure

Toll-like receptors are eukaryotic membrane proteins that bind with bacterial surface molecules and: ____________

a. cause the cell to phagocytize the bacteria.
b. activate the complement cascade.
c. cause the release of antibiotics to kill the bacteria.
d. form channels through which bacterial proteins can enter the eukaryotic cell.
e. cause the release of cytokines that trigger host defenses against the bacteria.

Answers

Answer:

release cytokines that trigger host defenses against the bacteria

Explanation:

What is the name of the organelle in the leaves of plants that absorbs the sun's energy?.

Answers

Answer:

The name is chloroplasts

Explanation:

green and yellow wavelengths of light are not useful to most plants.

Answers

The answer here is True

The statement that green and yellow wavelengths of light are not useful to most plants is incorrect. In fact, green and yellow wavelengths of light are essential for plant growth and photosynthesis.

Plants primarily capture light energy for photosynthesis using specialized pigments called chlorophylls, which are most efficient at absorbing light in the red and blue regions of the spectrum. As a result, the green wavelengths of light are reflected rather than absorbed by chlorophyll, giving plants their characteristic green color.

While it is true that green light is less absorbed by chlorophyll compared to other wavelengths, it still plays a vital role in photosynthesis. Green light is still partially absorbed and contributes to energy transfer within the plant, helping drive the photosynthetic process.

Moreover, certain types of plants, such as shade-tolerant plants or plants adapted to low-light conditions, have chlorophyll pigments that are more efficient in capturing green and yellow wavelengths of light. These plants can utilize a broader range of light wavelengths for photosynthesis, including green and yellow light.

Therefore, green and yellow wavelengths of light are indeed useful to most plants. While red and blue light are more efficiently absorbed, green and yellow light still contribute to the energy needs of plants and play a role in photosynthesis.

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Look at the picture below.



What macromolecules make up most of the structure that is shown?

Answers

Answer:

there is not a picture ....................

Answer:

B: Lipids

Explanation:

cause

3) When two atoms bond chemically it is because of the interaction between

A) the nuclei of each atom.

B) the protons in each atoms.

C) all electrons in the atoms.

D) the valence electrons in each atom​

Answers

Answer:

C - All electrons in the atoms

Explanation:

It depends on the bonding for an explanation.

If one atom is a metal and one is a non metal it will be ionic. This is because one atom transfers its electron to the other atom giving them both a charge. They will then be bonded due to opposite forces of attraction.

If both atoms are non metals it will be covalent. Electrons pair together in the center of two atoms that have merged together and they share their electrons.

(Makes more sense with diagrams)

Hope this helps you!

how long do monoclonal antibodies stay in your system

Answers

Answer:

They are effective for a month and gone after 6 months.  not sure if that's an answer choice but that's what I got.

Explanation:

The purpose of transcription is
a. to make a strand of messenger RNA.
b. to make two copies of the DNA molecule.
c. to line up amino acids to form protein molecules.
d. to allow the cell to grow.

Answers

Answer:

A

Explanation:

I'm pretty sure I took this quiz in K12.

Which model correctly explains the meaning of 3’ and 5’ in nucleic acids?.

Answers

Answer:

 5' carbon is bonded to the phosphate group and the 3' carbon is bonded to an OH group.

The 5' carbon is bonded to the phosphate group and the 3' carbon is bonded to an OH group.

Which component of DNA determines the 3 and 5 ends of the strands?

As new nucleotides are added to a strand of DNA or RNA, the strand grows at its 3' end, with the 5′ phosphate of an incoming nucleotide attaching to the hydroxyl group at the 3' end of the chain.

How are nucleotides linked together 5 to 3?

DNA and RNA are composed of nucleotides that are linked to one another in a chain by chemical bonds, called ester bonds.

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PLEASE HELP 100 POINTS AND BRAINLY!!

Answers

Answer:

1.prophase

2. metaphase

3.anaphase

4.telophase

Explanation:

Had the same question a quiz i took

In regular alcohol consumers, lipids get accumulated in the liver and are stored as small droplets in liver cells and this condition is known as ________.

Answers

Answer:

Fatty Liver

Explanation:

What is a group of similar cells that perform the same function?

A. a tissue

B. an organelle

C. an organ system

D. a multicellular organism

Answers

Answer:

The answer is A. a tissue

Explanation:

Tissues are groups of similar cells that have a common function. An organ is a structure that is composed of at least two or more tissue types and performs a specific set of functions for the body.

at what point during meiosis do homologous chromosomes pair up?

Answers

Answer:

Prophase 1

Explanation:

In prophase 1, homologous chromosomes pair up and exchange sections of DNA in a process called crossing over.

Explanation: Pairing of homologous chromosomes occur during prophase 1. This is also known as synapsis. During synapsis there is crossing over too.

the part of the diencephalon that is in the anterior and inferior region of the diencephalon is the

Answers

Answer:

hypothalamus

The part of the diencephalon that is in the anterior and inferior region of the diencephalon is the Hypothalamus.

What is Hypothalamus?

The hypothalamus exists a portion of the brain that includes a numeral of small nuclei with a combination of functions. One of the most important operations of the hypothalamus exists to link the nervous system to the endocrine system via the pituitary gland. The hypothalamus exists discovered below the thalamus and exists as part of the limbic system. The terminology of neuroanatomy, includes the ventral part of the diencephalon. All vertebrate brains include a hypothalamus. In humans, it stands the size of an almond.

The hypothalamus stands answerable for the regulation of specific metabolic functions and other actions of the autonomic nervous system. It synthesizes and secretes certain neurohormones, named releasing hormones or hypothalamic hormones, and these, in turn, promote or inhibit the secretion of hormones from the pituitary gland. The hypothalamus influences body temperature, hunger, important aspects of parenting and affection manners, thirst, fatigue, sleep, and circadian rhythms.

Hence, The part of the diencephalon that is in the anterior and inferior region of the diencephalon is the Hypothalamus.

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a single base deletion within the open reading frame of a gene’s dna sequence can result in ____________.

Answers

Answer:

Replacement of multiple correct amino acids with alternative acids

Explanation:

Replacement of multiple correct amino acids with alternative acids

During hibernation, bears do not eat for 5 to 6 months in a row. How can the bear stay alive without eating for this long?

Answers

Answer:

Fat.

Explanation:

Bears have to survive on the fat. That is why they will eat so much to hibernate through the winter. If they don't have enough fat they wake up.

I hope this helps you

How does a bacteriophage work.

Answers

Answer:

A bacteriophage attaches itself to a susceptible bacterium and infects the host cell. Following infection, the bacteriophage hijacks the bacterium's cellular machinery to prevent it from producing bacterial components and instead forces the cell to produce viral components.

Mutations cause changes in _____.

Answers

Answer:

mutation cause changes in genetic material

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2. Read the information on New York Times v. Sullivan (1964). Be sure to select "Read More" to learn more. New York Times v. Sullivan states that the First Amendment protects all speech about public officials, except lies told with the intent to defame. Lying with intent to defame means lying about someone with the goal of causing that person harm or damaging their reputation. Why do you think this protection for public officials is important? (5 points) What is 4% of 4% of 40,000? Show the working please. what does power mean? I need with this please! It due tonight. Based on the structure of the nervous system, which statement is true?O A. Numbness in a fractured leg indicates damage to the autonomic nervous system fibersOB. A deep laceration to the arm can sever peripheral nervesOC. A gunshot wound to the spinal cord will directly damage the peripheral nervesOD. A stroke represents an injury to the peripheral nervous system Need help plz ! I'll give 30 points. Do all direct proportional graphs need to start from the origin? Could I get help with this? By the early 1900s, which two European countries had colonized the most African land? f(x) = 3x + 1 and f-1 = f-1 = x-1 / 3then f -'(7) = (High School Geometry) What is the minimum number of regions that are formed by 100 distinct lines in a plane? What is the maximum number of regions formed by 100 lines in the plane? Rewrite as equivalent rational expressions with denominator (c- 9) (c+9)(c + 6): I don't get this. (write a linear function f with the given values) If I pay 10% extra of my regular charge each month on my bill of $35.00, how long until I have built up a full month's credit? Representative: You will have a full months credit in __________ months. if you get it right ill mark brainliest 10. In the past, some states limited voting rights bya. passing political socialization laws c. eliminating the literacy testb. charging a poll taxd. overruling grandfather clauses Select the values that make the inequality n > 1 true.(Numbers written in order from least to greatest going across.) What transformation takes place wen u light up a match Pls help me with this, tyyy! InstructionsRead Psalm 22 and Isaiah 53 paying close attention to the verses below.Research the verses in the chart below to determine which New Testament verses fulfill the prophecy found in the Old Testament (they are not in order).Using the list above, write a 250-word essay on how each Old Testament prophecy meets one or all of those guidelines.Remember to use proper grammar, punctuation, and spelling when typing your essay.Old Testament Prophecy New Testament FulfillmentPsalm 22:6-7 Romans 5:6-8Psalm 22:15-16 Matthew 27:39-40Psalm 22:18 Matthew 27:57-60Isaiah 53:4-6 Luke 23:33-34Isaiah 53:8-9 John 19:33-35Isaiah 53:12 Matthew 27:35Guidelines of Biblical prophecy include:Prophecy is a declaration of knowledge which belongs exclusively to the omniscience of God.Prophecy is revelation of the supernatural light of God.Prophecy is explained by God in Deuteronomy 18:18-22, which gives points concerning prophecy:God put the words in their mouths.The prophet spoke "only" what God commanded.People are to pay strict attention to words of God's prophet.If a prophecy is from God, then the test is that the prophecy will happen exactly as spoken.Real prophecy is a vital part of the Bible: Biblical prophecy is deeply buried throughout the Old Testament and was also a means of establishing the Old Testament.Prophecy pervades the entire Bible.Prophecy, in many cases, is very specific.Prophecy often deals with events remote in time and with people or kingdoms that do not exist yet.Fulfillment of prophecy is clear. Fulfilled prophecy constitutes a supernatural act.