Answer:
During meiosis the step of crossing over is the major source of bringing evolution.
Explanation:
Which is an example of the way matter cycles through the bodies of living
things?
A. Salmon swimming in a river
B. Salmon eating shrimp
C. Shrimp swimming in the ocean
D. People watching salmon
SUBMIT
The trait for medium-sized leaves in iris is determined by the genetic condition PP'. Plants with large leaves are PP, whereas plants with small leaves are P'P'. The trait for red flowers is controlled by the genes RR, pink by RR', and white by R'R'. A cross is made between two plants each with medium-sized leaves and pink flowers. If they produce 640 seedlings, what would be the expected phenotypes, and in what numbers would they be expected
Answer:
See the answer below
Explanation:
Medium size leaves genotype = PP'
Large leaves genotype = PP
Small leaves genotype = P'P'
Red flower genotype = RR
Pink flower genotype = RR'
White flower genotype = R'R'
Two plants each with medium-sized leaves (PP') and pink flowers (RR') were crossed.
PP'RR' x PP'RR' (let PP' = Aa and RR' = Bb)
Progeny and expected phenotypes
1 PPRR - large leaves, red flower = 1/16 x 640 = 40 seedlings
2 PPRR' - large leaves, pink flower = 2/16 x 640 = 80 seedlings
2 PP'RR - medium leaves, red flower = 2/16 x 640 = 80 seedlings
4 PP'RR' - medium leaves, pink flower = 4/16 x 640 = 160 seedlings
1 PPR'R' - large leaves, white flower = 1/16 x 640 = 40 seedlings
2 PP'R'R' - medium leaves, white flower = 2/16 x 640 = 80 seedlings
1 P'P'RR - small leaves, red flower = 1/16 x 640 = 40 seedlings
2 P'P'RR' - small leaves, pink flower = 2/16 x 640 = 80 seedlings
1 P'P'R'R' = small leaves, white flower = 1/16 x 640 = 40 seedlings
what is evapraratio
Answer:
Evaporation is the process by which water changes from a liquid to a gas or vapor, in other words evaporation is a type of vaporization that occurs on the surface of a liquid as it changes into the gas phase.
Based on the objective you should feel comfortable calculating expected genotype frequencies when given observed allele frequencies. You should also be able to compare expected genotype frequencies from HWE to observed frequencies and determine if evolution is occurring.Here's a sample problem. You can do this without a calculator!Let's take the noob gene, a gene with two known alleles that determines feather color in the eastern lark. The two alleles, let's call them delta and gamma, can be sequenced. In fact, looking at a population in southern GA, you discover that 60% of the alleles in the population are the delta allele.1. What is the percentage of the gamma allele in the population?2. Even more interesting, based on HWE what is the expected frequency of the population that is homozygous gamma? 3. Now, after surveying an isolated population of eastern larks, you find that 20% of the population is homozygous gama (gamma gamma), 65% heterozygous (gamma delta) and 10% homozygous delta (delta delta) and 5% of the population is a previously undescribed genotype - zeta zeta (homozygous zeta). What can you conclude about evolution in the population and why? If evolution is occurring, which mechanism(s) would be responsible?
Answer and Explanation:
60% of the alleles in the population are the delta allele
1. What is the percentage of the gamma allele in the population?
According to Hardy-Weinberg, the allelic frequencies in a locus are represented as p and q, referring to the allelic dominant or recessive forms. The genotypic frequencies after one generation are p² (Homozygous dominant), 2pq (Heterozygous), q² (Homozygous recessive). Populations in H-W equilibrium will get the same allelic frequencies generation after generation. The sum of these allelic frequencies equals 1, this is p + q = 1.
In the same way, the sum of genotypic frequencies equals 1, this is
p² + 2pq + q² = 1
Being
p the dominant allelic frequency, q the recessive allelic frequency, p²the homozygous dominant genotypic frequency q² the homozygous recessive genotypic frequency 2pq the heterozygous genotypic frequencyAccording to the sum of the allelic frequencies
p + q = 1
1 equals 100%
100% ------ 1
60%------0.6
40%------0.4
The percentage of gamma allele in the population is 40%.
2. what is the expected frequency of the population that is homozygous gamma?
The genotypic frequencies, F, after one generation are p² (Homozygous dominant), 2pq (Heterozygous), q² (Homozygous recessive).
F(gamma)= p²= 0.4²=0.16 =16%
F(delta)= q²= 0.6²=0.36 = 36%
F (gamma-delta) = 2xp2q= 2 x 0.4 x 0.6 = 0.48 = 48%
3. 20% of the population is homozygous gama (gamma gamma), 65% heterozygous (gamma delta) and 10% homozygous delta (delta delta) and 5% of the population is a previously undescribed genotype - zeta zeta (homozygous zeta). What can you conclude about evolution in the population and why? If evolution is occurring, which mechanism(s) would be responsible?
20% gamma-gamma
10% delta-delta
65% gamma-delta
5% zeta-zeta
This population has different genotypic frequencies with respect to the population in southern GA:
The gamma genotypic frequency is a little bit higher in the isolated population (16% vs 20%)
The delta genotypic frequency is considerably lower in the isolated population (36% vs 10%)
The heterozygotic genotypic frequency is also higher in the isolated population (18% vs 64%)
It appeared a new phenotype in the isolated population, probably due to a mutation in one of the genes. We can assume that this is a new mutation because its frequency is still low (5%).
Maybe, the mutation occurred in an individual of the isolated population, and with time, this mutation increased its frequency, up to a point of being phenotypically visible. This could be a case of a bottleneck example.
The founder effect is a special case of genetic drift, where a few organisms of one population settles down in a new area carrying the genes of the original population.
Genetic drift is the random change in the allelic frequency in a population, from one generation to the other. The magnitude of this change is inversely related to the size of the original population. These changes produced by genetic drift accumulate in time, and eventually, some alleles get lost, while some other might get set.
Founder effect refers to the consequences that occur from the origin of a new population that derives from a small number of founder individuals that come from an ancestral bigger population. This small group shows poor genetic variation and a high possibility of expressing a peculiar allelic composition. Some mutation might occur and it can accumulate in time.
Why are detritivores, decomposers and omnivores not assigned trophic levels
Answer:
The reason is because detritivores and decomposers and omnivores are multilevel food chain consumers in an ecosystem making them not qualified to be assigned to a given trophic level
Explanation:
An organism is placed in a trophic level based the level it is from where the food chain starts with the start of the food chain having a level of 1 for the food producers such including plants and algae
Level 2 organisms are called primary consumers and consists of organism that eat only plants known as herbivores such as cattle
Level 3 organisms are called secondary consumers and consists of animal eating organism known as carnivores such as foxes etc.
Level 4 organisms are called tertiary consumers
Level 5 organisms are the a p e x p r e d a t o r s
Detritivores and decomposers such as bacteria, earthworm flies fungi consume the wastes produced at all trophic levels, therefore they cannot be assigned to a particular trophic level
Similarly, omnivores consumes both plants at level 2 and animals at level 3 making it ambiguous to assign them to one particular trophic level.
Name a serious disease caused by protozoa
Answer:
African sleeping sickness is caused by protozoa in the Trypanosoma genus. These organisms are carried by the tsetse fly and transmitted to humans via tsetse fly bites. According to the World Health Organization, Trypanosoma brucei gambiense causes more than 90 percent of African sleeping sickness cases.
Which of the following is not a cause of water pollution?
a jet fuel
b laundry soap
c ammonia
d none of the above
Answer:
D) none of the above
Explanation:
took the quiz on edgenudity
The right answer is (a) jet fuel.
What is water pollution?Water pollution refers to the presence or introduction of harmful substances or pollutants into bodies of water such as lakes, rivers, oceans, and groundwater.
These pollutants can come from a variety of sources, including natural and human-made sources. While there are many different types of pollutants that can cause water pollution, some of the most common sources of water pollution include:
Industrial waste: Industries and factories release a variety of pollutants into water bodies, such as chemicals, heavy metals, and organic compounds.
Agricultural runoff: Fertilizers and pesticides used in agriculture can leach into waterways and cause significant pollution. Agricultural runoff can also contain soil, animal waste, and other contaminants that can degrade water quality.
Sewage and wastewater: Sewage and wastewater from homes and businesses contain a wide range of pollutants, including human waste, chemicals, and pharmaceuticals. These pollutants can have serious impacts on aquatic life and human health.
A jet fuel is not typically a cause of water pollution. While spills of jet fuel or other petroleum products can occur and can cause significant harm to aquatic ecosystems, they are not one of the most common causes of water pollution.
The most common causes of water pollution include things like industrial waste, agricultural runoff, sewage and wastewater, and improper disposal of household chemicals and medications.
Learn more about water pollution at:
https://brainly.com/question/19920929
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phosphate from atp is removed to make adp and a free phosphate molecule
Answer:
ATP is a nucleotide consisting of an adenine base attached to a ribose sugar, which is attached to three phosphate groups. ... When one phosphate group is removed by breaking a phosphoanhydride bond in a process called hydrolysis, energy is released, and ATP is converted to adenosine diphosphate (ADP).
Consider how the following behaviors, characteristics, or facts affect the risk for CVD. Determine whether each increases, decreases, or has no effect on the risk for CVD.
a. Having elevated LDL cholesterol levels
b. having reduced HDL cholesterol levels
c. being a premenopausal woman
d. being exposed to secondhand smoke
e. participating in exercise
f. having elevated HDL cholesterol levels.
Answer:
Explanation:
Having elevated LDL cholesterol levels - this increases the risk for CVD as it also brings about CHD
Having reduced HDL cholesterol levels- this increases the risk of CVD as a low HDL increases omes risk of CVD at lower rates
Being a premenopausal woman - I dont think this has any effect on the risk for CVD
Being exposed to secondhand smoke -
This also increases the risk of stroke associated with CVD
- participating in exercise: this decreases the risk of CVD
Having elevated HDL cholesterol levels - this decreases ones risk of CVD as it helps to clear cholesterol from arteries delivering them back to the lover and reducing the risk for CVD
All 113 baby mice in an experiment are Rr, the parents are probably (do a Punnett square to be sure)
a
RR x RR
b
RR x rr
c
Rr x Rr
Answer:
The correct answer is option B.
Explanation:
If am individual cross between two true breed mice the probability of offspring with heterozygous condition is 100 percent in such cross. True breed is an individual organism with homozygous for the particular character either dominant or recessive.
So, if mice with RR (purebred or homozygous dominant) bred with mice with rr (homozygous recessive), all the offspring will be heterozygous in genotype which is Rr.
Thus, the correct answer is : option B. (Punnet square is attached)
Answer:
B
Explanation:
You are running an experiment to study seed germination and accidentally left a dish of seeds covered with a little water in a totally dark room. When you return a few days later, you notice that the seeds have sprouted long roots and long shoots. What was the source of most of the matter that makes up these roots and shoots?A. oxygen in the airB. carbon dioxide in the airC. water in the dishD. glucose in the seed
Answer:
D. glucose in the seed
Explanation:
Plants generally make their food through the process of photosynthesis in the presence of sunlight by utilizing carbon-dioxide and water and produces oxygen and carbohydrate.
But due to the absence of sunlight, plant will be unable to use carbon dioxide and water for photosynthesis and oxygen is a by-product.
So the reason of seed germination is the presence of glucose in the seed. Seeds generally germinate through the process of inhibition, that require uptake of water. Glucose works as energy source in humans and plants as well. sugar or glucose allow the seed to utilize the water and help foster its growth.
Hence, the correct option is D. glucose in the seed.
Which of the following body parts has striped muscles?
Answer:
Heart
Explanation:
To determine if the substance in the first test tube
above is indeed a meat, you could also test it
using
Answer:
Biuret solution
Explanation:Just did the lab
what are primitive features of lycopodium?
Answer:
Lycopodium is known as Club moss. It is a vascular plant which makes it an advanced type of plant. It however has some primitive features which includes Production of spores. The plant has an underground sexual reproduction system which produces gametes for this process and also produces spores which are used in asexual reproduction of the plant. The two forms alternate with each other. Another primitive feature is their lack of flowers.
Scenario: You are a research scientist and are working with eukaryotic cells obtained from a newly discovered organism, Oviductus oblatus. You want to determine if this organism’s cells are similar in structure an organization to other eukaryotic cells. You collect the cells and examine them using a light microscope and a cell stain in an attempt to see the internal cellular structures. Lo and behold you are happy because you are able to see particular structures using this method. You find the following features: Organism’s cell are able to move Internal structures appears to be made of protein fibers Internal structures protein fibers measured 7.0 nanometers diameter Internal structures protein fiber appears to be two strands intertwined with each others Based on this information you come to the conclusion that you have been able to identify in these cells the structure of ____. You conclude the cells of Oviductus oblatus are indeed (name the main type of cell it appears to be) ______ cells. Discussion: Post your answers for the above scenario and include evidence that supports your choice
Answer:
Based on this information you come to the conclusion that you have been able to identify in these cells the structure of microfilaments or actin filaments. Oviductus oblatus are indeed eukaryotic cellsExplanation:
In eukaryotic cells, the cytoskeleton is composed of three well defined filamentous structures: microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filaments. Each of these filamentous structures is a polymer of proteinic subunits united by weak, not covalent connections.
The microfilaments are the thinnest of the three structures. They have a diameter of 7 nanometers and are composed of many proteinic monomers united. This monomeric protein is called actin. Many monomers get combined to form a structure that assembles a double helix.
Due to the fact that these microfilaments are made of actin monomers, they are also known as actin filaments.
Actin filaments have directionality which means that their extremes have different structures.
In eukaryotic cells, genes that codify for actin microfilaments are highly conserved in all organisms, which is why they are often used as molecular markers for different studies.
During digestion fat is broken down into
Answer:
Lipase
Explanation:
Lipase enzymes break down fat into fatty acids and glycerol. Digestion of fat in the small intestine is helped by bile, made in the liver.
In lab we looked at succession using marine organisms. The process of succession also happens because of wildfires, and those communities do recover and follow the general model of succession. Below is a photo I took one year after a fire at Lake Tahoe. You can see see the burned trees in this photo. What proportion of r-selected species relative to K- selected species should we expect to see at this early stage of recovery?
The given question is not complete, the complete question is:
In lab we looked at succession using marine organisms. The process of succession also happens because of wildfires, and those communities do recover and follow the general model of succession. Below is a photo I took one year after a fire at Lake Tahoe. You can see see the burned trees in this photo. What proportion of r-selected species relative to K-selected species should we expect to see at this early stage of recovery? a. # of r-selected species > # of K-selected species b. # of r-selected species = # of K-selected species c. # of r-selected species < # of K-selected species. The diagram is given in the attachment below.
Answer:
The correct answer is option A, that is, the population of r-selected species will be more in comparison to the k-selected species.
Explanation:
Based on the evolutionary strategies, the preferred selection of the species that generate small body sizes, short life span offspring, and exhibit early semelparity and thrive in unstable surroundings is r-selection. These species possess the tendency to overcome the huge loss of offspring and are considered opportunists.
On the other hand, the preferred selection of the species that exhibit delayed reproduction, generate few large body size, possess long life span offspring and iteroparity, and thrive in stable surroundings is k-selection. Thus, it is clear that the r-selected species will be more in number than the species that are k-selected as r-selection plays an essential role in the initial phases of succession.
Your phylogenetic analysis resulted in 100 equally optimal trees and you would like to summarize the results showing only clades that are found in all trees. Therefore, you would use the:______
a. Majority rule consensus algorithm
b. Strict consensus algorithm
c. Adams consensus algorithm
d. The bootstrap algorithm
Answer:
The correct answer is option B.
Explanation:
Strict consensus algorithm is the most restrictive approach that includes only that components that are shared by all the members of the group. In the strict consensus tree only those trees would be considered shared clades by all the trees.
The clades must be exact same or replicated in all the trees in this type of algorithm to analysis of the phylogenetic group. A 100% threshold in support leads to the Strict consensus trees algorithm.
Thus, the correct answer is : option B.
Interplanetary material that enters the earths atmosphere and collides with the ground rather than burning up is called
Explanation:Meteorito o meteoro
8. The function of lipoproteins in blood serum is to:
a. aid in blood clotting
b. transport cholesterol
c. maintain pH
d. remove defective red blood cells
Anaplerotic reactions serve to:__________.
a) divert materials out of the citric acid cycle for use in biosynthesis.
b) regulate energy production by bypassing the citric acid cycle.
c) replenish the citric acid cycle if it becomes depleted of intermediates by biosynthetic demands.
d) produce pyruvate, which initiates the cycle when glucose degradation is not occurring.
Answer: Option C.
replenish the citric acid cycle if it becomes depleted of intermediates by biosynthetic demands.
Explanation:
Anaplerotic reactions that form intermediates for kreb cycle, citric cycle. They form intermediates for metabolic pathways like citric cycle. The citric cycle is important for energy production and biosynthesis. Anaplerotic reactions help to restore or replenish intermediates in citric cycle if there is depletion of intermediates biosynthetic demands.
You come upon an outcropping of sandstone while working in the field in Southern Utah. You notice cross-beds. Which of the following would you be able to determine about this deposit, just from looking at it? Group of answer choices A.the complete mineral composition of the sandstone B.the direction of the wind at the time it was deposited C.the tectonic history of the deposit D.the origin of the sand in the deposit
Answer:
B. the direction of the wind at the time it was deposited
Explanation:
Cross beds refers to those rock beds which are formed due to the deposition of bed forms such as dunes. These cross beds are the group of inclined layer which is formed due to the flowing of water or wind. These rock beds represents the movement or direction of wind and water at the time of deposition and as a result cross beds are formed. So we can say that cross beds were formed due to the direction of wind.
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a.The Moon usually sets about 12 hours after it rises.
b.The Moon rises in the west and sets in the east.
c.The Full Moon rises around sunset.
d.The Moon takes a little more than 29 days to orbit the Earth.
The answer is b
Answer:
the answer is b
Explanation:
the sun sets in the south
Karl wants to devise a green and novel way to power some LEDs in a swimming pool as part of his science project. Consider the swimming pool when its in use to be a model of the ocean. Which form of renewable energy will he be able to generate from the swimming pool? A. tidal B. wind C. wave D. geothermal
Explanation:
I doubt between options b and c
Answer:
Wave
Explanation:
I just took the test on plato and it was correct :)
You discover a new alien race that you decide to call the PAMMARIANS. They are different from us in that they have three sexes, called Q, R, and S. All three sexes must fuse their gametes to form a new PAMMARIAN (and you thought dating on the Earth was hardi). They have nuclear DNA and extrachromosomal organelles, similar to mitochondria, called MITOCHLORIANS, which have their own DNA. The R gender is like human females (they donate the cytoplasm during the mating). Q and S do NOT donate cytoplasm during mating, like human males. Which of the following is TRUE?
A. In a mating, if only the Q gender individual has a mitochlorian DNA mutation that causes a phenotype, the offspring WILL HAVE a mitochlorian mutant phenotype.
B. In a mating, if the S and a genders have a mitochlorian DNA mutation, the offspring will be mutant as well.
C. In a mating, if only the R gender individual has a mitochlorian DNA mutation that causes a phenotype, the offspring will have NO mitochlorian mutant phenotype.
D. In a mating, if only the gender individual has a mitochlorian DNA mutation that causes a phenotype, the offspring WILL HAVE a mitochlorian mutant phenotype.
E. In a mating, if only the Q gender individual has a mitochlorian DNA mutation that causes a phenotype, the offspring will have NO mitochlorian mutant phenotype.
Answer:
Option E
Explanation:
In a mating, if only the Q gender individual has a mitochlorian DNA mutation that causes a phenotype, the offspring will have NO mitochlorian mutant phenotype.
It was discovered that an offspring always inherits the mothers mitochondrion DNA including all its defects and not from the father as the mother contributes the bulk of the cytoplasm. Thus, since the gender female is R, if she possess a mutant mitochorlian DNA, the offspring will exhibit that mutant phenotype as care to Q and S that cant pass their mutation on.
I need the answers to this question super quick!! Thank yoh
Answer:
They are "anti" condons or "stop" condons
Explanation:
g B. PROTEINS 1. Name the gastric enzyme that initiates protein digestion. Explain how this enzyme is activated. Pepsin is the gastric enzyme that initiates protein digestion. It is activated by stomach acid into the active form. It then breaks down the protein in our food into smaller particles like peptide fragments and amino acids. 2. Name the ducts in the pathway by which pancreatic juice flows from the pancreas to the duodenum. The Pancreatic duct. 3. Describe 3 ways the body uses these amino acids..
Answer:
1-the gastric enzyme is pepsin, which is why it is a peptidase, since it catalyzes the binding of proteins within the stomach. Its activation method is the acidic pH of the stomach.
2-Pancreatic juice is a juice that hydrolyzes and helps the digestion of proteins or peptides, since this is the EXOCRINE substance of the pancreas, this juice being exocrine is poured into the main pancreatic duct of the pancreas and then through the choledochol in the blister of toilet at intestinal level.
3-amino acids are used by the body for hormonal, transport, and structural purposes. It also has other functions such as the conformation of the same DNA, but there are 3 that must be answered.
Explanation:
Proteins have structures or junctions that are quaternary, tertiary, binary, and primary.
the easiest to degrade with the quaternary and tertiary while the other two do not.
It is important that you know this fact why these structures are ordered from the outside to the inside or inside the protein, the outermost ones are the quaternary ones and the innermost ones are the primary ones.
A protein ceases to be protein and becomes free and separated amino acids when it reaches the heart of the protein and breaks the primary bond, or the sea the strongest and most difficult to break.
These amino acids have multiple functions but they can be said which, when united, are the unit that makes up proteins or peptides.
soil erosion soil erosion can be prevented by the following ways except A. mulching B. erracing C. strip cropping D. deforestation E. planting of cover crops
Answer:
Answer is D, Deforestation
Explanation:
Hope this helps
Have a nice day :D
true or false if you click on the name of a structure you identified incorrectly or correctly you will be taken to the module in APR where you can review this structure
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
When you are given a given structure and you ick on it to know if its correct or wrong you will be taken to a module on APR where u can review this structure and see clearly if it's right or wrong. That is how the website as be programmed. Once you click on it, u are automatically directed to APR to review and clarify your answers.
7. A similarity between New Zealand and Australia is that- *
the native populations in both countries are the Aboriginies.
the monarch for both countries is Queen Elizabeth II.
neither country depends on tourism to boost their economy.
the nickname "Kiwi" refers to both Australians and New Zealanders.
Answer:
the monarch for both countries is Queen Elizabeth II.
Explanation: They are Island nations of the south Pacific.
The two countries were colonized by Abel Tasman, but were colonized by the British.Therefore recognized the Queen as the monarch. They both have a stable society and progressive movements. Both countries have good standard of living, with high sense of innovation and share almost the same type of food, wines, culture and music. They also have one of the best Diary farms in the world. They love the same sports-Rugby.
