i need help pls
i will give 25 points

Answer:

500 + 100m = 1000 + 50m

Step-by-step explanation:

In order to form an equation we need atleast on variable which in this scenario would be the number of months (m). We can say that we know that sooner or later their savings will equal. Therefore, we can create the following equations for each of their savings progress which are equal to one another...

500 + 100m = 1000 + 50m

This equation if solved would give us the value of 10 for the variable m, meaning that their savings will equal in 10 months. To find out how much each will have in 10 months we can simply grab one half of the equation and substitute 10 for m

500 + 100(10) = x

500 + 1000 = x

1500 = x

Finally, we can see that after 10 months they would both have $1500 saved up.

Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

102.63

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 12 months in a year. 12 * 38 = 456

There  are 52 weeks in a year 52 * 9 = 468

Cigarettes : dry cleaning :: 468:456

Cigarettes : dry cleaning :: 1.0263

The % is (468/456)*100 = 102.63%

The % shows that she spends more on cigarettes than she does on dry cleaning, which is usually the case.

Answer:

28.25

Step-by-step explanation:

Area = C²/ 4π = 28.245673384359

Answer:

28.25 units^2

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps!

Answer:

AB

Step-by-step explanation:

AB, because it is the same side as EF

Answer:

d hopefully this helps you

Answer: no

Step-by-step explanation: 2 is not less than 1

Answer:

No because if you plug in f with 2 it is saying 2 is less than 1 which is not true so it would be

No

Answer: The answer is 3 3/4

I hope this helps

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

First, you have a wrong expression for the options given. Secondly, it seems that the right expression when evaluated, equals 0.026. See below what you can do to solve this problem.

The answers are A, D and F

Step-by-step explanation:

The expression given here does not correlate with any of the options.

94.3 ÷ 10 = 9.43

I assume the '2' which is one space after the '10' is the serial number of this question in your textbook or classwork.

Even if the 2 was supposed to be attached to the 10, that'll be 102 and [94.3 ÷ 102] is equal to 0.9245

Given this confusion, it's safest to assume that the right expression when evaluated, will equal 0.026

Now based on this, 3 options that apply (3 options that mean the same thing or that properly describe the answer from the evaluation) are:

(A) The expression is equivalent to (this is the symbol for 'equivalent to' '≡') 0.026

(D) It is the same as dividing 26 by 1000. 26 divided by 1000 will give you 0.026

(F) It is the same as [26 ÷ 10 ÷ 10 ÷ 10]. Simply put all the 10s as denominators and then divide 26 by the total of the multiplied 10s. That is, 10x10x10 = 1000 then 26÷1000

Answer:

86.5ml...hope I am right

The final volume of the mixture is 161.61146 milliliters (ml) as per the data given in the prescription.

A prescription, also known as a Rx, is a formal communication from a doctor or other registered health-care professional to a pharmacist.

The prescription indicates that Chlorpheniramine comes in a 100ml bottle, Lidocaine comes in a 2oz bottle, and 1/2 tsp of banana flavoring is to be added. The prescription instructs to take 10ml of the mixture twice a day (BID).

First, we need to convert the 2oz of Lidocaine into milliliters. One fluid ounce (oz) is equivalent to approximately 29.5735 milliliters (ml). Therefore, 2oz of Lidocaine is equal to:

2 oz x 29.5735 ml/oz = 59.147 ml

Next, we need to add 1/2 tsp (teaspoon) of banana flavoring to the mixture. One teaspoon is equivalent to approximately 4.92892 milliliters (ml). Therefore, 1/2 tsp of banana flavoring is equal to:

1/2 tsp x 4.92892 ml/tsp = 2.46446 ml

To find the final volume of the mixture, we add the volumes of Chlorpheniramine, Lidocaine, and banana flavoring:

Final volume = Chlorpheniramine volume + Lidocaine volume + Banana flavoring volume

Final volume = 100ml + 59.147ml + 2.46446ml

Final volume = 161.61146 ml

Therefore, the final volume of the mixture is 161.61146 milliliters (ml).

For more details regarding prescription, visit:

https://brainly.com/question/29704315

#SPJ7

Step-by-step explanation:

Checked out the attached image

Answer:

yes it did they are both the same if u put a reflection on it

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

110 ft. is the height of the building.

Answer:

8x+2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

5.421 > 5.4

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Not a function because the domain 4 repeats.

Answer:

8/9

Step-by-step explanation:

To make it a fraction form answer, you multiply the dividend numerator by the divisor denominator to make a new numerator.

Furthermore, you multiply the dividend denominator by the divisor numerator to make a new denominator:

'

Thus, the answer to 1/3 divided by 3/8 in fraction form is: 8/9

Answer:

8/9

Step-by-step explanation:

Use a calculator. It is way easier. Math is hard.

Answer:

First brand = 18 gallons

Second brand = 12 gallons

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the first brand brand be A and the second brand be B.

Thus, since he wants to obtain 30 gallons of a mixture that contains 30% pure antifreeze, then we have;

A + B = 30 - - - (eq 1)

Also; The first brand is 20% pure antifreeze, and the second brand is 45% pure antifreeze. Thus;

0.2A + 0.45B = (0.3 × 30)

0.2A + 0.45B = 9 - - - (eq 2)

From eq 1, we have; A = 30 - B

Put 30 - B for A in eq 2;

0.2(30 - B) + 0.45B = 9

6 - 0.2B + 0.45B = 9

0.25B = 9 - 6

0.25B = 3

B = 3/0.25

B = 12

Thus, A = 30 - 12 = 18 gallons

Answer:

The equation of the line that passes through (0, -2) and has a slope of 0 is [tex]\mathbf{y=-2}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

We need to find the equation of the line that passes through (0, -2) and has a slope of 0?

The equation of line can be expressed in slope-intercept form [tex]y=mx+b[/tex] where

We need to find slope and y-intercept for the equation.

We are given slope = 0 so, m = 0

Now, y-intercept can be found using slope m=0 and point (0,-2)

[tex]y=mx+b\\-2=0(0)+b\\-2=b\\or\\b=-2[/tex]

So, we get y-intercept: b = -2

Now, the equation of the line having slope m=0 and y-intercept b=-2 is:

[tex]y=mx+b\\y=0(x)-2\\y=-2[/tex]

So, the equation of the line that passes through (0, -2) and has a slope of 0 is [tex]\mathbf{y=-2}[/tex]

Answer:

m = 17.78.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the algebraic expression;

2.5m + 10 = 1.6m - 6​

To find the value of m;

First of all, we would collect like terms.

2.5m - 1.6m = -6​ - 10

0.9m = -16

m = -16/0.9

m = 17.78

Answer:

a = 66⁰

b = 33⁰

Step-by-step explanation:

Given;

∠ABC = 114⁰

To calculate a⁰;

a + 114 = 180⁰ (opposite angles of a quadrilateral are supplementary)

a = 180 - 114

a = 66⁰

To calculate b⁰;

Line AB = Line BC, thus, ∠BAC = ∠BCA

∠BAC = b,      then  ∠BCA = b

b + b + 114 = 180 (sum of angles in a triangle)

2b = 180 - 114

2b = 66

b = 66/2

b = 33⁰

not proportional

y=mx+b

does not cross origin

Only CRoC

Answer/Step-by-step explanation:

✔️Find <K using law of sines:

Thus,

[tex] \frac{sin(K)}{k} = \frac{sin(H)}{h} [/tex]

K = ??

k = 37 mm

H = 34°

h = 29 mm

Plug in the values

[tex] \frac{sin(K)}{37} = \frac{sin(34)}{29} [/tex]

Multiply both sides by 37

[tex] \frac{sin(K)}{37}*37 = \frac{sin(34)}{29}*37 [/tex]

[tex] sin(K) = \frac{sin(34)*37}{29} [/tex]

[tex] sin(K) = 0.713453014 [/tex]

[tex] K = sin^{-1}(0.713453014) [/tex]

[tex] K = 45.5 degrees [/tex] (nearest tenth)

✔️Find J:

m<J = 180° - (45.5° + 34°) (sum of ∆)

m<J = 100.5°

✔️Find j using Sine rule:

[tex] \frac{j}{sin(J)} = \frac{h}{sin(H)} [/tex]

J = 100.5°

j = ??

H = 34°

h = 29 mm

Plug in the values

[tex] \frac{j}{sin(100.5)} = \frac{29}{sin(34)} [/tex]

Multiply both sides by sin(100.5)

[tex] \frac{j}{sin(100.5)}*sin(100.5) = \frac{29}{sin(34)}*sin(100.5) [/tex]

[tex] j = \frac{29*sin(100.5)}{sin(34)} [/tex]

j = 51.0 mm (nearest tenth)

Answer:

0.0013 = 0.13% probability that no more than four out of fifteen people used an online travel website when they booked their hotel

Step-by-step explanation:

For each person, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they booked the hotel using an online travel website, or they did not. Each person is independent of each other. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

In which [tex]C_{n,x}[/tex] is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

And p is the probability of X happening.

Suppose that the probability that a person books a hotel using an online travel website is 0.68.

This means that [tex]p = 0.68[/tex]

Sample of fifteen:

This means that [tex]n = 15[/tex]

What is the probability that no more than four out of fifteen people used an online travel website when they booked their hotel

[tex]P(X \leq 4) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4)[/tex]

So

[tex]P(X = 0) = C_{15,0}.(0.68)^{0}.(0.32)^{15} = 0[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 1) = C_{15,1}.(0.68)^{1}.(0.32)^{14} = 0[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 2) = C_{15,2}.(0.68)^{2}.(0.32)^{13} = 0[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 3) = C_{15,3}.(0.68)^{3}.(0.32)^{12} = 0.0002[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 4) = C_{15,4}.(0.68)^{4}.(0.32)^{11} = 0.0011[/tex]

[tex]P(X \leq 4) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) = 0 + 0 + 0 + 0.0002 + 0.0011 = 0.0013[/tex]

0.0013 = 0.13% probability that no more than four out of fifteen people used an online travel website when they booked their hotel

Answer:

2.5% of American women have shoe sizes that are greater than 11.47.

Step-by-step explanation:

The Empirical Rule states that, for a normally distributed random variable:

68% of the measures are within 1 standard deviation of the mean.

95% of the measures are within 2 standard deviation of the mean.

99.7% of the measures are within 3 standard deviations of the mean.

In this problem, we have that:

Mean = 8.47

Standard deviation = 1.5

The normal distribution is symmetric, which means that half the measures are below the mean, and half are above the mean.

What percentage of American women have shoe sizes that are greater than 11.47?

11.47 = 8.47 + 2*1.5

This means that 11.47 is two standard deviations above the mean.

Of those measures below the mean, none are greater than 11.47.

Of those measures above the mean, 95% are between the mean and 11.47, and 5% are above. So

0.5*0.05 = 0.025

2.5% of American women have shoe sizes that are greater than 11.47.

Answer:

32x - 24y - 5

Step-by-step explanation:

That's the answer that I got on the question

Answer:

4x-3y-5

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