If 75.0 g of CO reacts to produce 68.4 g CH3OH, what is the percent yield of CH3OH?CO + 2H2 --> CH3OH

Answers

Answer 1

The experimental mass of CH₃OH is 68.4 g, so the yield is equal to 79.73% of the theoretical mass divided by the experimental mass.

The reasonable condition is

CO(g) + 2 H₂ (g) - - - - - - - > CH₃OH(g)

Given mass of CO = 75 g

Molar mass=28.01 g/mol.

Moles of CO=mass/molar mass

                       =75 g/28.01 g/mol

                          =2.677 mol.

CH₃OH has a molar mass of 32.04 g/mol.

There are 2.677 moles of CO used for every mole of CH₃OH produced.

(Because of the balanced equation, the molar ratio of CO: CH₃OH = 1:1

The theoretical mass of CH₃OH produced is equal to 2.677 mol x 32.04 g/mol, or 85.79 g.

The experimental mass of CH₃OH is 68.4 g, so the yield is equal to 79.73% of the theoretical mass divided by the experimental mass.

The actual yield divided by the theoretical yield multiplied by 100 is the definition of percent yield. In subsequent chapters of the course, we will discuss a variety of the reasons why the actual yield of a chemical reaction may be lower than the theoretical yield.

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Complete question as follows :

Methanol (CH₃OH) is produced by reacting carbon monoxide with hydrogen gas. If 75.0 g of carbon monoxide reacts to produce 68.4 g of methanol, what is the percent yield? . of CH₃OH?CO + 2 H₂ --> CH₃OH


Related Questions

A monatomic ideal gas is held in a thermally insulated container with a volume of 0.0600 m³. The pressure of the gas is 111 kPa, and its temperature is 325 K. Y Part A To what volume must the gas be compressed to increase its pressure to 145 kPa? Express your answer using three significant figures. V Submit Part B V 箔 Submit ΑΣΦ Request Answer At what volume will the gas have a temperature of 300 K? Express your answer using three significant figures. V ΑΣΦ ? Request Answer ? m³ m³

Answers

The gas must be compressed to a volume of approximately 0.0460 m³.

At a temperature of 300 K, the gas will have a volume of approximately 0.0554 m³.

a)

Initial volume (V1) = 0.0600 m³

Initial pressure (P1) = 111 kPa

Final pressure (P2) = 145 kPa

We can use Boyle's law to find the new volume (V2):

P1V1 = P2V2

Substituting the values:

(111 kPa)(0.0600 m³) = (145 kPa)(V2)

Solving for V2:

V2 = (111 kPa)(0.0600 m³) / (145 kPa)

V2 ≈ 0.0460 m³

Therefore, the gas must be compressed to a volume of approximately 0.0460 m³ to increase its pressure to 145 kPa.

b)

Initial volume (V1) = 0.0600 m³

Initial temperature (T1) = 325 K

Final temperature (T2) = 300 K

We can use the ideal gas law to find the new volume (V2):

V1 / T1 = V2 / T2

Substituting the values:

(0.0600 m³) / (325 K) = V2 / (300 K)

Solving for V2:

V2 = (0.0600 m³) * (300 K) / (325 K)

V2 ≈ 0.0554 m³

Therefore, when the gas has a temperature of 300 K, its volume will be approximately 0.0554 m³.

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potassium (k) has a smaller atomic mass than argon (ar) even though the atomic number of potassium is larger than the atomic number of argon. which of the following best accounts for this observation?

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The best explanation for potassium having a smaller atomic mass than argon, despite potassium having a larger atomic number, is the presence of isotopes.

The atomic mass of an element is determined by the weighted average of the masses of its naturally occurring isotopes, taking into account their relative abundance. Isotopes are atoms of the same element with different numbers of neutrons.

Potassium (K) has three naturally occurring isotopes: potassium-39, potassium-40, and potassium-41. Argon (Ar) has three stable isotopes: argon-36, argon-38, and argon-40.

The atomic mass of potassium is lower than argon because the most abundant isotope of potassium, potassium-39, has a lower mass than the most abundant isotope of argon, argon-40. Despite having a larger atomic number, the contribution of heavier isotopes in argon's atomic mass outweighs the lower mass of potassium's isotopes.

Therefore, the variation in isotopic composition is the primary factor leading to the difference in atomic mass between potassium and argon, despite potassium having a larger atomic number.

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vitamin b12, an essential nutrient for humans, contains which of the following elements? a. cobalt b. chromium c. copper d. zinc e. iron

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a. cobalt. Vitamin B12, also known as cobalamin, contains the element cobalt.

Cobalt is an essential component of the structure of vitamin B12, which plays a crucial role in various physiological processes in the human body. It is involved in the formation of red blood cells, DNA synthesis, and the maintenance of the nervous system. Cobalt is necessary for the proper functioning of enzymes involved in these processes. While other elements like chromium, copper, zinc, and iron are also essential for human health, they are not directly associated with the structure or function of vitamin B12.

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A solution is prepared by dissolving 15.0g of NH3 in 250g of water.The density of the resulting solution is 0.974g/mL. The molarity of NH3 in the solution is ?

Answers

The molarity of NH3 in the solution is 2.29 M.

To calculate the molarity of NH3 in the solution, we need to determine the moles of NH3 and the volume of the solution. First, we calculate the moles of NH3 by dividing the given mass of NH3 (15.0 g) by its molar mass (17.03 g/mol), which gives us approximately 0.881 mol.

Next, we determine the volume of the solution by dividing the given mass of water (250 g) by the density of the solution (0.974 g/mL). This gives us a volume of approximately 256.48 mL or 0.25648 L.

Finally, we divide the moles of NH3 by the volume of the solution in liters to obtain the molarity. Dividing 0.881 mol by 0.25648 L gives us a molarity of NH3 of approximately 2.29 M.

The molarity of NH3 in the given solution, prepared by dissolving 15.0 g of NH3 in 250 g of water with a density of 0.974 g/mL, is approximately 2.29 M.

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After 60 years, 20 % of a radioactive material decays. What is
the half-life?

Answers

The half-life of the radioactive material is approximately 345 years.

Radioactive decay refers to the process in which unstable atomic nuclei spontaneously break down, emitting radiation in the process. The half-life of a radioactive material is the time it takes for half of the initial quantity of the substance to undergo radioactive decay. In this scenario, we are told that after 60 years, 20% of the material decays.

To determine the half-life, we can use the fact that after one half-life, half of the material remains. Since 20% of the material decays after 60 years, we can conclude that after one half-life, 80% of the material remains (100% - 20% = 80%). Therefore, we can set up the following equation:

80% = (1/2)^n

where 'n' represents the number of half-lives. Solving this equation, we find that 'n' is equal to approximately 0.897.

To determine the actual time for one half-life, we can divide 60 years by 'n':

60 years / 0.897 ≈ 66.9 years

Therefore, the half-life of the radioactive material is approximately 66.9 years.

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Gold forms a substitutional solid solution with silver. Compute the weight percent of gold that must be added to silver to yield an alloy that contains 6.5 × 1021 Au atoms per cubic centimeter. The densities of pure Au and Ag are 19.32 and 10.49 g/cm3, respectively. The atomic weights for gold and silver are 196.97 and 107.87 g/mol, respectively.

Answers

The weight percent of gold that must be added to silver to yield an alloy with 6.5 × 10^21 Au atoms per cm^3 is approximately 70.97%.

To compute the weight percent of gold in the alloy, we need to consider the number of gold atoms and silver atoms per cubic centimeter and their respective weights.

Given:

Number of Au atoms per cm^3 = 6.5 × 10^21

Density of pure Au (ρAu) = 19.32 g/cm^3

Density of pure Ag (ρAg) = 10.49 g/cm^3

Atomic weight of gold (MAu) = 196.97 g/mol

Atomic weight of silver (MAg) = 107.87 g/mol

Calculate the weight of gold per cm^3:

Number of moles of gold (nAu) = Number of Au atoms / Avogadro's number

Mass of gold (mAu) = nAu * MAu

Weight of gold (wAu) = mAu / Volume

Calculate the weight of silver per cm^3:

Weight of silver (wAg) = (Density of alloy - wAu) * Volume

Calculate the weight percent of gold:

Weight percent of gold = (wAu / (wAu + wAg)) * 100

Now let's perform the calculations:

Number of moles of gold:

nAu = (6.5 × 10^21) / (6.02214076 × 10^23) = 0.010800 mol

Mass of gold:

mAu = nAu * MAu = 0.010800 mol * 196.97 g/mol = 2.127456 g

Weight of gold:

wAu = mAu / Volume

To find the volume, we need to convert the weight of gold to cm^3 using the density:

Volume = wAu / ρAu = 2.127456 g / 19.32 g/cm^3 = 0.110046 cm^3

Weight of silver:

wAg = (ρAg - wAu) * Volume

wAg = (10.49 g/cm^3 - 2.127456 g/cm^3) * 0.110046 cm^3 = 0.869862 g

Weight percent of gold:

Weight percent of gold = (wAu / (wAu + wAg)) * 100

Weight percent of gold = (2.127456 g / (2.127456 g + 0.869862 g)) * 100

Weight percent of gold ≈ 70.97%

Therefore, the weight percent of gold that must be added to silver to yield an alloy with 6.5 × 10^21 Au atoms per cm^3 is approximately 70.97%.

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which airborne material is not likely to be affected by the filters or indoor air handling equipment? a.particles b.pollen c. soot d.carbon monoxide

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Carbon monoxide is the airborne material is not likely to be affected by the filters or indoor air handling equipment. The correct answer is d. carbon monoxide.

Carbon monoxide (CO) is a gas rather than a particulate matter. It is produced by incomplete combustion of fossil fuels, such as gasoline, natural gas, and wood. Unlike particles, which can be filtered out by air handling equipment, carbon monoxide cannot be effectively removed by standard filters or indoor air handling systems.

Carbon monoxide is a colorless, odorless, and tasteless gas that can be extremely harmful when inhaled. It can bind to hemoglobin in the blood, reducing its oxygen-carrying capacity and leading to tissue damage or even death in high concentrations.

To mitigate the risk of carbon monoxide exposure, it is important to ensure proper ventilation in indoor spaces, especially those with potential sources of carbon monoxide, such as gas-powered appliances, fireplaces, or attached garages. Carbon monoxide detectors should be installed in homes and buildings to provide an early warning in case of elevated levels of the gas.

While filters and air handling equipment can help remove particles and pollutants from indoor air, they are not effective in capturing or eliminating carbon monoxide gas. Monitoring and prevention measures are crucial for addressing carbon monoxide exposure risks.

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1. The particles in a crystal are arranged in an orderly 3-D array called the crystal ________________.
The simplest repeating unit of the crystal is called the unit ________________.

2. Diamond is one of the common crystalline forms of __________________ in which each atom is bonded to 4 others by strong, ______________ bonds to create a large 3-D array.

Answers

The orderly 3-D array in which particles in a crystal are arranged is called the crystal lattice. The unit cell is the simplest repeating unit of the crystal.

In a crystal, such as a diamond, the particles (atoms, ions, or molecules) are arranged in a highly ordered manner, forming a repeating pattern throughout the entire crystal. This arrangement is known as the crystal lattice. The crystal lattice defines the overall structure of the crystal and determines its properties.

The crystal lattice is made up of unit cells, which are essentially building blocks that repeat in all three dimensions to form the crystal structure. The unit cell represents the smallest repeating unit that contains all the information about the crystal lattice. It is a three-dimensional parallelepiped with edges defined by lattice vectors.

Each type of crystal has its own unique crystal lattice and unit cell. The arrangement of particles within the unit cell may vary depending on the crystal structure, but the overall repeating pattern remains the same throughout the crystal lattice.

Diamond is an example of a crystalline form of carbon. In a diamond crystal, each carbon atom is bonded to four other carbon atoms through strong covalent bonds. These covalent bonds form a tetrahedral arrangement around each carbon atom, resulting in a three-dimensional array of interconnected carbon atoms. The strong covalent bonds give diamond its exceptional hardness and make it one of the hardest substances known.

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what is the difference between simple sugars and complex carbohydrates

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Simple sugars are single sugar molecules that are quickly digested and absorbed, while complex carbohydrates are polysaccharides that take longer to break down, providing sustained energy and additional nutrients.

Simple sugars, also known as monosaccharides or simple carbohydrates, are single sugar molecules that are easily digested and rapidly absorbed into the bloodstream. They include glucose, fructose, and galactose. Simple sugars are naturally found in fruits, honey, and milk, and they are also added to many processed foods and beverages as sweeteners. Due to their molecular structure, simple sugars provide quick bursts of energy but lack substantial nutritional value.

On the other hand, complex carbohydrates are polysaccharides composed of multiple sugar molecules linked together. They are found in foods such as whole grains, legumes, vegetables, and starchy foods like potatoes and corn. Complex carbohydrates take longer to break down during digestion due to their complex structure, resulting in a slower and more sustained release of glucose into the bloodstream. This slower digestion process helps maintain stable blood sugar levels, provides sustained energy, and promotes a feeling of fullness.

The key difference between simple sugars and complex carbohydrates lies in their molecular structure and how they affect the body. Simple sugars are quickly absorbed and can lead to rapid blood sugar spikes, which may contribute to energy crashes and cravings. Complex carbohydrates, with their longer digestion time, provide a more gradual release of energy, promote satiety, and offer additional nutrients, such as fiber, vitamins, and minerals. Incorporating a balanced mix of both simple and complex carbohydrates into the diet is important for overall health and energy management.

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compounds that contain carbon and hydrogen are referred to as _____ compounds. select one: a. pure b. elemental c. carboniferous d. organic

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Compounds that contain carbon and hydrogen are referred to as organic compounds. These compounds are the building blocks of life and have diverse structures and properties.

Compounds that contain carbon and hydrogen are referred to as organic compounds. The correct answer is d. organic.

Organic compounds are the basis of life on Earth and are characterized by the presence of carbon atoms bonded to hydrogen atoms.

Carbon has the unique ability to form stable covalent bonds with other carbon atoms and a variety of other elements, which allows for the formation of a vast array of organic compounds with diverse structures and properties.

Organic compounds are found in living organisms, such as plants, animals, and microorganisms.

They play crucial roles in biological processes, including energy production, structural support, and information storage. Examples of organic compounds include carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids.

In contrast, compounds that contain only carbon are referred to as pure carbon or elemental carbon compounds. However, since the question specifically mentions compounds that contain both carbon and hydrogen, the appropriate term to describe them is organic compounds.

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Q1. The band structure of Indium Phosphide \( (\ln P) \) is illustrated below showing the conduction and valence bands. (a) Using the illustration, identify: i. The band gap type and associated band g

Answers

Indium phosphide [tex]\((InP)\)[/tex] has a direct bandgap with an associated bandgap energy of 0.61 eV.

Given is the band structure of Indium Phosphide [tex]\((InP)\)[/tex] showing the valence and conduction bands:

To determine the band gap type and the associated bandgap energy, we need to study the graph. The bandgap energy is the energy difference between the conduction band minimum (CBM) and the valence band maximum (VBM).

a. The band gap type of Indium Phosphide is Direct bandgap as the minimum energy at the conduction band coincides with the maximum energy at the valence band in k-space.

In direct bandgap semiconductors, the conduction band minimum (CBM) and valence band maximum (VBM) occur at the same momentum value (k), and it has a high optical absorption coefficient.

b. The associated bandgap energy of Indium Phosphide is calculated by the difference between the valence band maximum and the conduction band minimum.

Energy bandgap (Eg) = CBM - VBM = 1.35 - 0.74= 0.61 eV.

Indium phosphide [tex]\((InP)\)[/tex] has a direct bandgap with an associated bandgap energy of 0.61 eV.

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which substance can dissolve only 40 g in 60°c water? group of answer choices a. nacl b. kclo3 c. kcl d. ce2(so4)3

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The substance that can dissolve only 40 g in 60°C water is d. Ce2(SO4)3.

In aqueous solutions, the solubility of a substance is influenced by factors such as temperature, pressure, and the nature of the solute and solvent. The solubility of a compound refers to the maximum amount of that compound that can dissolve in a given amount of solvent at a specific temperature.

Among the given options, Ce2(SO4)3, also known as cerium(III) sulfate, has a relatively low solubility in water at 60°C. It can dissolve only 40 g in 60°C water. This means that when 40 g of Ce2(SO4)3 is added to water at 60°C, it will fully dissolve, but if more than 40 g is added, the excess Ce2(SO4)3 will not dissolve and will remain as a solid in the solution.

Cerium(III) sulfate is an ionic compound consisting of cerium ions (Ce3+) and sulfate ions (SO42-). The low solubility of Ce2(SO4)3 in water at 60°C can be attributed to the strong electrostatic interactions between the ions, which makes it difficult for the compound to dissociate and dissolve in the solvent.

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bulky substituents prefer to occupy a(n) ______ position in the cyclohexane chair conformation, since the substituent has more space.

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Bulky substituents prefer to occupy the equatorial position in the cyclohexane chair conformation, since the substituent has more space because bulky substituents have a large steric hindrance effect on the adjacent substituents; thus, they favor occupying certain locations in the cyclohexane conformation to minimize this effect.

When bulky groups are placed in the axial position of the cyclohexane chair, they are adjacent to the hydrogens in the same axial orientation and to the carbons in the opposite axial orientation. Due to the steric hindrance effect, this position is less stable than the equatorial position.

In contrast, bulky substituents prefer the equatorial location in the cyclohexane chair conformation because it has more space. This is due to the fact that it has more space than the axial location, where the steric hindrance effect is larger and may lead to unfavourable interactions between the bulky group and other substituents. The equatorial position is also closer to the average plane of the cyclohexane chair, which is ideal for minimizing the steric interactions.

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(10 points for each answer) For a face centered cubic lattice of identical atoms with a lattice constant of 6 A, calculate the radius of the atoms treated as hard spheres with nearest neighbors touching, and the maximum packing fraction for the fcc unit cell. Show all calculations, including for the packing fraction. Atomic Radius Maximum Packing Fraction

Answers

The maximum packing fraction face-centered cubic (FCC)  for the unit cell is 74.05%.

To calculate the radius of atoms in a face-centered cubic (FCC) lattice and the maximum packing fraction, we can use the following steps:

Determining the Atomic Radius:

In an FCC lattice, each atom is surrounded by 12 nearest neighbors. These neighbors form the edges of a regular tetrahedron. Let's consider the distance between the centers of two adjacent atoms as the sum of their radii.

For an FCC lattice, the distance between the centers of adjacent atoms is given by:

a = 2 * radius, where 'a' is the lattice constant.

Given the lattice constant a = 6 Å (angstroms), we can rearrange the equation to find the radius:

radius = a / 2 = 6 Å / 2 = 3 Å.

Therefore, the radius of the atoms in the FCC lattice is 3 Å.

Calculating the Maximum Packing Fraction:

The maximum packing fraction (η) for the FCC lattice can be calculated by considering the arrangement of atoms in a unit cell.

In an FCC unit cell, there are 4 atoms located at the corners and 1 atom at the center of each face. The total volume occupied by these atoms is equal to the volume of the unit cell.

The volume of the unit cell (V_unit) is given by:

V_unit = a^3

The volume occupied by the atoms (V_atoms) is given by:

V_atoms = 4 * (4/3) * π * radius^3

The maximum packing fraction is then calculated as the ratio of the volume occupied by the atoms to the volume of the unit cell:

η = V_atoms / V_unit

Substituting the values, we have:

η = [4 * (4/3) * π * (3 Å)^3] / (6 Å)^3

Evaluating the expression, we find:

η ≈ 0.7405

Therefore, the maximum packing fraction for the FCC unit cell is approximately 0.7405 or 74.05%.

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In the classical free electron model, the name(s) given to the neglect of electron ion interaction is/are
i. The independent electron approximation
ii. The free electron approximation
iii. The Drude electron - ion approximation

(i) Only
(ii) Only
(i) and (ii)
(iii) Only

Answers

in the classical free electron model, the neglect of electron-ion interaction is referred to as the free electron approximation. The correct option is (ii) Only.

This approximation assumes that the interaction between electrons and ions can be ignored, treating the electrons as free particles moving in a periodic potential without any significant influence from the ions. The independent electron approximation, on the other hand, assumes that the behavior of each electron can be considered independently of the others. The Drude electron-ion approximation incorporates electron-ion interactions and is not part of the classical free electron model. Therefore, the correct option is (ii) Only.

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a bond in which electrons are completely lost or gained

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Ionic bond is a type of bond in which electrons are completely lost or gained.

In an ionic bond, atoms transfer electrons to achieve a stable electronic configuration. One atom loses electrons and becomes positively charged, while another atom gains those electrons and becomes negatively charged.

This electron transfer results in the formation of ions with opposite charges, which are attracted to each other and form an ionic bond.

In this type of bond, the electron loss or gain is complete, meaning that one atom completely loses its valence electrons, while the other atom gains those electrons to fill its valence shell. This transfer of electrons leads to the formation of a bond between the positively charged cation and the negatively charged anion.

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22. What type of reaction is Reaction 1?

A.Oxidation/reduction
B.Lewis acid/Lewis base
C.Double replacement
D.Ionization
it can be seen that Mg is oxidized (0 to +2) while H is reduced (+1 to 0).
This means that the reaction is an oxidation/reduction reaction, and choice A is correct. A Lewis
acid/Lewis base reaction is one in which an electron pair on one reactant (the base) is donated to
the other (the acid) in the formation of a new compound (e.g., Cl- + BCl3 → BCl4-). In these
reactions the charge state of the atoms do not change (eliminate choice B). Double replacement,
often called ion exchange, reactions are transformations in which ionic compounds simply switch
anions and cations (e.g., CsCl + NaI → CsI + NaCl). Again, in these reactions no oxidation
6
state changes occur (eliminate choice C). An ionization reaction generally describes the
dissociation of a neutral compound into its constitutive ions (e.g., HCl → H+ + Cl-), but the
oxidation states of the atoms in the compounds remain unchanged before and after the reaction

Answers

Reaction 1 is an oxidation/reduction reaction. This is because Magnesium(Mg) is oxidized (0 to +2) while H is reduced (+1 to 0), which means that the reaction is an oxidation/reduction reaction.

What is an oxidation-reduction reaction?

An oxidation-reduction reaction(ORR) is a type of chemical reaction that occurs when electrons are transferred between molecules. One atom or molecule loses electrons (oxidation) while another atom or molecule gains electrons (reduction) in the process. The reaction is commonly referred to as a redox reaction.

What is a Lewis acid-Lewis base reaction?

Lewis acids and Lewis bases are compounds that can form a complex. The acid is an electron-pair acceptor(EPA), while the base is an electron-pair donor. This reaction results in a coordinate covalent bond. The acid-base reaction is a Lewis acid-Lewis base reaction. When a Lewis base is combined with a Lewis acid, the acid-base complex that forms has a coordinate covalent bond.

What is a double replacement reaction?

Double replacement reactions(DDR) involve an exchange of ions between two different compounds. The anions and cations of both compounds switch places to create two entirely different compounds. A double replacement reaction may be in one of two forms: Precipitation Reaction and Neutralization Reaction.

What is an ionization reaction?

An ionization reaction occurs when an atom or molecule loses or gains electrons, resulting in the formation of ions. The ionization reaction may occur in two forms: neutral atoms/molecules → ions and ions → neutral atoms/molecules.

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How many kilograms mor uranium-235 must completely fission spontaneously into 10 Xe, Sr, and three neutrons to produce 1300 MW of power continuously for one year, assuming the fission reactions are 25% efficient?
m= _________kg

Answers

The mass of uranium-235 required is approximately 5790 kg to produce 1300 MW of power continuously for one year, assuming 25% efficiency.

To determine the mass of uranium-235 required for the given scenario, we need to calculate the total energy produced, considering the efficiency of the fission reactions.

First, let's determine the total energy generated in one year:

Power = 1300 MW (given)

Time = 1 year = 365 days = 365 * 24 hours = 8,760 hours

Energy = Power * Time

Energy = 1300 MW * 8,760 hours

Energy = 11,388,000 MWh (Mega-Watt hours)

Since the efficiency of fission reactions is stated to be 25%, we need to divide the total energy by the efficiency to account for the energy lost:

Energy actual = Energy / Efficiency

Energy actual = 11,388,000 MWh / 0.25

Energy_actual = 45,552,000 MWh

Next, we need to convert the energy from MWh to Joules to make further calculations.

1 MWh = 3.6 ×[tex]10^9[/tex]J

Energy_actual_Joules = 45,552,000 MWh * 3.6 × 10^9 J/MWh

Energy_actual_Joules ≈ 1.639,872 × [tex]10^20[/tex]J

Now, let's determine the energy per fission reaction:

Energy_per_fission = Energy_actual_Joules / (10 Xe + Sr + 3 neutrons)

As we don't have the exact number of atoms produced, we will consider a simplified scenario where the 10 Xe, Sr, and three neutrons are produced per fission reaction. In reality, the number of atoms produced may vary.

Energy_per_fission = 1.639,872 × [tex]10^20[/tex] J / 14

Energy_per_fission ≈ 1.171 × 1[tex]0^19[/tex]J

Now, we know that each fission of a uranium-235 atom releases approximately 200 MeV or 3.204 × [tex]10^-11[/tex]J of energy.

Number_of_fissions = Energy_per_fission / (3.204 × [tex]10^-11[/tex] J)

Number_of_fissions ≈ 3.65 ×[tex]10^29[/tex] fissions

Finally, we can determine the mass of uranium-235 required by dividing the number of fissions by the average number of fissions per uranium-235 atom:

Mass_of_uranium-235 = Number_of_fissions / (average_number_of_fissions_per_atom)

The average number of fissions per uranium-235 atom is approximately 2.5.

Mass_of_uranium-235 = 3.65 × [tex]10^29[/tex] fissions / 2.5 fissions per atom

Mass_of_uranium-235 ≈ 1.46 × [tex]10^29[/tex] atoms

The atomic mass of uranium-235 is approximately 235 g/mol.

Mass_of_uranium-235 ≈ 1.46 × [tex]10^29[/tex] atoms * (235 g/mol / 6.022 × [tex]10^23[/tex]atoms/mol)

Mass_of_uranium-235 ≈ 5.79 × [tex]10^6[/tex] g

Converting grams to kilograms:

Mass_of_uranium-235_kg ≈ 5.79 ×[tex]10^6[/tex]g / 1000

Mass_of_uranium-235_kg ≈ 5790 kg

Therefore, the mass of uranium-235 required to produce 1300 MW of power continuously for one year, assuming 25% efficiency, is approximately 5790 kilograms.

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how many oxidation reactions occur during the krebs cycle?

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During the Krebs cycle, three oxidation reactions occur.

Cellular respiration depends on the ATP that is produced when glucose and other molecules are broken down. The Krebs cycle is a series of enzyme processes that oxidize acetyl-CoA.

In the cycle, oxidation happens specifically three times: during the conversion of isocitrate to -ketoglutarate, -ketoglutarate to succinyl-CoA, and malate to oxaloacetate. These oxidation reactions involve the removal of hydrogen atoms and the transfer of electrons to electron carriers like NAD+ and FAD.

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The first thing you did after getting home was to check to make sure your pet electron, named "Elecpatra" was safe while you were gone. Last time you saw her, she was looking at you with an adorable face in its content ground state in the mid- region of the 1D infinite well of width L that you carefully created for her. Now that you came back after being gone for a while, she was super excited, enough to be in the 4th excited state! What is the probability that you would find her in the mid region now, between x = 3L/8 and x = 5L/8? x = = 0.250 0.227 0.295 0.205

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The approximate probability of finding Elecpatra in the mid-region between x = 3L/8 and x = 5L/8 is 0.250.

To calculate the probability of finding Elecpatra in the mid-region between x = 3L/8 and x = 5L/8, we need to determine the probability amplitude associated with that region.

The probability amplitude can be found by examining the wave function of Elecpatra in the 4th excited state of the 1D infinite well.

In the 1D infinite well, the wave function for the nth excited state can be expressed as:

ψ(x) = sqrt(2/L) * sin((n * π * x) / L)

Since Elecpatra is in the 4th excited state, n = 4. We can now substitute the values into the wave function:

ψ(x) = sqrt(2/L) * sin((4 * π * x) / L)

To find the probability amplitude for the mid-region between x = 3L/8 and x = 5L/8, we integrate the absolute square of the wave function over that region. The probability amplitude is the square root of the result.

P = Integral [3L/8 to 5L/8] |ψ(x)|^2 dx)

Calculating the integral and simplifying the expression, we find:

P = sqrt(2/π)

Approximating π as 3.14, we can evaluate the expression:

P ≈ sqrt(2/3.14)

P ≈ 0.250

Therefore, the approximate probability of finding Elecpatra in the mid-region between x = 3L/8 and x = 5L/8 is 0.250.

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Which of the following statement is true?
a) a subcooled liquid is one which is cooled below its saturation temperature at a certain pressure.
b) subcooling is the difference between the saturation temperature and the actual liquid temperature.
c) both of the above.
d) none of the above.

Answers

The true statement is "Subcooling is the difference between the saturation temperature and the actual liquid temperature" (Option B).

What is subcooling?

Subcooling is the temperature difference between the saturated liquid temperature and the actual liquid temperature of a substance. The subcooling amount varies depending on the type of substance and the temperature at which the liquid is found. A subcooled liquid is one that has been cooled below its saturation temperature at a certain pressure.

The opposite of subcooling is superheating. It refers to the temperature increase of a vapour above its saturation temperature without a corresponding increase in pressure.

Thus, the correct option is B.

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2. (a) Why do the high-electron-mobility transistors (HEMTs) have a higher electron mobility? (10%) (b) Explain why the HEMT structure must employ the N-p heterojunction, not the N-n heterojunction, where N is the wide-gap material and n and p are the narrow-gap material. (10%) (c) In a HEMT, what is the purpose of the spacer layer? Would the device still function without it? (10%)

Answers

High-electron-mobility transistors (HEMTs) have a higher electron mobility due to the use of materials with a larger bandgap and a carefully designed heterojunction interface.

HEMTs are designed with materials that have a larger bandgap, such as gallium nitride (GaN) or indium phosphide (InP), in order to achieve higher electron mobility. A larger bandgap allows for better confinement of the electrons within the device structure, reducing scattering and enhancing electron transport. Additionally, the heterojunction interface between the wide-gap and narrow-gap materials in HEMTs is engineered to minimize defects and provide a favorable energy band alignment, which further promotes efficient electron movement and reduces electron scattering.

The HEMT structure employs the N-p heterojunction rather than the N-n heterojunction because it offers several advantages. In the N-p heterojunction, the wide-gap material (N) serves as the barrier layer, preventing electron leakage and enhancing electron confinement within the narrow-gap material (p). This configuration helps to minimize the current leakage and increase the on-off current ratio of the transistor. Moreover, the energy band alignment at the N-p heterojunction facilitates efficient electron transport and reduces electron scattering, leading to higher device performance.

The spacer layer in a HEMT serves multiple purposes. It acts as a buffer between the wide-gap and narrow-gap layers, allowing for lattice matching and reducing strain between different materials. This helps to maintain the structural integrity of the device and improves the quality of the heterojunction interface. Additionally, the spacer layer can influence the electron confinement and energy band alignment, further enhancing device performance.

Without the spacer layer, the device may still function, but its performance would likely be compromised. The absence of the spacer layer could result in increased strain and defects at the heterojunction interface, leading to decreased electron mobility and degraded device characteristics. Therefore, the spacer layer plays a crucial role in optimizing the performance of HEMTs.

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atoms of different isotopes of the same element differ in

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Atoms of different isotopes is nutral

isotopes of the same element differ in the number of neutrons they have in their nuclei.

isotopes are atoms of the same element that have different numbers of neutrons. The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom determines its atomic number and defines the element. However, isotopes have different mass numbers due to the varying number of neutrons.

Isotopes of an element have similar chemical properties but may differ in their physical properties, such as atomic mass and stability. The isotopes of an element can be identified by their mass number, which is the sum of the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus.

For example, carbon-12 and carbon-14 are two isotopes of carbon with mass numbers 12 and 14 respectively. Both isotopes have 6 protons, but carbon-12 has 6 neutrons while carbon-14 has 8 neutrons.

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We start with 5.00 moles of an ideal monatomic gas with an initial temperature of 135 ∘C∘C. The gas expands and, in the process, absorbs an amount of heat equal to 1280 JJ and does an amount of work equal to 2180 JJ .

What is the final temperature TfinalTfinalT_final of the gas?

Use RRR = 8.3145 J/(mol⋅K)J/(mol⋅K) for the ideal gas constant.

Answers

The final temperature of the gas is approximately 359.64 K, which can be rounded to 360 K.

To find the final temperature of the gas, we can use the first law of thermodynamics, which states that the change in internal energy of a system is equal to the heat added to the system minus the work done by the system:

ΔU = Q - W

Where:

ΔU is the change in internal energy,

Q is the heat added to the system,

W is the work done by the system.

In this case, we are given that the gas absorbs 1280 J of heat (Q = 1280 J) and does 2180 J of work (W = 2180 J). We can substitute these values into the equation:

ΔU = 1280 J - 2180 J

ΔU = -900 J

Since the gas is an ideal monatomic gas, we can use the equation for the change in internal energy of an ideal gas:

ΔU = (3/2) n R ΔT

Where:

n is the number of moles of the gas,

R is the ideal gas constant,

ΔT is the change in temperature.

We are given that there are 5.00 moles of gas (n = 5.00 mol) and the value of the ideal gas constant R = 8.3145 J/(mol⋅K). We can rearrange the equation to solve for ΔT:

ΔT = (ΔU * 2) / (3 * n * R)

Substituting the given values:

ΔT = (-900 J * 2) / (3 * 5.00 mol * 8.3145 J/(mol⋅K))

ΔT = -3600 J / (74.19 J/K)

ΔT = -48.51 K

The negative sign indicates a decrease in temperature. To find the final temperature, we add the change in temperature to the initial temperature:

Tfinal = 135 °C + (-48.51 K)

Tfinal = 86.49 °C

Converting the final temperature to Kelvin:

Tfinal = 86.49 °C + 273.15 K

Tfinal = 359.64 K

Therefore, the final temperature of the gas is approximately 359.64 K, which can be rounded to 360 K.

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gene vincent and eddie cochran were particularly popular with:

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Gene Vincent and Eddie Cochran were particularly popular with teenagers and young adults during the 1950s.

Gene Vincent and Eddie Cochran were American rock and roll musicians who gained popularity in the 1950s. They were part of the rockabilly movement, which combined elements of country music with rhythm and blues.

Gene Vincent was known for his hit song 'Be-Bop-A-Lula,' which became a rock and roll classic. Eddie Cochran was known for his energetic performances and songs like 'Summertime Blues' and 'C'mon Everybody.'

Both artists had a significant impact on the development of rock and roll music and were particularly popular with teenagers and young adults during their time.

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Gene Vincent and Eddie Cochran were particularly popular with the youth and rock and roll enthusiasts of the late 1950s and early 1960s.

Gene Vincent and Eddie Cochran were particularly popular with the youth and rock and roll music enthusiasts of the late 1950s and early 1960s. Their energetic performances and rebellious image resonated with the emerging teenage audience at the time.

They were influential figures in the rockabilly and rock and roll genres, known for their hits such as "Be-Bop-A-Lula" by Gene Vincent and "Summertime Blues" by Eddie Cochran. Their music and style captured the spirit of youthful rebellion and played a significant role in shaping the early rock and roll era.

Gene Vincent and Eddie Cochran were influential figures in the rock and roll music scene of the late 1950s and early 1960s. They were particularly popular with the teenage audience of the time, as their music and persona embodied the rebellious and energetic spirit of the youth culture.

Gene Vincent, born Vincent Eugene Craddock, rose to fame with his hit song "Be-Bop-A-Lula" in 1956. Known for his distinctive vocal style and wild stage presence, Vincent became a rockabilly icon. His music blended elements of rock and roll, rhythm and blues, and country, creating a unique sound that resonated with young listeners. Songs like "Bluejean Bop" and "Race with the Devil" further solidified his popularity.

Eddie Cochran, on the other hand, was a multi-talented musician, singer, and songwriter. He gained fame with his upbeat and catchy songs, such as "Summertime Blues" and "C'mon Everybody." Cochran's music was characterized by his skillful guitar playing, heartfelt lyrics, and a distinctive rock and roll sound. His contributions to the genre and his early death at the age of 21 in a tragic car accident solidified his status as a rock and roll legend.

Both Gene Vincent and Eddie Cochran were known for their electrifying live performances and their impact on the rock and roll genre. Their music resonated with young audiences who were seeking an outlet for their rebellious spirit and love for energetic, guitar-driven music. Their influence can still be felt in the development of rock music and the inspiration they provided to subsequent generations of musicians.

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Construct two possible hypothetical paths for the calculation of enthalpy change of the following process. Without calculation, write all the steps and equations that should be used for the calculations procedure.
o-xylene (s, 20°C, 3 atm) o-xylene (v, 20°C, 2 atm)

Answers

Two possible hypothetical paths for the calculation of the enthalpy change for the given process are: (1) using Hess's law and (2) utilizing the standard enthalpy of formation.

First, calculate the enthalpy change for the conversion of solid o-xylene (s) to gaseous o-xylene (g) at the same temperature and pressure. This can be achieved by subtracting the enthalpy of vaporization (∆Hvap) from the enthalpy of fusion (∆Hfus) of o-xylene. Then, determine the enthalpy change for the change in pressure from 3 atm to 2 atm, assuming ideal gas behavior. Finally, sum up the enthalpy changes from the two steps to obtain the total enthalpy change for the process.

Start by determining the standard enthalpy of formation (∆Hf°) of solid o-xylene and gaseous o-xylene at the same temperature and pressure. Then, subtract the standard enthalpy of formation of the reactants from the standard enthalpy of formation of the products. The resulting value represents the enthalpy change for the given process under standard conditions.

It is important to note that the specific values for enthalpy changes, enthalpy of vaporization, enthalpy of fusion, and standard enthalpy of formation are not provided in the given question and would need to be obtained from reliable sources or experimental data for accurate calculations.

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based on _____ equation, the ph of arterial blood can be determined by the ratio of the concentration of bicarbonate to the concentration of carbonic acid.

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The pH of arterial blood can be calculated using the ratio of bicarbonate ion to carbonic acid.

Based on Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, the pH of arterial blood can be determined by the ratio of the concentration of bicarbonate to the concentration of carbonic acid.

How is the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation expressed?

The Henderson-Hasselbalch equation is used to calculate the pH of a solution containing a weak acid and its conjugate base, or a weak base and its conjugate acid. It's expressed as:

pH=pK_a+\log\frac{[\text{A}^-]}{[\text{HA}]}

where pH is the solution's pH, pKa is the acid dissociation constant, and [A⁻] and [HA] are the concentrations of the deprotonated and protonated species, respectively.

Here, [H2CO3] is the concentration of carbonic acid, and [HCO3-] is the concentration of bicarbonate.

The Henderson-Hasselbalch equation can be used to calculate the pH of a solution containing a weak acid and its conjugate base, or a weak base and its conjugate acid. It can be used to estimate the pH of biological systems such as the blood plasma of animals.

For example, the pH of arterial blood can be calculated using the ratio of bicarbonate ion to carbonic acid.

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7. Emissions of sulfur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen are the pollutants mainly responsible for the production of acid rain.
8. When the base of an inversion lowers, pollutants are able to be dispersed throughout a greater volume of air.
9. The best time of day to see the green flash is around noon when the sun's rays are most intense.
10. Oxides of nitrogen from automobile exhaust appear to be the main cause of acid rain in eastern North America.

Answers

7) True. Sulfur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen are the primary pollutants responsible for acid rain.

8) False. When the base of an inversion lowers, pollutants are trapped near the ground, limiting dispersion.

9) False. The green flash phenomenon is best observed during sunset or sunrise, not around noon.

10) True. Oxides of nitrogen from automobile exhaust are a major cause of acid rain in eastern North America.

7.

True. Sulfur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen (NOx) are the primary pollutants that contribute to the formation of acid rain. When these gases are released into the atmosphere from sources like industrial processes and vehicle emissions, they can undergo chemical reactions with water vapor and other compounds to form sulfuric acid and nitric acid, respectively. These acids can then be deposited as acid rain, which has detrimental effects on the environment and ecosystems.

8.

False. When the base of an inversion lowers, it actually traps pollutants close to the ground, preventing their dispersion into a greater volume of air. Inversions occur when a layer of warm air traps cooler air beneath it, forming a stable atmospheric condition. This phenomenon is common during temperature inversions, where the air temperature increases with height instead of decreasing. Under these conditions, pollutants, including smog and other harmful substances, can become trapped near the surface and accumulate, leading to poor air quality.

9.

False. The best time of day to see the green flash phenomenon is actually during sunset or sunrise, not around noon when the sun's rays are most intense. The green flash is a rare optical phenomenon that occurs when conditions such as atmospheric refraction and dispersion cause the last glimpse of the sun to briefly appear green or blue-green at the horizon. It is most commonly observed just after the sun has set below the horizon or right before it rises.

10.

True. Oxides of nitrogen (NOx), primarily emitted from automobile exhaust, have been identified as one of the main contributors to acid rain in eastern North America. When nitrogen oxides react with other atmospheric compounds, they can form nitric acid, which contributes to the acidity of rainwater. The combustion of fossil fuels in vehicles, particularly gasoline and diesel engines, releases significant amounts of nitrogen oxides into the atmosphere, making automobile emissions a major source of these pollutants. Efforts have been made to reduce NOx emissions from vehicles to mitigate the impact of acid rain.

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What is the best electrode for salt water battery which will not
corrode easily and can absorb the potential energy efficiently?

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The best electrode for a saltwater battery, which will not corrode, is typically a non-reactive material such as platinum, graphite, or carbon-based substances, chosen for their resistance to corrosion in the presence of a saltwater electrolyte.

It is essential to choose an electrode material for a saltwater battery that can tolerate the corrosive properties of the saltwater electrolyte. The optimal electrode choice would be a non-reactive, corrosion-resistant substance. In this context, materials like platinum, graphite, or anything made of carbon are frequently used.

The benefit of being stable and long-lasting in the presence of saltwater is one of these non-reactive electrode materials. They are less prone to experience chemical processes that could eventually cause corrosion or the electrode's degeneration. The electrode can keep its performance and efficiency for a long time by selecting materials with a high resistance to oxidation and appropriate electrical conductivity.

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enzymatic reactions that hydrolyze food particles into their building blocks

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enzymatic reactions in the digestive system break down food particles into their building blocks through hydrolysis.

enzymatic reactions and hydrolysis of food particles

Enzymatic reactions play a crucial role in breaking down food particles into their building blocks. These reactions occur in the digestive system and are facilitated by enzymes. Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up chemical reactions without being consumed in the process.

In the case of food digestion, enzymes help break down complex molecules such as carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids into simpler molecules that can be absorbed by the body. The process of breaking down food particles through enzymatic reactions is known as hydrolysis. Hydrolysis involves the addition of water molecules to break the chemical bonds holding the food molecules together.

Each type of food molecule requires specific enzymes for hydrolysis. For example, amylase breaks down starch into glucose, proteases break down proteins into amino acids, and lipases break down lipids into fatty acids and glycerol.

These enzymatic reactions are essential for the body to obtain nutrients from food and provide energy for various biological processes.

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Enzymatic reactions play a crucial role in the hydrolysis of food particles into their building blocks.

These reactions are facilitated by various enzymes present in the digestive system. When we consume food, enzymes are secreted in different parts of the digestive tract to break down complex molecules into smaller, more easily absorbable components.

One of the primary enzymes involved in food hydrolysis is amylase. It breaks down complex carbohydrates such as starch into simple sugars like glucose. Amylase is secreted in saliva by the salivary glands and continues to act on food particles as we chew and swallow.

In the stomach, pepsin is released by the gastric glands. It breaks down proteins into smaller peptides. Pepsin works optimally in the acidic environment of the stomach.

Once the partially digested food moves into the small intestine, pancreatic enzymes are released. These enzymes include trypsin, chymotrypsin, and elastase, which further break down proteins into amino acids. Additionally, pancreatic amylase breaks down any remaining starch, while lipase breaks down fats into fatty acids and glycerol.

The small intestine also produces brush border enzymes such as lactase, sucrase, and maltase, which further hydrolyze disaccharides into their monosaccharide units.

Overall, these enzymatic reactions help to break down food particles into their building blocks, such as monosaccharides, amino acids, and fatty acids, which can then be absorbed into the bloodstream and utilized by the body for various physiological functions.

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Basic Python Functionality is extended by using: Packages Helpers Getters Pieces Question 7 3 pts dataframes are good for showing data that is in what format? Modular Tree Tabular Unstructured A piece of classical music sampled at 44,100 Hz and lasting 4 minutes was converted to the frequency domain by a Discrete Fourier Transform (DFT) algorithm. This conversion took 12 minutes. a. If the same signal was converted using the Fast Fourier Transform, how long would the conversion have taken? Show your calculations. [4 Marks] b. What would be the maximum frequency that can be observed in the music signal? Show your calculations. [2 Marks] c. To convert the analogue music signal to a discrete signal in an appropriate way, the digitized signal should be able to take on 16 million values. What is the minimum number of bits the ADC system should have? Show your calculations. [2 Marks] d. 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