We first need to understand what 85Sr is and how it behaves in the body. 85Sr is a radioactive isotope of strontium, which is chemically similar to calcium and can be absorbed by the bones. When 85Sr enters the body, it can replace some of the calcium in the bones and remain there for a long time, emitting radiation as it decays.
If all of the 85Sr is retained by the body, it means that none of it is eliminated through urine or feces and all of it stays in the bones. According to its half-life (the time it takes for half of the initial amount of 85Sr to decay), which is about 65 days, we can calculate that after one year (365 days) has passed, the initial activity of 85Sr in the patient's body will have decreased by a factor of approximately 2^(365/65), which is about 376.
If all of the 85Sr is retained by the body, we'll need to determine its activity after one year using its half-life. The half-life of 85Sr is approximately 64.84 days. To find its activity after one year (365 days), we'll use the decay formula:
Activity_final = Activity_initial * (1/2)^(Time_elapsed / Half-life)
After one year (365 days), the calculation becomes:
Activity_final = Activity_initial * (1/2)^(365 / 64.84)
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Hb types that do not bind 2,3BPG well
The Hb types that do not bind 2,3-BPG well are fetal hemoglobin (HbF) and carboxyhemoglobin (HbCO).
HbF is present in fetuses and has a higher affinity for oxygen than adult hemoglobin (HbA), allowing for the transfer of oxygen from the mother's bloodstream to the fetal bloodstream. It has two alpha and two gamma subunits, and the gamma subunits have a lower positive charge than the beta subunits of HbA, which affects the binding of 2,3-BPG. HbCO is formed when carbon monoxide binds to hemoglobin, which has a higher affinity for CO than oxygen. This reduces the amount of oxygen that can bind to HbCO and can cause oxygen deprivation in the body. CO binding to hemoglobin also reduces the ability of 2,3-BPG to bind to the hemoglobin, resulting in a left shift of the oxygen dissociation curve.
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In Patients with Chronic Renal Failure, what is most common cause of abnormal hemostasis?
In patients with chronic renal failure (CRF), the most common cause of abnormal hemostasis is platelet dysfunction.
Platelet dysfunction in CRF is multifactorial and can be due to a variety of reasons, including uremic toxins, decreased production of thrombopoietin by the kidney, and increased platelet activation. In addition to platelet dysfunction, CRF patients may also have coagulation abnormalities, such as increased bleeding time, decreased levels of von Willebrand factor, and alterations in clotting factor activity.
These abnormalities can lead to an increased risk of bleeding complications during invasive procedures, such as dialysis access placement or renal transplant surgery, in patients with CRF.
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How does Respiratory Alkalosis affect Ca2+ levels?
Respiratory alkalosis is a condition in which the blood pH increases due to a decrease in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (CO2) in the blood. This can occur due to hyperventilation, which causes excessive exhalation of CO2. The decrease in CO2 leads to an increase in pH, which in turn can lead to a decrease in ionized calcium (Ca2+) levels.
The alkalosis causes an increase in pH, which leads to increased binding of Ca2+ to albumin in the blood. This binding decreases the amount of free, ionized calcium available in the blood. Additionally, the decreased partial pressure of CO2 can cause constriction of blood vessels in the body, leading to decreased blood flow to the bones, where most of the body's calcium is stored. This can also contribute to a decrease in Ca2+ levels in the blood.
Overall, respiratory alkalosis can lead to a decrease in ionized calcium levels in the blood, which can cause a variety of symptoms such as muscle cramps, tetany, and seizures.
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What cells are pathognomonic for CLL ( chronic lymphocytic leukemia)?
The cells pathognomonic for chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) are small, mature-appearing lymphocytes with a characteristic immunophenotype.
These cells have a distinct morphology and express CD5, CD19, CD20, and CD23. In addition to these markers, they also express low levels of surface immunoglobulin (Ig) and do not express CD10, CD11c, or FMC7.
The diagnosis of CLL requires the presence of at least 5000 monoclonal B lymphocytes per microliter in peripheral blood and the exclusion of other causes of lymphocytosis. CLL is a slowly progressive disease and is generally managed with observation or chemotherapy, depending on the patient's risk status and symptoms.
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If you must drive after taking any medication, be extra careful. Almost any medicine can affect your driving.T/F
If you must drive after taking any medication, be extra careful. Almost any medicine can affect your driving. True
Almost any medication, whether prescription or over-the-counter, has the potential to affect your ability to drive safely. Some medications can cause drowsiness, dizziness, blurred vision, or other side effects that can impair your driving performance.
These effects can be particularly dangerous when combined with other factors such as alcohol or lack of sleep. It's important to always read the label and warnings on your medication and to follow any advice given by your doctor or pharmacist.
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a nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who reports difficulty sleeping. what would the nurse identify as a subjective finding related to the client's sleep assessment?
In this case, the nurse would look for any comments made by the client regarding their sleep pattern, quality, and duration. The nurse would identify the client's report of difficulty falling asleep or staying asleep, waking up frequently during the night, or feeling unrested after sleeping
A nurse reviewing a medical record of a client who reports difficulty sleeping would identify subjective findings related to the client's sleep assessment. A subjective finding refers to information that is based on the client's personal experience and perceptions. In this case, the nurse would look for any comments made by the client regarding their sleep pattern, quality, and duration. The nurse would identify the client's report of difficulty falling asleep or staying asleep, waking up frequently during the night, or feeling unrested after sleeping. Additionally, the nurse would look for any reports of sleep disturbances such as nightmares or sleepwalking. The subjective findings would provide insight into the client's perception of their sleep and help the nurse develop an appropriate plan of care. subjective findings are important in sleep assessments because sleep is a personal experience, and what one person may consider as difficulty sleeping may not be the same for another person. Therefore, the nurse needs to rely on the client's report of their sleep experience to provide accurate information and appropriate interventions.
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After living all his life in a town that pumps its water from relatively pure underground wells, John moves to a city that gets its water from a local river and must add chlorine to purify it. He totally dislikes the taste of the city water. His friends, who are long-time city residents, cannot understand his problem because they have experienced ________.
John is experiencing a taste difference in the city water due to the addition of chlorine for purification purposes.
His friends, who have been living in the city for a long time, have adapted to the taste of the water. This is an example of sensory adaptation, which refers to the ability of the human senses to adapt to changes in the environment over time.
In this case, John's taste buds have not adapted to the taste of chlorine in the water, while his friends' taste buds have become desensitized to it.
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for which condition does the nurse review the patients medical history before adminstering febuxostat to a patient with gouty arhtiits
The nurse would review the patient's medical history before administering febuxostat to a patient with gouty arthritis. The nurse would also check for any potential drug interactions or contraindications that may affect the patient's ability to safely take febuxostat.
The nurse would review the patient's medical history before administering febuxostat to a patient with gouty arthritis. Febuxostat is a medication used to treat gout by reducing the production of uric acid in the body. Before administering febuxostat, the nurse would review the patient's medical history to ensure that the medication is safe and appropriate for the patient's specific health condition, including any allergies or previous adverse reactions to febuxostat or similar medications. The nurse would also check for any potential drug interactions or contraindications that may affect the patient's ability to safely take febuxostat.
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the nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing elevated intracranial pressure following neurosurgery. the health care provider orders an osmotic diuretic to reduce pressure. which medication would the nurse expect to be ordered?
The nurse would expect the health care provider to order mannitol, which is an osmotic diuretic commonly used to reduce elevated intracranial pressure.
Mannitol works by increasing the osmotic pressure in the kidneys, causing an increase in urine output. This increase in urine output reduces the volume of intravascular and intracranial fluids, thereby reducing the pressure. Mannitol is commonly used in the management of increased intracranial pressure due to its ability to cross the blood-brain barrier and reduce cerebral edema.
The nurse should closely monitor the client's fluid and electrolyte balance while administering mannitol. Additionally, the nurse should monitor the client's blood pressure and urine output to ensure that the medication is having the desired effect. The nurse should also monitor the client for any adverse effects such as electrolyte imbalances, dehydration, or renal failure.
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a patient who takes teriparatide [forteo] administers it subcutaneously with a prefilled pen injector. the patient asks why she must use a new pen every 28 days when there are doses left in the syringe. which is the correct response by the nurse?
The nurse should explain to the patient that the reason for using a new pen injector every 28 days when there are doses left is to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the medication. option (B)
Teriparatide (Forteo) is a medication used to treat osteoporosis by stimulating bone growth. The medication is stored in a prefilled pen injector, which contains a limited amount of medication and is designed for single-use only.
After 28 days, the medication in the pen injector may lose its potency or become contaminated, which could potentially compromise the safety and effectiveness of the medication. Therefore, it is important to use a new pen injector every 28 days, even if there are doses left in the syringe, to ensure the best possible treatment outcome.
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Full Question: A patient who takes teriparatide [Forteo] administers it subcutaneously with a prefilled pen injector. The patient asks why she must use a new pen every 28 days when there are doses left in the syringe. Which is the correct response by the nurse?
a. "Go ahead and use the remaining drug; I know it is so expensive."
b. "The drug may not be stable after 28 days."
c. "You are probably not giving the drug accurately."
d. "You should be giving the drug more frequently.
Diagnosis: Acute pain related to progress of laborProvide: 4th intervention
Acute pain associated with labour progress is the diagnosis
The fourth intervention is to give painkillers.
Applying painkillers or performing an epidural, as the healthcare professional deems suitable, is the fourth strategy for treating acute pain associated with the progression of labour. The woman can get great relief from the painful contractions and be better able to handle them thanks to this. To make an informed choice, it's crucial to explore the advantages and disadvantages of pain medication with your doctor. The entire pain management plan might also include non-pharmacological pain management strategies like breathing exercises, relaxation techniques, and massage.Know more about interventions for Acute pain related to the progress of labor here
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66 y/o woman comes to clinic for eval of lesions of her left elbow that started at margin of a scar from a prior skin wound. She has no pain or itching but lesion has enlarged over last 2 months + developed oozing + crusting. Next Step?
The presentation of the lesion is concerning for squamous cell carcinoma, especially given the history of a prior skin wound in the same area.
Therefore, the next step would be to perform a skin biopsy of the lesion to confirm the diagnosis. Treatment options will depend on the size and location of the lesion, as well as the patient's overall health and preferences, and may include surgical excision, radiation therapy, or topical chemotherapy.
It's important to counsel the patient on the importance of sun protection and regular skin checks to prevent the development of future skin cancers.
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the health care provider instructs the nurse to perform suctioning to remove excess fluids from a patient's tracheostomy which nursing intervention would be beneficial for the patient
When a healthcare provider instructs a nurse to perform suctioning to remove excess fluids from a patient's tracheostomy, there are a few nursing interventions that would be beneficial for the patient.
Firstly, the nurse should ensure that they have the appropriate equipment to perform the suctioning, such as sterile gloves, a suction catheter, and a container to dispose of any fluid that is removed. Secondly, the nurse should assess the patient's respiratory status before, during, and after the suctioning to monitor for any changes in their breathing or oxygen saturation levels. Thirdly, the nurse should educate the patient and their family on proper tracheostomy care, including signs and symptoms of infection, and how to suction the tracheostomy themselves if necessary. By implementing these interventions, the nurse can ensure that the patient's tracheostomy is kept clear of excess fluids, and that the patient is safe and comfortable during the suctioning procedure.
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In severe hypovolemia where there is hyponatremia i.e. BP is 95/44, what is the cause?
In severe hypovolemia with hyponatremia and low blood pressure, the most likely cause is hypovolemic shock due to a significant loss of fluids, which can be caused by various conditions such as severe dehydration, blood loss, or severe burns.
Hyponatremia can occur as a result of the excessive loss of salt in the body, which can lead to an electrolyte imbalance. This imbalance can cause a decrease in blood volume, leading to low blood pressure. Treatment for hypovolemic shock involves immediate fluid resuscitation, typically with isotonic crystalloid solutions, to restore blood volume and stabilize blood pressure.
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which factor in a pregnant client's history would the nurse recognize as a risk factor for abruptio placentae? hesi
Among various factors in a pregnant client's history, the nurse would recognize a history of hypertension as a significant risk factor for abruptio placentae.
Abruptio placentae is a serious pregnancy complication where the placenta detaches from the uterine wall prematurely, potentially causing harm to the mother and baby.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, increases the risk of abruptio placentae as it can cause the blood vessels in the placenta to constrict, leading to a reduction in blood flow and increasing the chances of detachment.
In conclusion, a nurse should be vigilant in monitoring pregnant clients with a history of hypertension, as this condition is a known risk factor for abruptio placentae.
Proper management of hypertension during pregnancy can help reduce the risk of this complication.
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The nurse's client today is Robert, who is hospitalized for a cystectomy related to bladder cancer. He reveals that he feels some spiritual distress without getting into specifics. Which of the following is the appropriate priority action?
-Consult pastoral services.
-Offer to pray with the client.
- Perform a spiritual assessment.
- Do nothing; the nurse is agnostic.
The appropriate priority action for the nurse is to perform a spiritual assessment. It is essential to explore the client's beliefs, values, and practices, including any spiritual distress or needs they may have.Option (C)
The nurse should use an open-ended, non-judgmental approach to encourage the client to share their feelings and beliefs. Based on the assessment, the nurse can then provide appropriate interventions, such as referring the client to pastoral services, offering to pray with the client, or providing other forms of spiritual support.
It is essential to respect the client's beliefs and preferences and provide individualized care based on their needs.
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Full Question: The nurse's client today is Robert, who is hospitalized for a cystectomy related to bladder cancer. He reveals that he feels some spiritual distress without getting into specifics. Which of the following is the appropriate priority action?
-Consult pastoral services.-Offer to pray with the client.- Perform a spiritual assessment.- Do nothing; the nurse is agnosticInfective endocarditis due to Eikenella corrodens is seen in the setting of what?
Infective endocarditis due to Eikenella corrodens is a rare condition, and is usually seen in patients with underlying dental or periodontal disease.
Eikenella corrodens is a gram-negative bacillus that is part of the normal oral flora, and can cause infection of the heart valves when it enters the bloodstream. This can occur during dental procedures, especially if there is gingival or mucosal bleeding, or in cases of dental trauma.
In addition, Eikenella corrodens can also cause infections of the head and neck, such as brain abscesses or infections of the maxillary sinus, particularly in patients with poor dental hygiene.
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Important classifications of Drug Induced Liver Disease
DILD is a significant cause of acute liver injury and is categorized based on the type of liver injury caused. The classifications include: Hepatocellular injury, Cholestatic injury , Mixed injury, Vascular injury, Autoimmune-like hepatitis
Hepatocellular injury - this involves the destruction of liver cells and is characterized by an elevation in serum transaminases (ALT and AST) and bilirubin levels.
Cholestatic injury - this involves the inhibition of bile flow and is characterized by an elevation in serum alkaline phosphatase and gamma-glutamyl transferase levels.
Mixed injury - this is a combination of hepatocellular and cholestatic injury.
Vascular injury - this involves damage to the blood vessels supplying the liver and can lead to ischemic hepatitis or sinusoidal obstruction syndrome.
Autoimmune-like hepatitis - this is a rare form of DILD and is characterized by autoantibodies and histological features resembling autoimmune hepatitis.
It is important to identify the type of DILD to appropriately manage and treat the patient.
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Full Question: What are the important classifications of Drug-Induced Liver Disease (DILD)?
When you see tinnitus, fever, tachypnea, nausea, and GI irritation - what do you think is cause and what other findings?
When presented with symptoms of tinnitus, fever, tachypnea, nausea, and gastrointestinal (GI) irritation, one possible diagnosis is salicylate toxicity or aspirin poisoning.
In addition to these symptoms, other clinical findings may include metabolic acidosis, respiratory alkalosis, confusion, agitation, seizures, and coma. Salicylates, including aspirin, can lead to toxicity at high doses or prolonged use, causing a variety of systemic effects.
Diagnosis of salicylate toxicity can be made through history, physical examination, and laboratory tests, including serum salicylate levels. Treatment includes stopping the offending agent, supportive care, and management of complications such as dehydration, electrolyte abnormalities, and respiratory failure.
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The total hops column in a routing table shows updated information about how many __ are necessary to reach the destination network.
The total hops column in a routing table shows the updated information about the number of "hops" necessary to reach a destination network.
In computer networking, a "hop" refers to the movement of a data packet from one network device to another on its way to the final destination. Each time a packet passes through a network device, such as a router or switch, it is considered a hop.
The total hops column in a routing table displays the number of hops required to reach a particular network from the current device. This information is crucial for routing decisions, as it helps determine the most efficient path for sending packets across a network. By considering the number of hops required, network devices can route packets along the shortest path to their destination, helping to reduce latency and improve network performance.
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which intevention owuld the nurse implement for a client who has type 1 diabetes and has elevated blood glucose
The nurse would implement an insulin intervention for a client with type 1 diabetes who has an elevated blood glucose level.
Insulin is a hormone that regulates blood glucose levels by facilitating the uptake of glucose from the blood into cells. For a client with type 1 diabetes, insulin is necessary because their body does not produce enough insulin on its own. The nurse may administer rapid-acting insulin, such as lispro or aspart, to bring the client's blood glucose levels down to a target range of 80-130 mg/dL.
The nurse may also assess the client for any signs of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), a potentially life-threatening complication of type 1 diabetes that can occur when blood glucose levels are consistently high.
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The correct question is:
Which intervention would the nurse implement for a client who has type 1 diabetes and has an elevated blood glucose?
a nurse is demonstrating postoperative deep breathing and coughing exercises to a client who will have emergency surgery for appendicitis. which of the following statements indicates a lack of readiness to learn by the client?
The statement indicating a lack of readiness to learn by the client would be one where the client expresses disinterest, misunderstanding, or an inability to focus on the instructions given by the nurse.
A client's readiness to learn is essential for effective education, especially in a critical situation like preparing for emergency surgery. When a nurse is demonstrating postoperative deep breathing and coughing exercises, the client should be attentive and willing to practice these techniques.
A lack of readiness to learn can be evident through various statements or behaviors, such as:
1. Expressing disinterest: "I don't think I need to learn these exercises."
2. Demonstrating misunderstanding: "So, I should just breathe normally and avoid coughing after surgery, right?"
3. Inability to focus: "I'm too worried about the surgery to pay attention to these exercises."
In all these cases, the client is not engaging in the learning process, and the nurse should address the concerns or barriers preventing the client from being receptive to the information. This may involve providing reassurance, correcting misconceptions, or identifying an appropriate time to re-teach the exercises when the client is more prepared to learn.
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Define Green stick fracture; How do you treat it?
the nurse is preparing an infusion for a patient who has a deficiency in clotting factors. which type of infusion is most appropriate?
The most appropriate type of infusion for a patient with a deficiency in clotting factors is a "coagulation factor concentrate infusion." This infusion contains concentrated clotting factors to help the patient's blood to properly clot and prevent excessive bleeding. The nurse will administer the coagulation factor concentrate intravenously, ensuring the patient receives the necessary clotting factors to manage their deficiency effectively.
When a patient has a deficiency in clotting factors, it is important to choose an appropriate type of infusion. In this case, the most appropriate type of infusion would be a clotting factor replacement therapy. This therapy involves infusing the patient with specific clotting factors that they are lacking in order to improve their ability to form clots and prevent excessive bleeding. There are several types of clotting factor replacement therapies available, such as factor VIII or factor IX concentrate, depending on the specific clotting factor deficiency. The nurse should ensure that the infusion is administered properly and monitor the patient for any adverse reactions. It is important to follow the treatment plan as prescribed by the healthcare provider to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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Diagnosis of Upper Airway Cough Syndrome (Postnasal Drip)
Upper airway cough syndrome (UACS), also known as postnasal drip, is a condition in which excessive mucus production from the nasal passages drips down the back of the throat, leading to coughing.
The diagnosis of UACS is typically based on clinical presentation, which includes the presence of chronic cough, throat clearing, and postnasal drip. Additional symptoms may include nasal congestion, rhinorrhea, and sneezing.
Diagnostic tests, such as chest X-rays and spirometry, are typically normal in patients with UACS. Treatment for UACS may include nasal saline irrigation, intranasal corticosteroids, antihistamines, and decongestants. In some cases, referral to an otolaryngologist may be necessary for further evaluation and treatment.
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which misperception about depression in the older adult exists and may cause the condition to go untreated? depression is difficult to diagnose in the older adult patient. depressive symptoms are mistaken as symptoms of dementia. the medications to treat depression cause dangerous adverse effects in the older adult patient. older adult patients do not see their health care provider routinely enough to confirm a diagnosis.
A misperception that depressive symptoms are mistaken as symptoms of dementia exist in older adults, which may cause the condition to go untreated.
Depression is a common mental health condition in older adults, but unfortunately, it often goes undiagnosed and untreated. One misperception about depression in older adults is that the symptoms of depression are often mistaken for symptoms of dementia. Older adults may experience cognitive decline with aging, and this can make it difficult to distinguish between symptoms of depression and dementia. Additionally, older adults may not seek treatment for depression due to stigma or the belief that depression is a normal part of aging.
This can be a dangerous assumption because depression can lead to a decline in physical health and can increase the risk. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the misperceptions around depression in older adults and to actively screen for and treat depression in this population.
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the nurse is providing care for a client in labor and observes a large, red, and rounded mass protruding 25cm outside the introitus what is the correct sequence of actions
The nurse should immediately call for assistance and notify the healthcare provider. The nurse should then explain the situation in detail and ask the client to stop pushing. The nurse should also gently cover the protruding mass with a sterile towel soaked in warm sterile normal saline and monitor the fetal heart rate while waiting for help to arrive.
The nurse is observing a prolapsed umbilical cord.
A prolapsed umbilical cord occurs when the cord slips down through the cervix and protrudes outside the vagina before the baby is born. This is a medical emergency, as it can compromise the blood flow and oxygen supply to the baby.
The correct sequence of actions for the nurse in this situation would be:
1. Call for immediate assistance and notify the healthcare provider.
2. Position the client in a knee-chest or Trendelenburg position to alleviate pressure on the cord.
3. Manually support the presenting part off the cord, if necessary, to prevent further compression.
4. Administer oxygen to the mother as prescribed, to increase oxygen supply to the baby.
5. Monitor fetal heart rate continuously.
6. Prepare for an expedited birth, such as an emergency cesarean section, as directed by the healthcare provider.
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the nurse is caring for a 60-year-old client diagnosed with dementia. the nurse understands that which antipsychotic medications would be contraindicated for the client? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
Antipsychotic medications are commonly used to manage the behavioral symptoms associated with dementia, such as aggression, agitation, and psychosis.
However, some antipsychotic medications may be contraindicated for older adults with dementia due to the increased risk of adverse effects. The nurse caring for a 60-year-old client diagnosed with dementia should be aware that certain antipsychotic medications, such as haloperidol and chlorpromazine, may be contraindicated for the client.
These medications have a high risk of causing extrapyramidal symptoms, including tardive dyskinesia, which can be irreversible. Instead, atypical antipsychotic medications such as risperidone or olanzapine may be preferred due to their lower risk of extrapyramidal symptoms.
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a nurse is working with an older adult client who has been diagnosed with onset insomnia and informs the nurse about waking at least once during the night. what actions by the nurse can help promote adequate sleep? select all that apply.
Insomnia is a common sleep disorder among older adults that can lead to daytime sleepiness, reduced cognitive function, and increased risk of falls. To promote adequate sleep in an older adult client with onset insomnia, the nurse can suggest several interventions.
The nurse encourages the client to exercise no more than 6 hours before night.
The nurse recommends the client to remove the television from the bedroom.
The nurse advises the client to limit coffee intake several hours before night.
The nurse assists the client in developing a bedtime routine that may be followed each night.
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Full Question ;
A nurse is working with an older adult client who has been diagnosed with onset insomnia and informs the nurse about waking at least once during the night. What actions by the nurse can help promote adequate sleep? Select all that apply.
-The nurse advises the client to exercise no closer than 6 hours to bedtime.
- The nurse encourages the client to remove the television from the bedroom.
- The nurse encourages the client to minimize caffeine intake several hours prior to bedtime.
-The nurse helps the client come up with a bedtime routine that can be implemented each night.
- The nurse teaches the client that shorter, unbroken sleep periods are not normal.
The same is true for combining drugs that have opposite effects. You may have different reactions to the individual drugs.T/F
The same is true for combining drugs that have opposite effects. You may have different reactions to the individual drugs.True
Combining drugs that have opposite effects can be particularly dangerous, as it can lead to unpredictable interactions and side effects. The same drug can have different effects on different people, and this variability is amplified when multiple drugs are taken together. Additionally, some drug combinations can lead to drug interactions that can result in serious adverse reactions.
It is crucial to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medications, including prescription and over-the-counter drugs, and to inform them of any other medications or supplements you are taking.
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