If f(x)=-x+2 find f(4)

Answer:

Hope it works for U

Step-by-step explanation:

As given to convert first 2 days in to months

we know that,

1 day=0.0329 months

2day= 2*0.0329 months

2 day= 0.0657 months

now convert to nearest hundred

Rounded to the nearest 0.01 or

the Hundredths Place, we get

Answer:

First brand = 18 gallons

Second brand = 12 gallons

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the first brand brand be A and the second brand be B.

Thus, since he wants to obtain 30 gallons of a mixture that contains 30% pure antifreeze, then we have;

A + B = 30 - - - (eq 1)

Also; The first brand is 20% pure antifreeze, and the second brand is 45% pure antifreeze. Thus;

0.2A + 0.45B = (0.3 × 30)

0.2A + 0.45B = 9 - - - (eq 2)

From eq 1, we have; A = 30 - B

Put 30 - B for A in eq 2;

0.2(30 - B) + 0.45B = 9

6 - 0.2B + 0.45B = 9

0.25B = 9 - 6

0.25B = 3

B = 3/0.25

B = 12

Thus, A = 30 - 12 = 18 gallons

Answer:

2.5% of American women have shoe sizes that are greater than 11.47.

Step-by-step explanation:

The Empirical Rule states that, for a normally distributed random variable:

68% of the measures are within 1 standard deviation of the mean.

95% of the measures are within 2 standard deviation of the mean.

99.7% of the measures are within 3 standard deviations of the mean.

In this problem, we have that:

Mean = 8.47

Standard deviation = 1.5

The normal distribution is symmetric, which means that half the measures are below the mean, and half are above the mean.

What percentage of American women have shoe sizes that are greater than 11.47?

11.47 = 8.47 + 2*1.5

This means that 11.47 is two standard deviations above the mean.

Of those measures below the mean, none are greater than 11.47.

Of those measures above the mean, 95% are between the mean and 11.47, and 5% are above. So

0.5*0.05 = 0.025

2.5% of American women have shoe sizes that are greater than 11.47.

Answer:

(a) yes

(b) 104% profit

Step-by-step explanation:

250 apples for $22,500 (were they gold?)

Part 1:

50x$120=$6000

Part 2:

200 sold at $1000 per 5 apples=200/5x1000=$40,000

$40,000+$6000=$46,000

A profit of $23,500

23500/22500=1.044 or 104% profit

Answer:

110 ft. is the height of the building.

Answer:

[tex]\frac{5}{6}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Fraction Models

Given a number N, to model the process of sharing N into M equal parts we use the division N/M or the fraction

[tex]\frac{N}{M}[/tex]

There are N=5 cakes to be shared between M=6 people, thus the fraction that represents or models the situation is

[tex]\mathbf{\frac{5}{6}}[/tex]

Answer:

AB

Step-by-step explanation:

AB, because it is the same side as EF

No the side lengths of 9,12, and 18 doesn’t form a right triangle. Posted a picture showing all the side length that is a right triangle.

Answer:

no it is not

Step-by-step explanati

Answer:

0.0013 = 0.13% probability that no more than four out of fifteen people used an online travel website when they booked their hotel

Step-by-step explanation:

For each person, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they booked the hotel using an online travel website, or they did not. Each person is independent of each other. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

In which [tex]C_{n,x}[/tex] is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

And p is the probability of X happening.

Suppose that the probability that a person books a hotel using an online travel website is 0.68.

This means that [tex]p = 0.68[/tex]

Sample of fifteen:

This means that [tex]n = 15[/tex]

What is the probability that no more than four out of fifteen people used an online travel website when they booked their hotel

[tex]P(X \leq 4) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4)[/tex]

So

[tex]P(X = 0) = C_{15,0}.(0.68)^{0}.(0.32)^{15} = 0[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 1) = C_{15,1}.(0.68)^{1}.(0.32)^{14} = 0[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 2) = C_{15,2}.(0.68)^{2}.(0.32)^{13} = 0[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 3) = C_{15,3}.(0.68)^{3}.(0.32)^{12} = 0.0002[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 4) = C_{15,4}.(0.68)^{4}.(0.32)^{11} = 0.0011[/tex]

[tex]P(X \leq 4) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) = 0 + 0 + 0 + 0.0002 + 0.0011 = 0.0013[/tex]

0.0013 = 0.13% probability that no more than four out of fifteen people used an online travel website when they booked their hotel

Answer:

For x=2, the expression 4(5x-8) will be 4 more than the expression 2(4-x)

Step-by-step explanation:

Given expressions are;

4(5x-8) and 2(4-x)

For 4 more than the second expression, we will add 4 with second expression.

4(5x-8) = 2(4-x) + 4

20x - 32 = 8 -2x +4

20x + 2x = 12 + 32

22x = 44

Dividing both sides by 22

[tex]\frac{22x}{22}=\frac{44}{22}\\x=2[/tex]

Hence,

For x=2, the expression 4(5x-8) will be 4 more than the expression 2(4-x)

Answer:

d hopefully this helps you

Answer:

The answer is 50

Step-by-step explanation:

20x3=50

Answer:

Hold on, our servers are swamped.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

102.63

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 12 months in a year. 12 * 38 = 456

There  are 52 weeks in a year 52 * 9 = 468

Cigarettes : dry cleaning :: 468:456

Cigarettes : dry cleaning :: 1.0263

The % is (468/456)*100 = 102.63%

The % shows that she spends more on cigarettes than she does on dry cleaning, which is usually the case.

Answer:

m = 17.78.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the algebraic expression;

2.5m + 10 = 1.6m - 6​

To find the value of m;

First of all, we would collect like terms.

2.5m - 1.6m = -6​ - 10

0.9m = -16

m = -16/0.9

m = 17.78

Answer:

yes it did they are both the same if u put a reflection on it

Step-by-step explanation:

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  A:  y = 5x

Step-by-step explanation:

The constant of proportionality is the coefficient of x.

Here, the coefficients are ...

  A: 5

  B: 2

  C: 1/5

  D: 1/2

The one that has a constant of proportionality equal to 5 is ...

  A: y = 5x

Answer:

8x+2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Y = 0  , X = - 3/2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

just give the brainliest to him

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

500 + 100m = 1000 + 50m

Step-by-step explanation:

In order to form an equation we need atleast on variable which in this scenario would be the number of months (m). We can say that we know that sooner or later their savings will equal. Therefore, we can create the following equations for each of their savings progress which are equal to one another...

500 + 100m = 1000 + 50m

This equation if solved would give us the value of 10 for the variable m, meaning that their savings will equal in 10 months. To find out how much each will have in 10 months we can simply grab one half of the equation and substitute 10 for m

500 + 100(10) = x

500 + 1000 = x

1500 = x

Finally, we can see that after 10 months they would both have $1500 saved up.

Answer:

86.5ml...hope I am right

The final volume of the mixture is 161.61146 milliliters (ml) as per the data given in the prescription.

A prescription, also known as a Rx, is a formal communication from a doctor or other registered health-care professional to a pharmacist.

The prescription indicates that Chlorpheniramine comes in a 100ml bottle, Lidocaine comes in a 2oz bottle, and 1/2 tsp of banana flavoring is to be added. The prescription instructs to take 10ml of the mixture twice a day (BID).

First, we need to convert the 2oz of Lidocaine into milliliters. One fluid ounce (oz) is equivalent to approximately 29.5735 milliliters (ml). Therefore, 2oz of Lidocaine is equal to:

2 oz x 29.5735 ml/oz = 59.147 ml

Next, we need to add 1/2 tsp (teaspoon) of banana flavoring to the mixture. One teaspoon is equivalent to approximately 4.92892 milliliters (ml). Therefore, 1/2 tsp of banana flavoring is equal to:

1/2 tsp x 4.92892 ml/tsp = 2.46446 ml

To find the final volume of the mixture, we add the volumes of Chlorpheniramine, Lidocaine, and banana flavoring:

Final volume = Chlorpheniramine volume + Lidocaine volume + Banana flavoring volume

Final volume = 100ml + 59.147ml + 2.46446ml

Final volume = 161.61146 ml

Therefore, the final volume of the mixture is 161.61146 milliliters (ml).

For more details regarding prescription, visit:

https://brainly.com/question/29704315

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Answer:

The percent of change is -60%.

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the percentage of change, we find the percentage of the final value, considering the initial valuie is 100%, and then we subtract 100% by the percengate found.

In this question:

Initial price of $3.25 per gallon, which is 100% = 1.

Final value of $1.30, which is x. So

$3.25 - 1

$1.30 - x

[tex]3.25x = 1.30[/tex]

[tex]x = \frac{1.30}{3.25}[/tex]

[tex]x = 0.4[/tex]

The initial value of 0.4 = 40% of the initial value.

So the percent of change is a decrease of 100% - 40% = 60%, that is, -60%.

Answer:

a = 66⁰

b = 33⁰

Step-by-step explanation:

Given;

∠ABC = 114⁰

To calculate a⁰;

a + 114 = 180⁰ (opposite angles of a quadrilateral are supplementary)

a = 180 - 114

a = 66⁰

To calculate b⁰;

Line AB = Line BC, thus, ∠BAC = ∠BCA

∠BAC = b,      then  ∠BCA = b

b + b + 114 = 180 (sum of angles in a triangle)

2b = 180 - 114

2b = 66

b = 66/2

b = 33⁰

Answer/Step-by-step explanation:

✔️Find <K using law of sines:

Thus,

[tex] \frac{sin(K)}{k} = \frac{sin(H)}{h} [/tex]

K = ??

k = 37 mm

H = 34°

h = 29 mm

Plug in the values

[tex] \frac{sin(K)}{37} = \frac{sin(34)}{29} [/tex]

Multiply both sides by 37

[tex] \frac{sin(K)}{37}*37 = \frac{sin(34)}{29}*37 [/tex]

[tex] sin(K) = \frac{sin(34)*37}{29} [/tex]

[tex] sin(K) = 0.713453014 [/tex]

[tex] K = sin^{-1}(0.713453014) [/tex]

[tex] K = 45.5 degrees [/tex] (nearest tenth)

✔️Find J:

m<J = 180° - (45.5° + 34°) (sum of ∆)

m<J = 100.5°

✔️Find j using Sine rule:

[tex] \frac{j}{sin(J)} = \frac{h}{sin(H)} [/tex]

J = 100.5°

j = ??

H = 34°

h = 29 mm

Plug in the values

[tex] \frac{j}{sin(100.5)} = \frac{29}{sin(34)} [/tex]

Multiply both sides by sin(100.5)

[tex] \frac{j}{sin(100.5)}*sin(100.5) = \frac{29}{sin(34)}*sin(100.5) [/tex]

[tex] j = \frac{29*sin(100.5)}{sin(34)} [/tex]

j = 51.0 mm (nearest tenth)

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

You take any two points on the line like (6,0) and (0,-2) then you apply it on the equation which is y2 minus y1 over X2 minus X1