The clinical history of a patient comprises information about the current issue, previous medical histories, family histories, social histories, and other pertinent details, such as present medications (both prescription and over-the-counter), and dietary supplements.
What is meant by clinical history? A file containing details on a person's health. In a personal medical history, details concerning ailments, operations, vaccines, and the outcomes of physical examinations and tests may be included. Information on medications taken as well as health practises like diet and exercise may also be included.A medical history typically entails questions about a patient's past medical conditions, previous surgeries, family medical history, social history, allergies, and drugs they are currently taking or may have recently stopped taking.To learn more about clinical history refer:https://brainly.com/question/1184239
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which cue would the nurse expect to assess in a patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease if the medication used for treatment is effective?
Although heartburn is the most typical GERD symptom, additional signs and symptoms may also include coughing, wheezing, chest pain, hoarseness, difficulty swallowing, and frequent throat cleaning and regurgitation.
What is gastroesophageal?A condition of the digestive system in which bile or stomach acid irritates the lining of the food pipe.When bile or stomach acid enters the food pipe and irritates the lining, the condition becomes chronic. More than twice a week episodes of heartburn and acid reflux can be signs of GERD.Burning chest discomfort is one of the symptoms, which normally gets worse when you lie down after eating.Modifying one's lifestyle and taking over-the-counter drugs usually only temporarily relieve symptoms. Maybe you need something stronger. When stomach acid runs back into the tube between your mouth and stomach frequently, it results in gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) (esophagus). Your esophageal lining may become inflamed as a result of this backwash (acid reflux). Acid reflux is a frequent problem that affects many people.To learn more about gastroesophageal refer to:
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the client is a female, mature adult who was admitted to the medical/surgical unit with complaints of right upper quadrant abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting for the last 3 hours. client rates her pain 5/10. vital signs include heart rate 92 beats/minute, respirations 20 breaths/minute, and blood pressure 132/70 mmhg. the client is accompanied by her spouse.what can we see from here and what diseases might be experienced?
Answer:
Explanation:
From the information provided, it appears that the client is experiencing pain, nausea, and vomiting in the right upper quadrant of her abdomen. She rates her pain as 5/10 and has been experiencing these symptoms for the last 3 hours. Her vital signs are within normal range, including a heart rate of 92 beats per minute, respirations of 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 132/70 mmHg. The client is accompanied by her spouse.
Based on these symptoms, it is possible that the client may be experiencing a number of different conditions, including:
Gallbladder disease: Pain in the right upper quadrant can be a symptom of gallbladder disease, such as cholecystitis (inflammation of the gallbladder) or cholelithiasis (gallstones).Pancreatitis: Pain in the right upper quadrant can also be a symptom of pancreatitis, which is inflammation of the pancreas.Gastrointestinal issues: The client's symptoms of nausea and vomiting may also indicate a gastrointestinal problem such as gastritis (inflammation of the stomach), ulcers or even appendicitis.Hepatitis: The client's symptoms may also be caused by liver-related conditions, such as hepatitis (inflammation of the liver)It is important to note that this information is based on the symptoms described and a proper diagnosis can only be made after a thorough physical examination, laboratory tests and imaging studies.
the monitor shows that the patient is in ventricular tachycardia. the patient is awake and talkative. treatment of the dysrhythmia is dependent on: a. presence or absence of a pulse and blood pressure. b. 12-lead ecg diagnosis. c. physician order. d. availability of an automated external defibrillator.
Ventricular tachycardia is a heart rhythm problem (arrhythmia) caused by irregular electrical signals in the lower chambers of the heart (ventricles).
What is ventricular tachycardia?At rest, a healthy heart normally beats 60 to 100 times per minute. The heart beats more quickly in ventricular tachycardia, typically 100 or more beats per minute or more.
Sometimes a fast heartbeat makes it difficult for the heart chambers to receive enough blood. The heart might not be able to pump enough blood to the body as a result. If this occurs, you can have shortness of breath, dizziness, or even lose consciousness.
However, prolonged bouts (also known as sustained V-tach) can be fatal. Ventricular tachycardia can occasionally cause the heart to cease beating (sudden cardiac arrest).A shock to the heart, medicine, or both may be used to treat ventricular tachycardia.
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a primipara is being evaluated in the clinic during her second trimester of pregnancy. which occurrence indicates an abnormal physical finding that necessitates further testing?
A primipara is being evaluated in the clinic during her second trimester of pregnancy. fetal HR of 180 BPM occurrence indicates an abnormal physical finding that necessitates further testing.
When does 2nd trimester start in pregnancy?Pregnancy is broken down into trimesters, with the first trimester lasting from week one to week twelve. The second trimester lasts from week 13 to week 26's conclusion. From week 27 to the conclusion of the pregnancy is the third trimester. For most women, the second trimester is the most physically satisfying.The first 12 weeks are the fetus's most sensitive time. All of the body's major organs and systems are developing at this time, and exposure to drugs, infectious diseases, radiation, some medications, tobacco, or hazardous materials can cause harm to the developing foetus.bleeding from the cervix or uterine pain. When using a Doppler, there is no heartbeat. When a CTG (Cardiotocography) machine is used on the mother, there is no sign of a foetal heartbeat. An ultrasound scan reveals no heartbeat.To learn more about 2nd trimester refer to:
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the home health nurse is caring for a client who is identified as high risk for falls. what evaluation would indicate a therapeutic response to home fall prevention education?
A grab bar installed in a slick tub can help the customer enter and exit the tub. A client's risk of falling is decreased by turning on night lights at night to guarantee that they can navigate securely.
Which action by the nurse demonstrates the appropriate application of standard precautions?In order to follow the basic precautions, nurses must properly utilize personal protective equipment, wash and sanitize their hands, and manage sharp objects.
When a nurse notices that a patient has fallen, what should the initial course of action be?Call for assistance while remaining beside the patient. Verify the patient's blood pressure, pulse, and breathing. Call a hospital emergency code and begin CPR if the patient is unresponsive, not breathing, or has no pulse. Injuries including cuts, scrapes, bruises, and broken bones should be looked for.
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you are treating a patient who tells you he was prescribed alprazolam (xanax) for his anxiety. what would anxiety be considered?
Anxiety is a mental health disorder characterized by feelings of worry, nervousness, or fear that are strong enough to interfere with daily activities.
It is a normal and often healthy emotion, but it can become overwhelming in some individuals. In this case, alprazolam (Xanax) is a medication that is commonly prescribed to help reduce symptoms of anxiety.
Alprazolam (Xanax) is a medication in the class of drugs known as benzodiazepines, which are commonly prescribed to help reduce symptoms of anxiety.
Benzodiazepines like alprazolam (Xanax) are often prescribed for short-term use as they can be addictive and can cause drowsiness, dizziness, and impairment of cognitive function. They may be used to reduce symptoms of anxiety in patients who have not responded to other treatments, or as a short-term solution to manage severe or debilitating symptoms of anxiety while the patient receives therapy or counseling to address the underlying causes of the anxiety.
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the nurse is preparing an educational program for her peers regarding vaccinations. what information should the nurse include? select all that apply.
The CDC provides the recommended schedule for vaccines. Parents must be given the proper Vaccine Information Statements prior to administration of the vaccine.
Why vaccines are important?Vaccines help your body create protective antibodies—proteins that help it fight off infections. By getting vaccinated, you can protect yourself and also avoid spreading preventable diseases to other people in your community.
What diseases don t have a vaccine?But there is still — despite 30 years of effort — no AIDS vaccine. There is no universal flu vaccine. There are no vaccines with long-lasting protection against malaria or tuberculosis. None for parasites like Chagas, elephantiasis, hookworm or liver flukes.
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22. a nurse is caring for a client who was named a person to serve as her health care proxy. which statement made by the client indicates anything further education?
The statement made by the client indicates anything further education is " I have to choose a family member as my health care proxy . "
What is health care proxy?When a patient is unable to make and carry out the healthcare decisions specified in the healthcare proxy, the patient selects an agent to formally make those decisions on their behalf. This is known as a healthcare proxy. a kind of advance directive that grants someone (such a family member, attorney, or friend) the power to make healthcare decisions on behalf of another person. When the individual is unable to make decisions for himself, it becomes active. known also as HCP. A Health Care Proxy is a document that can be signed by any competent adult who is 18 years of age or older and designates a health care agent. Just two adult witnesses are required; neither a notary nor a lawyer are required.
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while treating a patient with a high fever and cough, you accidentally expose yourself to the illness. what should you do?
You unintentionally expose yourself to the illness when treating a patient who has a high fever and cough. "Report it to the infection control officer," is what you should do. Thus, the correct answer is C.
Reporting it to the infection control officer is the correct action because it ensures that proper protocols and procedures are followed to prevent the further spread of the illness. The infection control officer will assess the risk of contamination and determine the appropriate measures to take, such as isolation and testing for the patient and monitoring for any symptoms in the healthcare worker. Additionally, reporting the exposure allows for proper documentation and tracking of any potential outbreaks within the healthcare facility. Ignoring or failing to report the exposure puts both the healthcare worker and other patients at risk.
This question should be provided with answer choices, which are:
A. Ignore it. The risk of contamination is small.B. Report it to the hospital staff so they can isolate the patient.C. Report it to the infection control officer.D. Do not report it but perform self-monitoring to be sure you are not infected.The correct answer is C.
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the physician asks for more sterile instruments that are not found on the sterile tray. what are two ways the medical assistant can obtain the needed instruments?
Major surgical procedures include, but are not limited to, heart operations, gut cavity operations, reconstructive surgery, deep tissue treatments, transplant procedures, as well as any operations on the abdomen, chest, or head.
What are surgery procedures?The act of healing or surgery is an endeavor to assist patients who are treated for medical illnesses or diseases by surgeons in hospitals. Surgery is performed with the goal of preserving or saving the patient's life as well as preventing complications and incapacity. However, there is a chance of life-threatening complications with doctor-performed procedures, necessitating postoperative patient care.The nurse is in charge of treating the patient once healing is complete for medical operations such as arrests that are performed alone by a doctor. Collaboration between surgeons and surgical nurses is typically a difficult process.when a nurse aids a patient during a quick operation. Every single sterile instrument needs to be put in a sterile tray. If the sterilised tool gets misplaced in the tray when you're helping the client with a minor operation, you'll need to contact another medical assistant for aid and grab the sterilised tool using forceps or halt the sterilisation process to get the tool.Patients should be instructed on the value of keeping their wounds clean. This lessens inflammation and hastens the healing of wounds. Patients should also be instructed on what not to use because some goods they may use could be harmful to their health.The complete question is,
A medical assistant has scrubbed and is assisting with minor surgery. The physician asks for more sterile instruments that are not found on the sterile tray.
- What are two ways the medical assistant can obtain the needed instruments?
- Why is it important to provide patient education on wound care following minor surgery?
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which communication by the nurse will help the bereaved caregiver of a terminally ill patient gather information about the diagnosis, medical care, and treatment options? select all that apply
Nurse can help bereaved caregivers information about their loved ones: "Looks like you need one more explanation. Let me explain it another way." "I understand you want to make sure all the information is correct." "If you have any questions, feel free to contact us and we will do our best to answer them."
What are the four stages of grief?Sustained, traumatic grief can cause us to progress (sometimes rapidly) through stages of grief. Denial, anger, haggling, depression, acceptance. These stages are an attempt to protect ourselves as we process change and adapt to new realities.
What is caregiver Grief?A caregiver may be prone to her two types of grief: The expected grief during your loved one's illness and the grief after his death. Many caregivers experience "anticipatory grief" when observing the physical, psychological, and cognitive decline that occurs as the disease progresses.
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during assessment, the nurse would expect to find that the patient: a. demonstrates major deficiencies in speech b. is unable to effectively hold a spoon i
The nurse would anticipate discovering that the patient cannot successfully grasp a spoon during the exam.
What is an assessment of nurse?Controlling muscles is one of the tasks that the cerebral hemispheres are in charge of. On the left side of the body, the right hemisphere primarily regulates motor and sensory processes. If the right side of the body is injured, the left side's ability to function will be compromised. Voluntary motion is regulated by the motor cortex. The motor speech region of the brain is controlled. The association cortex is said to perform cognitive activities. The left cerebral cortex is in charge of regulating the body's right side's motor activity. A registered nurse with the appropriate training and licensure will conduct a nursing evaluation to learn more about the patient's physiological, psychological, sociological, and spiritual status. The initial stage of nursing care is nursing assessment. CNAs are permitted to handle a portion of the nursing assessment.To learn more about assessment of nurse refer to:
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a illness is a condition that is ongoing such as diabetes or high blood pressure 2. a illness is an illness or condition from which recovery is not expected such as end-stage emphysema: a illness is an illness or condition from which recovery is not expected such as end-stage emphysema 3. a illness is a condition characterized by a rapid onset and a relatively short recovery time, such as pneumonia, appendicitis or a broken bone.: a illness is a condition characterized by a rapid onset and a relatively short recovery time, such as pneumonia, appendicitis or a broken bone.
Chronic illness is a condition that is ongoing such as diabetes or high blood pressure. Terminal illness is an illness or condition from which recovery is not expected such as end-stage emphysema.
What are some examples of chronic illness?Chronic illness is broadly defined as a condition that requires continuous treatment or limits activities of daily living, or both, lasting more than one year of his life. Chronic diseases such as heart disease, cancer and diabetes are leading causes of death and disability in the United States.
The most common chronic diseases are cancer, heart disease, stroke, diabetes and arthritis.
What Causes Chronic Disease?Most chronic diseases are caused by primary risk behaviors: Tobacco use and exposure to secondhand smoke. Poor nutrition, such as a diet low in fruits and vegetables and high in sodium and saturated fat. Lack of exercise.
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a physical therapist assistant is treating a patient in an inpatient rehabilitation setting who is complaining of constipation. the patient has been diagnosed with a neurological condition. which condition is least likely to cause constipation?
The condition most likely to cause constipation is diabetic enteropathy.
Diabetes can cause a person to experience constipation. In general, constipation is a common complaint for diabetics.
This condition can cause persistently high blood sugar levels, which can cause nerve damage which can lead to constipation.
Controlling blood sugar can prevent nerve damage in the intestine. Many healthy options doctors recommend for helping with diabetes will also relieve constipation.
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a patient is brought to the emergency room with a suspected acute ischemic stroke. the patient's wife states that her husband started slurring his speech roughly 2 hours ago. the nurse is aware that if alteplase is to be administered, it ideally should be started within:
Alteplase should be started within 3 hours of symptom onset.
what is alteplase used for?Alteplase, also known as recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (rt-PA), is a medication used to treat life-threatening blood clots in the arteries, such as those that occur in a heart attack, stroke, and pulmonary embolism. Alteplase is an enzyme that works by breaking down fibrin, a protein in the blood that helps form clots. By breaking down the fibrin, alteplase helps dissolve existing clots and can also help prevent new clots from forming. Alteplase is most commonly given as an intravenous (IV) injection, although it can also be given directly via a catheter into the clot. Alteplase can help reduce the size of the clot and improve blood flow, thereby reducing the risk of further damage to the heart, brain, or lungs. Alteplase can also be used to treat deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and other clotting disorders. Alteplase is a very effective treatment, but it must be used with caution as it can cause serious bleeding. It is important to talk to your doctor about the risks and benefits of alteplase before starting this medication.To learn more about alteplase refer to:
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during a shift, the patient consumed 180 ml of water, 200 ml of tea, 8 oz of milk, and one 6 oz glass of ice chips. calculate the total intake for the shift (in ml).
If the patient drank the recommended fluids, their combined intake for the shift would be about 800 ml.
How much liquid should you drink each day?Suggestions in general for healthy men and women, the National Academy of Medicine recommends a sufficient daily fluid intake of 13 cups for males and 9 cups for women, with 1 cup equaling 8 ounces. Those who engage in vigorous physical activity or who live in hot regions might require higher doses.
Why are ice chips provided in hospitals but not water?Because they would melt, ice chips were permitted, but all other fluids had to be administered through IV. However, as women have voiced a wish to make labor more of a natural process throughout the years, the health care system has changed.
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Identify the following spectroscopy techniques. When forensic scientists use( stereoscopy, microscopy, spectroscopy), they do not prepare samples of evidence for testing. They compare the evidence with (Astral, Spectral, global) the samples in the databases.
Answer:
When forensic scientists use Spectroscopy, they do not prepare samples of evidence for testing. They compare the evidence with Spectral samples in the databases.
Explanation:
An analytical method called spectroscopy employs the interaction of electromagnetic radiation with matter to examine the make-up and characteristics of a sample. Spectroscopy is a tool used in forensic science to detect and examine a wide range of compounds, such as narcotics, explosives, and other chemicals. This can make it easier for forensic scientists to distinguish between samples of evidence collected at crime scenes and samples of materials that are known to exist.
Forensic scientists can conduct tests on samples of evidence without having to prepare them by employing spectroscopy. They can instead apply the method to directly evaluate the evidence. This can help you save time and money. They can swiftly and precisely determine the sample's composition and match it to recognized compounds by comparing the evidence with Spectral samples in the databases.
all of the following are strategies for when the clinician encounters exostosis except one. which one is the exception? group of answer choices increase retraction move the needle injection site more superior utilize the palatal injections keep needle parallel to the bone
when the clinician encounters exostosis except one is utilize the palatal injections
What is the limiting factor for anesthetic?The actual local anaesthetic medication is the limiting component. In the operating room, Table 1 can be maintained nearby as a quick reference aid. Sometimes these maximums are still too much medication for the patient.Therapeutic mistake is typically the cause of local anaesthetic toxicity. Toxic situations include unintentional venous or arterial injection, an excessive amount of swallowed or topically applied local anesthetic-containing preparations, and more.There are many elements that affect how local anaesthetics work. These factors include the tissue's pH, the local anesthetic's lipid solubility, pKa, the length of the bond in the intermediate chain, and the ability of the specific local anaesthetic under consideration to attach to proteins.To learn more about anesthetic refers to:
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which interventions would the nurse implement for a child older than 2 years of age with type 1 diabetes mellitus who has a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl? select all that apply
Give the child a teaspoon of honey. Prepare to administer glucagon subcutaneously if unconsciousness occurs.
What is a 2-year-typical old's blood sugar level?Blood glucose levels should be between 70 and 140 milligrammes per deciliter (mg/dL).Infancy, toddlerhood, or adolescence are all possible ages for your child to develop type 1 diabetes. It often emerges after the age of 5. Others, though, don't experience it until their late 30s. For the sake of your child's health, be aware of the signs of type 1 diabetes.If your kid has two consecutive fasting blood sugar readings of 126 milligrammes per deciliter (mg/dl) or above, diabetes will be diagnosed. A fasting blood sugar level of 70 to 100 mg/dl is considered normal.To learn more about diabetes refer to:
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2. Which of the following features make
online pharmacies an appealing option to
patients?
O A. Avoiding sales tax
B. Being able to develop a personal
relationship with the pharmacist
O C. Privacy and convenience
D. Wider selection of brand-name
medications to choose from
The online pharmacy store offers Privacy and convenience. Option C
What is an online pharmacy store?We know that an online pharmacy store is the kind of pharmacy store where there is no physical contact between the pharmacist and the person that wants to purchase the drugs. In other words, the person that is buying the drugs only needs to meet with the store electronically.
This would offer a good convenience and privacy to the kind of patients that does not want to be seen or known due to the peculiarity of the kind of drugs that they are buying.
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an alert and oriented auto mechanic had his right thigh pinned between the bumpers of two cars. assessment findings include deformity and swelling to the right hip area and mid-thigh, along with ecchymosis and swelling to the right knee. the patient complains of excruciating pain to the right leg. which set of instructions given to other emts on the scene would be appropriate?
"Let's provide spine motion restriction precautions now, get the patient in the ambulance, and then provide more care to the leg en route."
Define swelling?Swelling may result from the accumulation of bodily fluid, tissue growth, or aberrant tissue movement or positioning.Swelling affects the majority of people occasionally. If it's hot outside and you've been standing or sitting still for a while, your feet and ankles may swell.Stretched and shiny-looking skin covers the swelling area.If your legs, ankles, or feet swell, it will be difficult to walk. Coughing or breathing issues could be present.Your swelling body part makes you feel bloated or constricting.Usually, swelling after an accident gets worse throughout the first two to four days.The body will then try to mend itself for up to three months after that.To learn more about swelling refer to:
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the nurse is teaching a patient about finateride therapy. which time perisod will the drug take to achieve its full effect?
The nurse is teaching a patient about finateride therapy and at least 3 months time period will the drug take to achieve its full effect.
Finasteride is a hair loss therapy which you must continually take if you wish to stop hair loss from happening again. It is not a permanent solution. DHT may contribute to prostate enlargement. Additionally, it may prevent hair growth. Finasteride prevents the production of DHT, which aids in prostate reduction and hair loss reduction.
Since hair loss and growth occur gradually over time, it could take at least 3 months if you're taking finasteride drug to treat male pattern hair loss before you notice any change. Nevertheless, you should anticipate progress over the initial 12 months of your therapy.
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what is the most appropriate initial imaging method for evaluating a patient with clinical change in chronic headache?
CT scan or MRI is the most appropriate initial imaging method for evaluating a patient with clinical change in chronic headache.
Nearly every region of the body may be seen using a CT scan, which is also employed to arrange pharmacological or radiation treatments as well as detect diseases and injuries. When used to identify, plan therapy for, and assess a variety of illnesses in both adults and children, CT scans can provide extensive information. Additionally, experimental procedure might not be necessary given the comprehensive images produced by CT scans.
A magnetic field and radio waves produced by a computer are used in the medical imaging procedure known as magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), which produces precise images of your body's organs and tissues. Large, magnetised tubes make up the majority of MRI equipment.
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the nurse notes a 2-hour-old newborn has a respiratory rate of 72. which priority action does the nurse immediately undertake?
The nurse notes a 2-hour-old newborn has a respiratory rate of 72 so the nurse should apply a pulse oximeter and apnea monitor.
A pulse oximeter is an electromechanical instrument that attaches to a person's finger and measures heart rate and red blood cell oxygen saturation; it is helpful in evaluating people with lung illness.
After a newborn returns home from the hospital, an equipment called a home apnea monitor is used to keep an eye on their breathing and heart rate. Breathing that slows down or stops for whatever reason is known as apnea. As soon as your baby's respiration rate decreases or stops, an alert on the monitor sounds.
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the nurse manager is teaching the nursing team about funds allocated to health departments for personal health services by local, state, and federal governments. which | statement made by a member of the team would indicate effective learning? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
The funds provide care for newborns.The funds provide care for clients with tuberculosis.The funds provide care for children with birth defects.
What is the main cause of tuberculosis?Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by a bacterium called Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The bacteria usually attack the lungs, but TB bacteria can attack any part of the body such as the kidney, spine, and brain.Tuberculosis (TB) is a potentially serious infectious disease that mainly affects the lungs. The bacteria that cause tuberculosis are spread from person to person through tiny droplets released into the air via coughs and sneezes.The general symptoms of TB disease include feelings of sickness or weakness, weight loss, fever, and night sweats. The symptoms of TB disease of the lungs also include coughing, chest pain, and the coughing up of blood. Symptoms of TB disease in other parts of the body depend on the area affected.To learn more about tuberculosis refers to:
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the nurse is told in a report that the client has hypocalcemia. which signs would the nurse expect to note during the data collection? select all that apply
The client has hypocalcemia, the nurse is informed in a report. Tetany, diarrhoea, and a positive urine test are indicators that the nurse should look for when collecting data. Symbol of Trousseau
What is hypocalcemia?Having insufficient vitamin D might result in hypocalcemia. The four tiny parathyroid glands in the neck, the kidneys, or the pancreas may also be implicated in its occurrence.Most instances have no symptoms. Muscle cramps, disorientation, and tingling in the fingers and lips are signs of severe instances.Calcium and vitamin D pills are part of the treatment. Treatment will also be required if an underlying condition exists. The most frequent causes of low serum calcium levels are PTH or vitamin D problems. Other conditions that lower the level of blood ionized calcium by calcium binding in the vascular space or calcium deposition in tissues, as might happen with hyperphosphatemia, are among the causes of hypocalcemia.
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the nurse provides education related to the relationship between aerobic exercise and weight loss to a client who is obese. the nurse evaluates that teaching is effective when the client states which effect of exercise?
Increases my lean body mass the nurse provides education related to the relationship between aerobic exercise and weight loss.
The most vital component of an powerful weight-management application have to be the prevention of undesirable weight advantage from excess body fat. The military is in a unique position to address prevention from the primary day of an person's army profession. due to the fact the military population is chosen from a pool of individuals who meet specific criteria for body mass index (BMI) and percentage body fat, the primary purpose must be to foster an surroundings that promotes protection of a wholesome body weight and body composition throughout an person's navy profession. there's widespread evidence that dropping extra body fat is tough for most individuals and the risk of regaining lost weight is high. From the primary day of initial access education, an knowledge of the essential causes of excess weight benefit have to be communicated to each character, along side a strategy for retaining a wholesome body weight as a manner of lifestyles.
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the nurse applies fetal and uterine monitors to the abdomen of a client in active labor. when the client has contractions, the nurse notes a 15 beats/min deceleration of the fetal heart rate below the baseline lasting 15 seconds. which is the next nursing action?
The next nursing action would be to contact the physician and inform them of the deceleration in the fetal heart rate. The physician may then order additional monitoring or interventions to ensure the wellbeing of the fetus.
What is a fetal and uterine monitor used for?A fetal and uterine monitor is a device used to track and measure the fetal heart rate and uterine contractions during labor. It is primarily used to monitor the health and wellbeing of both the mother and the baby during labor and delivery.
The fetal monitor is typically attached to the mother's stomach and measures the fetal heart rate through an ultrasound. The uterine monitor is typically placed inside the mother's vagina and measures the intensity and timing of uterine contractions.
Both monitors provide important information to the medical team, including the baby's heart rate, the strength of uterine contractions, and the duration of labor. By providing this information, the medical team can adjust their approach to labor and delivery to ensure the best outcome for the mother and baby.
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the parent of a toddler and a 4-week-old infant tells the primary care pediatric nurse practitioner that the toddler has just been diagnosed with pertussis. what should the nurse practitioner do to prevent disease transmission to the infant? group of answer choices administer the initial diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus vaccine to the infant.
The nurse practitioner should advise the parent to separate the toddler and infant, if possible, and to keep them in separate rooms, to minimize the risk of transmission of pertussis to the infant.
What should the nurse practitioner do to stop the newborn from contracting the disease?The nurse practitioner should also advise the parent to thoroughly wash her hands after contact with either child, to avoid spreading any possible infection. Additionally, the nurse practitioner should administer the initial diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus vaccine to the infant, as this will help to prevent the infant from developing pertussis if exposed. The nurse practitioner should also ensure that the infant completes the entire series of recommended immunizations, as this will provide further protection from the disease.Finally, the nurse practitioner should counsel the parent on the best ways to care for the infant if he or she is exposed to pertussis, including the importance of monitoring for any signs or symptoms of infection, and the importance of seeking medical attention if any such signs or symptoms are observed.administer the preventive antibiotic erythromycin to the infant.administer the preventive antibiotic azithromycin to the infant.administer the preventive antibiotic clarithromycin to the infant.administer the preventive antibiotic rifampin to the infant.To learn more about prevent disease transmission refer to:
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The nurse practitioner should advise the parent to separate the toddler and infant, if possible, and to keep them in separate rooms, to minimize the risk of transmission of pertussis to the infant.
What should the nurse practitioner do to stop the newborn from contracting the disease?The nurse practitioner should also advise the parent to thoroughly wash her hands after contact with either child, to avoid spreading any possible infection.
Additionally, the nurse practitioner should administer the initial diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus vaccine to the infant, as this will help to prevent the infant from developing pertussis if exposed. The nurse practitioner should also ensure that the infant completes the entire series of recommended immunizations, as this will provide further protection from the disease.
Finally, the nurse practitioner should counsel the parent on the best ways to care for the infant if he or she is exposed to pertussis, including the importance of monitoring for any signs or symptoms of infection, and the importance of seeking medical attention if any such signs or symptoms are observed. administer the preventive antibiotic erythromycin to the infant. administer the preventive antibiotic azithromycin to the infant. administer the preventive antibiotic clarithromycin to the infant. administer the preventive antibiotic revamping to the infant.
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medication order: heparin 25,000 units in 500 ml, infuse 4000 units/hr how many ml per hour do you need to infuse to deliver 4000 units/hr?
The quantity of heparin which would be given in milliliters if 4000 units/ hour is infused in the patient is 80ml.
Since the medication order states that 25,000 units of heparin is stored in the form of 500 milliliters liquid in a container, and the quantity infused in single time is 4000 units/hour, then according to the unitary method, we can make following equations.
Quantity of heparin in 25,000 units = 500 milliliters
Quantity of heparin in 1 unit = 500 / 25000 = 1/50
Quantity of heparin in 4000 units = (1/50)× 4000 = 80 milliliters
Since the value of time is neither mentioned in value nor any relation is set, therefore taking it as a constant figure, we can state that it if 4000 units is infused in 1 hour, then 80ml will also be infused in 1 hour.
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