PLEAASE HALLP EXPLAIN!! NEED HEEELP 14 POINTS

The area of the triangle will be 5/8 square feet.

A triangle is a polygon with three edges and three vertices. It is one of the basic shapes in geometry. A triangle with vertices A, B, and C is denoted ΔABC.

In Euclidean geometry, any three points, when non-collinear, determine a unique triangle and simultaneously, a unique plane.

Given is a triangle as shown in the image.

Now, the area of triangle will can be written as -

[A] = 1/2 x [b] x [h]

[A] = 1/2 x 5/3 x 3/4

[A] = 1/2 x 5/4

[A] = 5/8 square feet

Therefore, the area of the triangle will be 5/8 square feet.

To solve more questions on angles and triangles, visit the link below -

brainly.com/question/18584968

#SPJ2

Answer:

C ≤ 2,000 calories

Step-by-step explanation:

Here, we want to write an inequality

Let the number of amount of calories to be consumed be C

The term at most means that it cannot pass 2,000

Hence, it must be lesser than this

So the inequality will be;

C ≤ 2,000 calories

Answer:

B (x,y) —> (-6x,4y)

Step-by-step explanation:

6 is moving left which is negative

4 is moving up which is positive

Answer:

5/10

Step-by-step explanation:

if you add all the non- chocolate chip cookies than you have 10 other cookies.

since there are 5 chocolate chip cookies than the probability would be

5/10 or 1/2

The probability of picking a chocolate chip cookie is 1/3.

Given that, a box contains 5 chocolate chip cookies, 4 sugar and 6 oatmeal raisin.

Probability can be defined as the ratio of the number of favorable outcomes to the total number of outcomes of an event.

We know that, probability of an event = Number of favorable outcomes/Total number of outcomes

Here,

Total number of outcomes =15

Number of favorable outcomes = 5

Probability of an event = 5/15

= 1/3

Therefore, the probability of picking a chocolate chip cookie is 1/3.

To learn more about the probability visit:

https://brainly.com/question/11234923.

#SPJ2

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  (a)  84°

Step-by-step explanation:

If the upper side of angle 1 is extended so that it crosses the lower parallel, the angle it makes there corresponds to the one marked 51°, so is also 51°. That makes angle 1 the exterior angle of a triangle with remote interior angles of 51° and 33°. Angle 1 is the sum of those angles:

  ∠1 = 51° +33° = 84°

_____

Alternate solution

Draw a line through the vertex of angle 1 parallel to the other two parallel lines. The lower half of angle 1 is then an alternate interior angle to the one marked 33°, so is 33°. The upper half of angle 1 is a corresponding angle to the one marked 51°, so is 51°. That makes angle 1 be the sum of 33° and 51° angles, so 84°.

Answer:162

Step-by-step explanation:

The missing value is 162,

Option A is the correct answer.

A rectangle is a 2-D shape with length and width.

The length and width are different.

If the length and width are not different then it is a square.

The area of a rectangle is given as:

Area = Length x width

We have,

To complete the square for the function.

A(x) = -2x² + 36x,

We need to first factor out the coefficient of x², which is -2:

So,

A(x) = -2(x² - 18x)

Next,

We need to add and subtract a term that will allow us to factor the expression inside the parentheses into a perfect square.

To do this,

We need to take half of the coefficient of x, which is -18/2 = -9, square it, and then add and subtract the result.

So,

A(x) = -2(x² - 18x + 81 - 81)

Now,

We can rewrite the expression inside the parentheses as a perfect square.

A(x) = -2((x - 9)² - 81)

Finally, we can distribute the -2 and simplify.

A(x) = -2(x - 9)² + 162

So,

The missing value is 162,

Thus,

The missing value is 162,

Learn more about rectangles here:

https://brainly.com/question/15019502

#SPJ2

Answer:

people fall in love in a serois way.

Step-by-step explanation:

- this is a simple interest question, so you should know the formula for this.

simple interest: i = prt

i - interest

p - principle amount (deposit)

r - rate

t - time in years

the problem: -- this is a two step question, since its asking for the balance.

i = prt

i = 10,000(0.07)(8)

i = 5600

- remember this is just the interest, NOT the balance.

to find the balance:

5600 + 10000 = 15600

FINAL ANSWER:

$15,600

-- let me know if you have any questions regarding this.

Answer:

its d because inside the abs value thing ur gonn take that +8 and do the opposite of what it says so negative 8 to the left then ur just gonna go down negative 3

Answer:

1/4

Step-by-step explanation:

gradient formula= Δy/Δx

80-120/20-30=1/4

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation: ok

Answer:

c) 193

Step-by-step explanation:

Sum of all the angles of the pentagon = 540

2x + 7 + x + x + 8 + 3x - 11 + x - 8 = 540

2x +x + x + 3x + x  + 7 + 8 - 11 - 8 = 540

                              8x - 4             = 540

                                             8x   = 540 + 4

                                            8x = 544

                                              x = 544/8

                                             x = 68°

∠V = 3x - 11

     = 3*68 - 11

    = 204 - 11

    = 193°

Answer:

y----d=b

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Here, we want to graph the given line

To do this, we need the x and y intercept

The general equation form

is ;

y = mx + b

where m is slope and b is the y-intercept

from the question, b is -2

The point at b is (0,-2)

To get the x-intercept, equate y to 0

0 = 3x - 2

3x = 2

x = 2/3

So the x-intercept is (2/3,0)

So to graph the line, we have to join the points;

(0,-2) and (2/3,0) with a straight line

Please check attachment for this

Answer: 8.5x+25y−9

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Thus, f and g are inverse functions

Step-by-step explanation:

Inverse Functions

If two functions f(x) and g(x) are inverses, then it follows that:

[tex]f\circ g(x)=x[/tex]

Or:

[tex]g\circ f(x)=x[/tex]

We are given

[tex]\displaystyle f(x)=\frac{1}{4}x-6[/tex]

[tex]g(x)=4x+24[/tex]

Let's test if they are inverse functions:

[tex]f\circ g(x)=\frac{1}{4}(4x+24)-6[/tex]

Simplifying:

[tex]f\circ g(x)=x+6-6=x[/tex]

Now find:

[tex]\displaystyle g\circ f(x)=4\left(\frac{1}{4}x-6\right)+24[/tex]

Operating:

[tex]\displaystyle g\circ f(x)=x-24+24=x[/tex]

Thus, f and g are inverse functions

Answer:

Danny.

Explanation:

$48=4hrs

1hrs= $12

$28=2hrs

1 hrs = $14

therefore, danny offers a better deal.

Answer:

4x⁵z⁸

Step-by-step explanation:

xz³ₓ4x⁴z⁵ =

= 4x¹⁺⁴z³⁺⁵

= 4x⁵z⁸

Hey there!

The answer to your question is (6, -2)

To solve for substitution, we simply make the right side of the equations equal to each other:

[tex]x-8=2x-14[/tex]

Add [tex]14[/tex] to both sides:

[tex]x + 6 = 2x[/tex]

Subtract [tex]x[/tex] from both sides

[tex]6=x[/tex]

Now, we have to solve for [tex]y[/tex], and we can do so by plugging in the value of [tex]x[/tex] in to one of the equations:

[tex]y = 6 - 8[/tex]

[tex]y = -2[/tex]

Therefore, your solution is (6, -2)

Have a terrificly amazing day!

Answer:

r = 1.9

Step-by-step explanation:

7r + 7 = 20.3

    - 7      - 7  

7r = 13.3

divide by 7

r = 1.9

Answer:

r = 1.9

Step-by-step explanation:

7(r + 1) = 20.3

Multiply the parenthesis by 7:

7r + 7 = 20.3

Subtract 7 from each side:

7r = 13.3

Divide 13.3 by 7 to find r:

r = 1.9

Answer:

See below

Step-by-step explanation:

Let x rep right handed

Then,

5/8× x

= 5x/8

Since 4/5 are boys

1 - 4/5

1/4

Then,

5x/8 = 1/4

20x = 8

x = 8/20

x = 2/5

Therefore, the fraction of the girls in the school that are left handed is 2/5

Answer:

1/9

Step-by-step explanation:

6 feet = 6*12 = 72

Scale factor = 8/ 72 = 1/9

Answer:

1/9

Step-by-step explanation:

6ft = 72 inches

8/72 = 1/9

Answer:

2pir^2 + 2pirh

2(pi)(3.2)^2+2pi(3.2)(8)

=225.19

=225.2

Answer:

Quantity A is greater.

Step-by-step explanation:

Note that there are 16 total marbles. A is simply a set of sequential events. On the first, you have 10/16 chances to draw a red. Supposing this red is not replaced, the chance of drawing a second red will be 9/15; therefore, the probability of A is (10/16) * (9/15) = 0.375. Event B is translated into 2 events: Blue + (White or Red) or (White or Red) + Blue. The probabilities of each of these events, added together would be (2/16) * (14/15) + (14/16) * (2/15) = 0.2333333333; therefore, A is more probable.

Answer:

The first five terms of the arithmetic sequence.

-10 , -8 , -6 , -4 ,-2 ..........

Step-by-step explanation:

Explanation

Given that the first term is -10 and common difference d = 2

we know that the sequence in A.P

a ,a+d ,a+2d,a+3d ,a+4d...........  are in AP

-10, -10+2,  -10+2(2),  -10+3(2) , -10+4(2)..................

-10 , -8 , -6 , -4 ,-2 ..........

Final answer:-

The first five terms of the arithmetic sequence.

-10 , -8 , -6 , -4 ,-2 ..........