pleas help please helpppp

Answer:

work is shown and pictured

Answer:

A and D

Step-by-step explanation:

We have to create a perfect square. To make x^2+bx+c into a perfect square, c has to be (b/2)^2. In this case, b is -10. so, c has to be (-10/2)^2, which is 25. To make the left hand side 25, we would have to add 30 to both sides.

This leads to a new equation:

x^2 - 10x + 25 = 9+30

x^2 - 10x + 25 = 39

Now, we can change the left hand side to a perfect square.

(x-5)^2 = 39. (the -5 is b/2)

Then we square root both sides;

x-5 = +/- sqrt39. (When you square root an expression, remember that you need to include both the positive AND negative)

x = 5-sqrt39 or 5+sqrt39

Answer: 4.2

Step-by-step explanation:

the coefficient is the number used to multiply a variable. here, the variable is x, and it is being multiplied by 4.2.

so the coefficient of the equation is 4.2

Answer:

'''A ray has one endpoint and extends indefinitely in one direction. A pair of opposite rays are two rays that have the same endpoint and extend in opposite directions. Rays are always named with two points and the first point in the name must be the endpoint.'''

Replace the range for f(x)

So...

0=4-2x

x=2

4=4-2x

x=0

8=4-2x

x=-2

Solve!

These are your domains!

Answer:

Equal.

Step-by-step explanation:

The volume of the rectangular prism is:

V = length x width x height

V = 3a x 2b x c

V = 6abc

The volume of the pyramid is:

V = (base area x height)/3

V = (a x b x 18c)/3

V = 18abc/3

V = 6abc

The two volumes are equal.

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

The solution to these two graphs will be when they are equal. Therefore:

[tex]x^3+3=x^2+2 \\\\x^3-x^2+1=0 \\\\x\approx -0.755\approx -\dfrac{13}{16}[/tex]

Hope this helps!

Answer:

-13/16

Step-by-step explanation:

f(x)=x^3+3

g(x)=x^2+2

We know the solution is around -1

x^3+3 = x^2 +2

Subtract x^2+2 from each side

x^3 -x^2 -1 = f(x)

We need to find the derivative

3x^2 -2x = f'(x)

Newtons method of successive approximation states

xn+1 = xn -f(xn) / f'(xn)

Function

x3−x2+1

Derivative

x⋅(3⋅x−2)

x

-0.75488

Iterations

Step x F(x) |x(i) - x(i-1)|

x1 -0.8      -0.152000 0.152000

x2 -0.75682 -0.006259 0.006259

x3 -0.75488 -0.000012 0.000012

The approximate answer is -0.75488

The closest answer given is -13/16

Answer:

yesssssssssssssssssssssssssssssss

______________________________

Hey!!

Solution,

x-9=-27

or, X= -27+9

x=-18

So the value of X is -18

hope it helps..

Good luck on your assignment

__________________________

Answer:

Inverse relationship

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation we are looking at is;

y = 87.2/x

which implies xy = 87.2

If it was a direct relationship

y = constant * x

if it was inverse, it would have been

y * x = constant

since 87.2 is a constant, the question looks exactly like the second scenario.

This means that what we have is an inverse relationship

Answer:

10 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

5/6 of an hours is 50 min. Assume x is the time she spends on each skill.

5x=50

x=10

She spent 1/6 of an hour i.e. 10 minutes on each skill.

In area model for multiplication a rectangle is used to represent multiplication between two quantities. Width and Length of the rectangle are assigned the numerical value of the two quantities being multiplied.

Let the number of skills be represented by the length of the rectangle in the figure.

Let the time spent(in hours), which is same for all skills, on each skill be represented by the width of the rectangle in the figure.

The area of the rectangle = length × width = 5 × t = 5t hours.

This area represents total time spent on five skills, which is 5/6 hours.

The smaller rectangles into which the whole rectangle is divided have area 1 × t = t hours. This represents time spent on one skill.

From the figure, such five smaller and equal rectangles constitutes the whole rectangle.

So, area of one smaller rectangle = Area of big rectangle / number of small rectangles = (5/6)/5 = 1/6 hours.

Since, this represents time spent on one skill. So, the required time is 1/6 hours.

She practice each skill for 1/6 of an hour.

Learn more about the area model here

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Answer:

1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

The factors of 8 are 1,2,4

So there are three factors of 8 on the dice

There are a total of 6 numbers on the dice

So the probability is ,3/6

Which in its simplest form is 1/2

the answer is x÷5-3 = 28

Answer:

(28+3)×5=x

Step-by-step explanation:

28+3= [tex]\frac{1}{5}[/tex] of x

31 is 1/5 of x

x is 155

Checking:

155÷5-3=28

31-3=28

x is 155

Alternate solution:

(28+3)×5=x

Answer:

1.5 * 4.7

Step-by-step explanation:

The top adds to 4+.7 = 4.7

The side adds to 1+.5 = 1.5

When they multiply it is

1.5 * 4.7

Answer:

Domain: { 2,3,4,5}

Step-by-step explanation:

The domain is the inputs to the function

In this case it is the x values

Domain: { 2,3,4,5}

Answer:

C. (2,3,4,5)

Step-by-step explanation:

The domain is x and the range is y.

A linear inequality seems exactly like a linear equation where the inequality sign is replaced by the equality sign.

Solution set is the dark region enclosed by both inequality equation shown in attached graph.

Given inequality are, [tex]y\leq 2x+7,y>-\frac{1}{3}x-2[/tex]

By using graphing tool, draw graph of both inequality.

The dark region enclosed by both inequality equation shown in attached graph is solution set for given equation.

Learn more:

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Answer:

The first factor is the amount of charge on each object. The greater the charge is then the greater the electric force. The second factor is the distance between the charges. The closer together the charges are, the greater the electric force is.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

56

Step-by-step explanation:

The larger half is 4*10=40

The smaller half is 4*4=16

40+16=56

The area of the given kite is 56 square units and it has two diagonals of lengths 14 and 8 units.

The are of kite is product of diagonals by two.

Area of kite = (Diagonal 1 × Diagonal 2)/2.

Diagonal 1= 10+4

=14 units.

Diagonal 2= 4+4

=8 units.

Now plug in these values in above formula:

Area of kite = (14×8)/2

=112/2

=56 square units.

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It is indeed false.

[tex]\sin^{-1}x[/tex] is a function that takes values of [tex]x[/tex] between -1 and 1, and takes on values between -π/2 and π/2. Most importantly, it's a function that takes *one* value in its domain and assigns it to exactly *one* value in its range. Hence [tex]\sin^{-1}x[/tex] is one-to-one.

It's true that [tex]\sin x=\frac45[/tex] has infinitely many solutions, but [tex]\sin x[/tex] itself is not one-to-one.

Answer:

False

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

A (1,0), B (3,0) Q (2,-1) P(0,3)

Step-by-step explanation:

A(1,0) B (3,0) these are the roots of the current graph so the factors or the x-intercepts.

Q is the minimum so it is halfway between the x-intercepts

halfway = 3+1/2 , x=2

plug x=2 into the equation

y=(2-1)(2-3)

y=  -1

therefore Q = (2,-1)

P is the y-intercpet when x=0, so plug x=0 into the equation

y=(0-1)(0-3) = 3

therefore Q =

(0,3)

Answer:

12/36 = 1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

draw a possibility diagram or table where you get the possible outcomes. 1 to 6 along the bottom and 1 to 6 across.

you will results such as 11 12 13 14 15 16

21 22 23 24 25 26

and so on.

Then, you total up each of them and will get

2 3 4 5 6 7 from the first row

3 4 5 6 7 8 from 2nd row

and so on.

from the final results, count how many are multiples of 3.

we should get 12 and over total possible outcomes which is 36, since it's a 6 by 6 table.

Answer:

C.) m = 2 and b = -8

Step-by-step explanation:

Generally:

In an equation of the form y = mx + b

the slope is m

the y-intercept is b

In our equation y = 2x - 8 = 2x + (-8)

then

m = 2  and  b = -8

Answer:

" Expected Payoff " ⇒ $ 1.80 ; Type in 1.80

Step-by-step explanation:

Take the probability of winning into consideration;

[tex]Total Number of Tickets - 500,\\Tickets 1 Person Can Enter - 1 Ticket,\\\\Probability of Winning - 1 / 500,\\Money Won - 900 Dollars,\\\\Proportionality - 1 / 500 = x / 900 - where, x = " Expected Payoff "\\1 / 500 = x / 900 - CrossMultiplication,\\\\500 * x = 900,\\x = 900 / 500,\\x = 1.80 Dollars Won!\\\\Conclusion ; x = 1.80 Dollars[/tex]

Solution ; " Expected Payoff " ⇒ $ 1.80

Answer:

12 and 18

Step-by-step explanation:

sum the parts of the ratio, 2 + 3 = 5

30 ÷ 5 = 6 ← value of 1 part of the ratio

2 parts = 2 × 6 = 12

3 parts = 3 × 6 = 18

The numbers are 12 and 18

Answer:

The major categories of financial institutions include central banks, retail and commercial banks, internet banks, credit unions, savings, and loans associations, investment banks, investment companies, brokerage firms, insurance companies, and mortgage companies

Step-by-step explanation:

sorry i did not put 2 examples, i put too many examples lollll

Answer:

There are two primary types of financial institutions non-depository and depository.

Step-by-step explanation:

an insurance company would fall under the non-depository group, and a credit union would be defined as a depository institution.

All direct proportional graphs go through the origin (0,0). So this is where one point could go. The second point is found by going up 5 units and then to the right 3 units to get to (3,5)

The equation of this line is y = (5/3)x

Answer:

195

Step-by-step explanation:

The area of a rhombus is the product of the two diagonal lengths / 2. The two diagonals measure 15 and 26 respectively. Therefore, the rhombus' area is 390/2=195

Step-by-step explanation:

1 (b) ( boy, boy), (boy,girl), ( girl,boy ), ( girl, girl )

(c) 4

(d) 2/4 = 1/2

(e) 1/4

2 (a) (1,head), (1,tail), (2,head), (2,tail), (3,head), (3,tail), (4,head), (4,tail)

(b) (A,1) (A,2), (A,3), (B,1), (B,2), (B,3), (C,1), (C,2),

(C,3)

Answer: x =(4-√168)/2=2-√ 42 = -4.481

x =(4+√168)/2=2+√ 42 = 8.481

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x = -4.48,  8.48 to the nearest hundredth.

Step-by-step explanation:

x^2 - 4x - 9 = 29

Completing the square:

(x - 2)^2 - 4 - 9 = 29

(x - 2)^2 = 29 + 13 = 42

x - 2 = +/-√42

x = 2 +/-√42

x = 8.48, -4.48 .

Answer:

Since the full percentage of something is 100% thats because 1*100 = 100.

So since it has 40% chance of rain what would 100-40 be? Well it would be 60. So the probability that it will not rain is