Select all that apply: In which of the following circumstances must an individual be given the opportunity to agree or object to the use and disclosure of their PHI?
a) Before PHI directly relevant to a person's involvement with the individual's care or payment of health care is shared with that person
b) Prior to disclosure to a business associate
c) Before their information is included in a facility directory

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

a) Before PHI directly relevant to a person's involvement with the individual's care or payment of health care is shared with that person

b) Prior to disclosure to a business associate

Answer 2

An individual must be given the chance to agree or object to the use and disclosure of their PHI before it is shared with them in situations where it is directly related to their involvement in receiving or paying for medical care, and before their information is included in a facility directory. So, the correct options are A and C.

What is PHI?

Protected health information is referred to as PHI. It is any data that can be used to identify a specific person and pertains to that person's health status, medical treatment, or payment for medical treatment. PHI includes things like test results, billing information, and treatment plans.

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule, which establishes guidelines for how healthcare organizations, insurance plans, and other entities that handle PHI must safeguard the privacy, integrity, and accessibility of this data, protects PHI.

So, the correct options are A and C.

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Related Questions

How can you tell whether a fat contains primarily saturated or unsaturated fatty acids?
a. All plant oils are unsaturated because they are liquid at room temperature.
b. Solid fats that melt at a high temperature are unsaturated.
c. Oils that remain liquid at room temperature are primarily unsaturated.
d. Beef fat is considered unsaturated because cattle eat only plant foods.
e. all fat that is solid at low temperatures is unsaturated.

Answers

Heat the fat until it liquefies, then use a gas chromatograph to separate the fatty acids. This is the simplest method for accomplishing this (GC).

What distinguishes a fat as being saturated or unsaturated? Heat the fat until it liquefies, then use a gas chromatograph to separate the fatty acids. This is the simplest method for accomplishing this (GC).At the carbon-carbon double bond, saturated fatty acids will have a distinctive double-bonded carbon atom, whereas unsaturated fatty acids won't.A saturated fat.It is solid when left at room temperature.It can be present in full-fat dairy products, such as yogurt and cheese, as well as high-fat meats like butter and lard.Unsaturated fatAt normal room temperature, this is usually liquid.You can find it in fish, nuts, and vegetable oils.The largest number of hydrogen atoms are found in saturated fats, but there are less hydrogen bonds than the maximum amount at each double bond in unsaturated fats.

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The best way to tell whether a fat contains primarily saturated or unsaturated fatty acids is to look at the physical properties of the fat. Solid fats that melt at a high temperature are unsaturated, while oils that remain liquid at room temperature are primarily unsaturated.

What is fatty acids?

Fatty acids are organic compounds that are made up of a carboxylic acid group attached to a hydrocarbon chain. They are found naturally occurring in plant and animal fats, oils, and waxes, and are important components of biological membranes. Fatty acids are essential for the production of energy and for the proper functioning of all cells and organs. In humans, fatty acids are used to make hormones and regulate many bodily processes. They are also important for the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins and the synthesis of lipids.

Fats that are solid at low temperatures are saturated. For example, beef fat is considered saturated because it is solid at low temperatures.

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the nurse is planning care with the parents of a child who requires continuous peritoneal dialysis. which finding should be discussed with the health care provider (hcp)?

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The child reports having undergone surgery in the past for an appendix rupture, according to the health care provider (hcp).

What is meant by appendix?It's possible for peritoneal scarring in a patient with a ruptured appendix to affect how well the medication works. The choice of peritoneal dialysis is frequently made because of living far from a medical center. The school nurse must be a part of the medical team even when attending a large school is not a problem. It is usually possible to design the treatment regimen so that unbroken sleep is possible at night. Located near the big intestine, the appendix is a little pouch. Between the small intestine (cecum) and the large intestine is the appendix, a little pouch of intestinal tissue resembling a finger (colon). The first segment of the big intestine is where the appendix, a little finger-shaped tube, arises.

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which nursing interventions would be implemented for a newborn receiving phototherapy for hyperbilirubinemia? select all that apply.

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Nursing interventions applied to newborns receiving phototherapy for hyperbilirubinemia

Monitor the temperature frequently.Protect the eyes with an opaque mask.Monitor and document the number and consistency of stools.

Phototherapy or light therapy is a common treatment method for treating jaundice. Changing the color of the baby's skin to yellow is often caused by increased levels of bilirubin.

Phototherapy can cause changes in the newborn's temperature. Therefore the temperature must be carefully controlled. A newborn's eyes are protected by an opaque eye patch that prevents excessive light exposure. Stool amount and composition are controlled. The breakdown of bilirubin increases gastric motility, resulting in watery stools. Creams should not be used during phototherapy as they absorb heat and can cause burns. Newborn babies are not given clothes, but diapers are still used to protect the genitals.

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a nurse is describing a technique developed in the 1940s by dr. arnold kegel to assist postpartum women with a common issue. the nurse explains that the purpose of this technique is to:

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A nurse is describing a technique developed in the 1940s by Dr. Arnold Kegel to assist postpartum women with a common issue. The nurse explains that the purpose of this technique is to: strengthen the pelvic floor muscles to reduce urinary incontinence

What  are The pelvic floor muscles?Within the pelvis, the coccyx (tailbone) and pubic bone are where the pelvic floor muscles are situated. They aid in the gut and bladder's support (as well as the uterus and vagina in females). When the urethra, vagina, and anus pass through the pelvic floor, muscular bands (sphincters) surround them. Sit comfortably and squeeze the muscles 10 to 15 times to strengthen your pelvic floor muscles. Breathing in deeply while contracting your leg, bottom, and stomach muscles is not advised. Try holding each squeeze for a couple of seconds once you've gotten used to performing pelvic floor exercises.An individual with urinary incontinence unintentionally releases pee. Urinary incontinence, or overactive bladder, can affect anybody, but older people—especially women—are more likely to have it. Bladder control problems can be embarrassing and make people refrain from participating in daily activities.

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which of the following is true about recommended dietary allowances (rdas)? they are the reference standard for intake levels necessary to meet the needs of most healthy individuals. they are the highest amount of a particular nutrient that can be safely consumed on a daily basis. they are the recommended average daily intake by healthy people when the research is limited. they are the amount of intake needed to prevent chronic disease.

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RDAs are the standard instrument for intake levels required to fulfill the demands of the majority of healthy persons and are the suggested average daily intake for normal individuals when the available research is sparse.

Describe RDA.

The Institute of Medicine's (IOM) Food and Nutrition Board developed a set of recommendations known as the Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDA), which serve as the benchmark for consumption amounts required to satisfy the needs of the majority of healthy people.

They are meant to serve as a guideline for the daily minimum necessary nutrient intake required to sustain optimum health.

RDAs are designed to be a reference for healthy persons to make sure that they receive the critical nutrients they require and are based on the most recent scientific research.

RDA are varied for each mineral and change based on things like age, gender, and whether or not a woman is pregnant.

The recommended daily allowances (RDA) do not represent the maximum daily consumption of a certain nutrient that is safe, nor do they represent the intake required to stave off chronic illness.

The Recommended Intake Allowances (RDA) are both a set of recommendations for the consumption levels required to fulfill the needs of the majority of healthy adults. They are derived from the most up-to-date scientific investigation and should be followed as a guide for establishing and assessing diets.

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a nurse researcher is examining the specificity of a screening test for kidney disease. of the 1000 people tested, 33 tested positive for kidney disease. after further testing, 28 of these clients were confirmed to have kidney disease. what is the specificity of this test? record your answer as a percentage to one decimal place

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99.5 The test's specificity in renal disease is nursing.Chronic kidney disease (CKD) has no known treatment, however it can be controlled and its symptoms can be lessened.

A cure for renal illness exists?Chronic kidney disease (CKD) has no known treatment, however it can be controlled and its symptoms can be lessened. According to your CKD stage, your treatment will vary. These are the primary therapies: To keep you as healthy as possible, make certain lifestyle changes.Kidney disease may be present if you experience an increased urge to urinate, especially at night. Urinary urges may become more frequent when the kidney filters are compromised. The presence of an enlarged prostate in men or a urinary infection are occasionally also indicated by this. Urine sample shows blood.99.5 The test's specificity in renal disease is nursing.Chronic kidney disease (CKD) has no known treatment, however it can be controlled and its symptoms can be lessened.          

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the nurse provides care to a client who experienced prolonged cold exposure. for which complication does the nurse closely monitor this client?

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The nurse closely monitors the client for hypothermia, as it is a common complication of prolonged cold exposure.

Hypothermia is a condition where the body temperature falls below the normal range of 36-37°C (96.8-98.6°F) . Prolonged cold exposure can cause the body to lose heat faster than it can produce it, leading to a drop in body temperature. This can be dangerous as it can affect the body's vital functions such as heart rate, breathing, and brain function.

The nurse should closely monitor the client's vital signs, including body temperature, and should take actions to prevent the client's temperature from dropping, such as providing warm blankets, and warm fluids. The nurse should also be alert to signs and symptoms of hypothermia, such as shivering, confusion, and decreased consciousness.

Early identification and management of hypothermia is crucial to prevent the progression of the condition to severe hypothermia which can lead to life-threatening complications such as cardiac arrest and organ failure.

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a tornado has destroyed an area of the local community and destroyed the local water plant. the public health nurses in that area mobilize and coordinate care with the hospital, emergency medical services, and the fire department. what core public health function does this action represent?

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A tornado has destroyed an area of the local community and destroyed the local water plant. The public health nurses in that area mobilize and coordinate care with the hospital, emergency medical services, and the fire department. This action represent assurance of the public health function.

Why is it important to consider the source of health information?It is crucial to ensure that the material is updated because health knowledge is always evolving as a result of new findings.If the information is based on a study that was conducted a number of years ago, you should search for more recent data to make sure it is still accurate.Background: Having a trustworthy source for health information is essential to laying a solid foundation of knowledge, especially in light of the current internet and social media revolution, which raises numerous questions about potential negative consequences on public health.In order to manage population health and lower healthcare costs, health information systems collect, consolidate, and analyze health data.The examination of healthcare data can then enhance patient care.

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which items would the nurse need when caring for a client undergoing treatment from an internal radiation implant that has become dislodged? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.

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Lead-lined container  Long-handled forceps.  items would the nurse need when caring for a client undergoing treatment from an internal radiation implant that has become dislodged.

A type of cancer treatment is internal radiation therapy, often known as brachytherapy or seed implantation. It directly administers a strong dosage of radiation to the tumor while sparing adjacent tissues. In internal radiation therapy, the oncologist introduces radioactive materials directly into the cancerous tissue. Both temporary and permanent placements are possible. Over the course of a few months, the radioactive elements, also known as seeds, gradually release radiation. Their radiation totally decays within a year. The seeds can remain safely in place for the rest of your life.

A radioactive implant that has come loose should be picked up by the nurse using long-handled forceps and placed in a lead-lined container before being immediately reported to the radiation therapy department. The door should be maintained as closed as possible when housing patients with sealed radioactive implants in a private room with a private bath. A lead apron is worn during treatment; it must always be positioned in between the caregiver and the patient. You may find DISLODGED as well as antonyms, synonyms, related phrases, and example sentences in a trustworthy free thesaurus.

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The complete question is:

Which items would the nurse need when caring for a client undergoing treatment from an internal radiation implant that has become dislodged? Select all that apply

A. Mask

B. Latex gloves

C. Biohazard bag

D. Lead-lined container

E. Long-handled forceps

1what is the most appropriate classroom intervention for a child with attention-deficithyperactivity disorder (adhd) for the school nurse/

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Divide work assignments in shorter periods with breaks in between is the most suitable classroom solution for the school nurse to propose for a kid with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).

The youngster with ADHD need rest intervals in between periods of study and work. ADHD is an abbreviation for Attention-Deficit hyperactivity Disorder. It's one of the most frequent neurobehavioral diseases in kids. ADHD children tend to have considerable issues with a variety of functions. Although impulsivity, inattention, or overactivity are frequent, they can serve as a magnet for additional problems. DuPaul and Stoner underline that children with ADHD typically face low academic success, a high level for non-compliance and violence, and bad relationships.

Self-management is one of the most successful school-based intervention techniques for helping ADHD children establish adequate levels of self-control. This technique is designed to provide ADHD youngsters with age-appropriate behaviours, both socially and intellectually. For better control of behaviours, the introduction of classroom norms and expectations is necessary. Because ADHD children may become disruptive fast, teachers must constantly remind them of the norms and expectations such that they will stay on track and get interested in the classroom.

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1. what differentiates the practice of a master's-prepared nurse compared to that of a baccalaureate-prepared nurse?

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Compared to a baccalaureate-prepared nurse, who can also do bedside patient care and fill managerial, administrative, and instructional positions, a master's-prepared nurse's practise places a greater emphasis on direct patient care.

You will have the skills and expertise to develop your nursing profession as a baccalaureate-prepared nurse. The work of a nurse is crucial to the medical system and contributes to high-quality patient care throughout the treatment phase. It is mainly for the school graduates who have no nursing degree.

For advanced practise registered nurses who want to offer high-quality care to a rising population, obtaining a master's-prepared nurse degree can open up prospects.

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decreased breath sounds, prolonged expiration, and expiratory wheezes bilaterally are auscultated. what would the nurse suspect

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The nurse would suspect that the patient is experiencing some form of respiratory distress or lung disease that is causing decreased breath sounds, prolonged expiration, and expiratory wheezes bilaterally.

Decreased breath sounds can be caused by a variety of factors, such as lung collapse, fluid accumulation in the lungs, or blockages in the airways. Prolonged expiration, also known as prolonged expiratory phase, is a sign that the patient is having difficulty exhaling and may indicate asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), or other lung distress. Expiratory wheezes, which are high-pitched whistling sounds heard during exhalation, can be caused by narrowed or obstructed airways, such as in asthma or bronchitis.

The nurse should further assess the patient's respiratory status by evaluating the patient's vital signs, oxygen saturation, and lung sounds in all lung fields.

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The director of nursing has been observing staff interactions in a 20-bed coronary care unit. Based on her observations, which of the following staff members is an obvious leader?
a. The unit secretary who knows everyone's business
b. The chief nursing officer who is in charge and is responsible for nursing services
c. The chief cardiologist who admits the largest number of patients and brings in more revenue than any other physician
d. The staff nurse who persuades other staff members to practice by making evidence-based decisions

Answers

The option (d) is correct. The staff nurse who persuades other staff members to practice by making evidence-based decisions.

Who is a leader?The best leaders are those who are able to communicate to their followers their vision of the future and the path to get there.It is not primarily related to status or information flow, but rather the capacity to motivate others to realize a vision ,such as evidence-based decision making .An individual, group, or organization's capacity to "lead," influence, or guide other people, teams, or entire organizations is referred to as leadership, both as a research field and as a practical skill.A contentious phrase, "leadership" is frequently perceived to be.

Here, the staff nurse who persuades other staff members to practice by making evidence-based decisions. So, option d is correct.

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the nurse is caring for a patient with chronic pancreatitis. which assessment finding is related to this disease process? s

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A patient with chronic pancreatitis is being cared for by the nurse. This disorder is associated with jaundice, polydipsia, and polyphagia.

Chronic pancreatitis occurs when the pancreas (a tiny organ lying below the stomach and below the ribcage) is permanently destroyed by inflammation. It differs from acute pancreatitis in that the inflammation is just temporary. The most frequent symptom of chronic pancreatitis is severe abdominal (tummy) pain that comes and goes. Other symptoms, such as oily, foul-smelling faeces, likely to occur as pancreatic damage advances. Long-term alcohol abuse accounts for approximately 7 out of every 10 occurrences of chronic pancreatitis.

This is due to the fact that excessive drinking over a long period of time can continually harm the pancreas. There is no particular therapy for most cases of chronic pancreatitis to decrease inflammation and heal pancreatic damage. Treatment mostly focuses on pain relief through lifestyle adjustments. Surgery may be required to address severe persistent pain that does not respond to pain relievers. However, the discomfort can be difficult to cure and can have a negative impact on the quality of life.

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the nurse manager has been asked to implement an evidence-based approach to teach ostomy patients self-management skills postoperatively. the program is to be implemented across the entire facility. what illustrates effective leadership in this situation?

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The nurse manager demonstrating effective leadership in this situation would be to ensure that the program is implemented consistently and uniformly across the entire facility.

Why would a person need an ostomy?A person may need an ostomy for a number of medical reasons, such as cancer, Crohn's disease, ulcerative colitis, birth defects, or trauma.An ostomy is a surgically created opening in the abdominal wall that allows stool or urine to be eliminated from the body, usually into a bag. For example, a colostomy is an ostomy that is made through the large intestine and allows feces to be collected in a bag. An ileostomy is an ostomy that is made through the small intestine and allows liquid stool to be collected in a bag. An urostomy is an ostomy that is made through the urinary system and allows urine to be collected in a bag. By creating an ostomy, a person may be able to avoid life-threatening complications or improve their quality of life.

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a client reports an itchy, bumpy scar around an old wound that is identified as a keloid. which term best describes this condition?

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The features depicting old scars are identified as keloids called hyperplasia.

What are the keloids?

Keloids are fleshy growths on scars with a firm and benign texture. Keloids usually appear as a result of skin injuries such as burns, chickenpox, ear piercing, surgical incisions, and scars from vaccination injections.

Keloids form when fibroblasts, cells found in connective tissue that secrete collagen, overreact to produce high amounts of collagen in response to injury.

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the nurse is caring for a client with chronic pyelonephritis. which lab value noted by the nurse indicates a problem?

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The nurse is caring for a client with chronic pyelonephritis and presence  of proteinuria and microscopic hematuria is lab value noted by the nurse which indicates a problem.

Although microscopic hematuria or proteinuria may indicate significant pathology in the kidneys or urinary tract, a primary care physician can and should begin a preliminary evaluation, followed by treatment, recommendation, or both, depending on the results of laboratory tests.

Hematuria and proteinuria may only be early indicators of renal illness or another organ condition [18, 20]. Specifically, acute tubular necrosis, the most common cause of AKI in the ICU, is manifested in more than 50% of individuals with urine anomalies.

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the patient with liver disease comes to the clinic with complaints of shortness of breath secondary to ascites. what procedure will remove fluid from the patient's belly:

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Abdominocentesis is the procedure that is used to will remove fluid from the patient's belly.

What is Abdominocentesis?Abdominocentesis seems to be the process of inserting a small gauge needle into to the abdomen to determine the presence of fluid and collect a sample for further testing. This quick procedure can be performed as an outpatient, does not usually require sedation, and can be done with ultrasound guidance.Abdominocentesis is most commonly used to determine whether a patient requires exploratory celiotomy, especially for early detection of peritonitis or serious injury.Infection from aseptic technique breaks, hemorrhage from organ puncture with the catheter needle, and insufficient fluid removal are all potential complications of abdominocentesis.Peritoneal fluid can indeed be collected by clipping and aseptically preparing the most dependent area of the abdomen, on or slightly to the right of the midline to avoid the spleen, and inserting an aseptically prepared needle.

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in which order would the nurse arrange the steps in the quality improvement process to help a leader minimize errors and achieve satisfaction on the part of the consumer of health- care services?

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The quality improvement (QI) approach as it relates to the nurse leader needs to be revised, with an emphasis on error correction.

Which trait should a nurse with leadership potential have?For maximum success on all fronts, a nurse leader needs to be well-versed in communication techniques. Collaboration among employees at all levels and in all positions in the health care industry can be facilitated by effective communication.The quality improvement (QI) approach as it relates to the nurse leader needs to be revised, with an emphasis on error correction.The nurse must be adaptable, open to hearing what others have to say, and willing to share ideas and information in order to collaborate effectively. The nurse manager should think carefully before responding, take into account other people's viewpoints, and avoid acting in a hurried manner.        

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whicch cue in a patient's history places the patient who presents with weight loss and difficulty swallowing at risk for esophageal canccer?

Answers

The neck to stomach tube being affected by cancer (esophagus).

What is esophageal cancer?The neck to stomach tube being affected by cancer (esophagus).Significant esophageal cancer risk factors include smoking and poorly managed acid reflux.Swallowing difficulties, accidental weight loss, chest pain, increased indigestion or heartburn, coughing, or hoarseness are among the symptoms.Surgery is the primary method of treatment for cancer. Radiation and chemotherapy are both options. The difficulty swallowing, particularly the sensation that food is lodged in the throat, is the most typical sign of esophageal cancer.Choking on meals can also happen to some patients. As your oesophagus narrows due to the developing cancer, these symptoms gradually get worse over time, with an increase in pain when swallowing.

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how many total members are required to serve on the nj board of massage and bodywork therapy?

Answers

There is created within the Division of Consumer Affairs in the Department of Law and Public Safety the New Jersey Board of Massage and Bodywork Therapy. The board shall consist of nine members who are residents of the State, two of whom shall be public members appointed pursuant to the provisions of subsection b.

Define Consumer?A consumer is a person or a group that is not directly involved in entrepreneurial or business operations and who intends to order or uses purchased items, products, or services primarily for personal, social, family, or household needs.One who consumes, particularly one who purchases things or services for personal use or ownership as opposed to for resale or use in manufacturing or producing.An individual who acquires goods for resale purposes is not a buyer; rather, they are consumers who use the goods and services that they have purchased with their permission.For illustration, consider a company that buys a printer for business purposes.

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a nurse is aware that after a burn injury and respiratory difficulties have been managed, the next most urgent need is to:

Answers

A nurse is aware that after a burn injury and respiratory difficulties have been managed, the next most urgent need is to replace lost fluids and electrolytes.

Burn injuries are an underappreciated trauma that can occur at any time and in any location. Friction, cold, heat, radiation, chemical, or electric causes can all cause burn injuries, however the majority of burn injuries are produced by heat from hot liquids, solids, or fire1. Despite the fact that all burn injuries include tissue death as a result of energy transfer, various causes might result in diverse pathophysiological and physiological responses. A flame or hot grease, for example, can inflict a quick deep burn, although scald injuries tend to show more superficially at first due to fast dilution of the source and energy.

Colliquative necrosis is caused by alkaline chemicals, whereas coagulation necrosis is caused by acidic burn. Electrical injuries are distinct in that they can cause deep tissue injury that is greater than visible skin damage; tissue damage in electrical injuries has been correlated with the electricity field strength (amperes and tissue resistance), though voltage is frequently used to describe this same circumstances of injury for ease of comprehension.

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what is the most appropriate classification of patient impairments that are the result of inactivity following an exacerbation of their multiple sclerosis?

Answers

Composite Impairments is the term most commonly used to describe patient impairments that arise from inactivity after a multiple sclerosis flare-up.

What is meant by patient impairments?Impairment of a person's physical, mental, or emotional well-being; examples include the loss of a limb, vision loss, or memory loss. Activity restriction due to difficulties with vision, hearing, movement, or problem-solving. According to conventional usage, an impairment is a problem with a body component or organ, a disability is a functional restriction with reference to an activity, and a handicap is an obstacle to performing a certain role in life in comparison to peers. In order to determine if an asset is impaired, its predicted overall profit, cash flow, or other benefit is contrasted with its existing book value.

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the emergency department nurse is gathering initial data on a child suspected of epiglottitis. which is the nurse's highest priority?

Answers

The nurse's highest priority for children suspected of having epiglottitis is not having respiratory obstruction.

What is epiglottitis?

Epiglottitis is an infection of the epiglottis which can cause epiglottis dysfunction and swelling of the epiglottis. In severe cases, epiglottitis can cause life-threatening respiratory obstruction.

Bacterial infection is the main cause of epiglottitis. Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae type B (Hib) are the types of bacteria that most often trigger inflammation of the epiglottis.

Some of these infections can cause the epiglottis to swell and block the passage of air into the respiratory tract, thus potentially causing death. Apart from infections, injuries to the throat can also cause inflammation and swelling of the epiglottis.

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a nurse is planning to teach a group who works at a local mall about proper use of automated extrenal defibrillators (aed). which points should the nurse emphasize

Answers

All AED users must receive training in using it, users must learn CPR, and general healthcare providers' monitoring is needed to assure adequate operation.

What is heart operation performed?

When a surgeon does surgical intervention, the chest is sliced open in order to access the heart. Medications are used to halt the heart since operating on the a heart beat is difficult. During surgery, a coronary bypass system maintains blood that is rich in oxygen circulating all throughout body.

Does heart surgery hurt?

Because comment surgery pain is a "soul" phenomena, it is worse in the initial 24 hours and gets progressively more severe over the following days. Individuals who have had open thoracic surgery have the highest pain.

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which are the two major risk factors for head and neck cancer especially when in combination

Answers

Answer:

Alcohol and tobacco use (including secondhand smoke and smokeless tobacco, called “chewing tobacco” or “snuff”) are the two most important risk factors for head and neck cancers, especially cancers of the oral cavity and hypopharynx.

a patient with a history of diabetes is confused and irritable. according to family members, he accidentally took too much insulin this morning and did not eat breakfast. since he is conscious with an intact gag reflex, medical direction orders you to administer oral glucose. which component of this situation best represents the indication for the medication?

Answers

A patient with a history of diabetes is confused and irritable. according to family members, he accidentally took too much insulin this morning and did not eat breakfast. since he is conscious with an intact gag reflex, medical direction orders you to administer oral glucose. Confusion and irritability of this situation  represents the indication for the medication.

Define medication?A medicine is a substance that is used in order to treat, diagnose, or prevent illness. Drug therapy is a significant area of medicine that depends on the science of pharmacology for ongoing development and on pharmacy for effective management. There are various classifications for drugs.Drugs are substances that are used to treat, halt, or prevent disease, lessen symptoms, or aid in the diagnosis of disorders. Thanks to improvements in medicine, doctors can now treat numerous ailments and save lives. Medicines today come from a variety of sources.The generic (or chemical) name is given as the first name. The producer, who has the drug's patent, chooses the brand name, which is typically something catchy.

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which patient condition would cause the nurse to question the use of neomycin for a patient with hepatic necephalopathy?

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The patient's condition that causes the nurse to question the use of neomycin for patients with hepatic encephalopathy is a slightly yellowish discoloration of the skin, weakness, lethargy, and no energy

What is hepatic encephalopathy?

Hepatic encephalopathy is a condition when a person experiences personality changes or neuropsychiatric disorders due to liver dysfunction conditions such as liver failure or even liver cirrhosis. Cirrhosis is a complication or advanced stage of various liver diseases. As a result of experiencing liver cirrhosis, a person's ammonia levels become high in the bloodstream and brain, causing hepatic encephalopathy.

The symptoms experienced are changes in skin color, trembling, weakness, fatigue, and lack of energy. Liver disorders can make the liver unable to remove ammonia and other harmful substances.

Thus Neomycin can be administered as a treatment for patients with hepatic encephalopathy. This drug is good for use as an intestinal antibiotic because it is active against intestinal bacteria.

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after 8 hours of typing, he notices that his wrists are stiff and very sore. the next morning, farhad begins to finish his paper, but soon finds his wrists hurt worse than last night. what is wrong?10) an elderly patient in a nursing home has recurrent episodes of fainting when he stands. an alert nurse notes that this occurs only when his room is fairly warm; on cold mornings, he has no difficulty. what is the cause of the fainting, and how does it relate to the autonomic nervous system and to room temperature?

Answers

He is suffering from tendinitis. tendonitis is inflammation of the tendon sheaths and is usually caused by over use.

How may typing-related wrist discomfort be treated?Ibuprofen or naproxen, both available over-the-counter, help reduce discomfort and swelling. To reduce wrist pain, a variety of typing pads, split keyboards, and wrist splints (braces) are available. These could reduce symptoms. Sprains or fractures from unexpected traumas are frequent causes of wrist discomfort. However, chronic issues including carpal tunnel syndrome, arthritis, and repetitive stress injuries can also cause wrist discomfort. Finding the precise reason of wrist discomfort might be challenging because there are so many possible causes.He has tendinitis, which is painful. Overuse is typically to blame for tendonitis, which is an inflammation of the tendon sheaths. The tendinitis might turn into a very dangerous ailment called carpal tunnel syndrome if he keeps using the keyboard inappropriately.

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He has tendinitis, which is painful. Overuse is typically to blame for tendonitis, which is an inflammation of the tendon sheaths.

How may typing-related wrist discomfort be treated?

Ibuprofen and naproxen, both over-the-counter medications, aid in reducing pain and swelling. There are numerous typing pads, split keyboards, & wrist splints (braces) available to help with wrist pain. These might lessen symptoms.

Unexpected traumas that result in sprains or fractures can induce wrist pain. However, persistent conditions including arthritis, carpal tunnel syndrome, and repetitive strain injuries can also irritate the wrists. Given the wide range of potential causes, determining the precise cause of wrist discomfort may be difficult.

He is suffering from painful tendinitis. Tendonitis, an inflammation of both the tendon sheaths, is frequently caused by overuse. If he continues using the keyboard incorrectly, the tendinitis might develop into the extremely deadly condition known as carpal tunnel syndrome.

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which medications, when prescribed for a client after a kidney transplant surgery, may require the client to visit a dentist? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.

Answers

Mycophenolate mofetil (Cell Kept) is used in conjunction with other immunosuppressant medications to prevent transplant rejection. It will be taken every day, inside the early morning and at night.

Kidney transplant: What is it?

Your abdominal incision would be closed using surgical staple, stitches, and surgical glue once the kidney has indeed been placed correctly.

A patient who's had advanced kidney disease has a kidney transplant, sometimes referred to as a renal transplant. Depending on the origin of the given organ, kidney transplantation is typically categorized as either a dead transplantation or an alive transplantation.

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