some antibitocs fail to kill/inhibit a pathogen simply because the microbe is naturally resistant to it. True or false

Answers

Answer 1

Because a pathogen has a built-in resistance to various antibiotics, they sometimes fail to kill or inhibit the pathogen.

Intrinsic resistance is the term used to describe how some bacteria, such as L-form bacteria and mycoplasma, are intrinsically resistant to antibiotics. This is conceivable because the exterior cell structure that antibiotics target, the cell wall, is absent from these bacteria. Bacteria with inherent antibiotic resistance lack any defense mechanisms or activities; instead, they simply aren't affected by the medication.

An organism that causes disease in another organism, particularly its host, is referred to as a pathogen. The five main groups of pathogenic organisms are bacteria, viruses, fungi, parasitic worms, and protozoa.

The response is accurate as a result.

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Related Questions

a coastline where bedrock is vigorously eroded as sea level rises would most likely be characterized by...

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Accelerated coastal processes like erosion can cause rapid changes to the coastline as the sea level rises.

Low-lying wetlands and dry land become submerged as a result of rising sea levels, which also erode shorelines, cause coastal flooding, and increase the flow of salt water into estuaries and surrounding groundwater aquifers. Additionally, as sea levels rise, storm damage to coastal infrastructure increases. Whether the sea rises or decreases, sea level change affects a variety of coastal landforms and processes. This might hasten the erosion of cliff walls or hasten the formation of bars and spits. agricultural practices, habitat degradation, and deforestation. Roots that stabilize silt and soil are disturbed by tree and plant removal, field plows, and livestock overgrazing. These human actions can accelerate erosion rates 10 to 100 times that of non-human geology processes.

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______lowers blood sugar levels;_______raises the level of blood sugar.
A. Insulin; glucagon
B. Glucocorticoids; insulin
C. Glucagon; glucocorticoids
D. Glucagon; insulin

Answers

Insulin lowers the blood sugar levels; whereas glucagon raises the levels of blood sugar. Thus, the correct option is A.

What is Blood sugar?

Blood sugar or blood glucose is the main sugar which is found in the blood. It comes from the food we eat, and is the body's main source of energy. Blood carries glucose to all the different cells which are present in the body to use for producing energy.

Two hormones are associated with the homeostasis of blood sugar level in the body, these are insulin and glucagon. Insulin is a hormone secreted by the cells of pancreas, it is responsible for lowering the blood sugar level while the hormone glucagon is responsible for increasing the level of blood sugar by breaking food particles to produce glucose from it.

Therefore, the correct option is A.

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cell membranes are selectively permeable, meaning that only certain molecules or ions are able to pass through it via diffusion. True or False ?

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True, the membrane which allows only certain substances to pass through, but does not allow others to pass through it is called a selectively permeable membrane

Semipermeable membrane is a kind of organic or synthetic, polymeric membrane with a purpose to allow certain molecules or ions to skip thru it by osmosis. The rate of passage depends on the pressure, concentration, and temperature of the molecules or solutes on both side, in addition to the permeability of the membrane to every solute. relying on the membrane and the solute, permeability may rely upon solute size, solubility, properties. How the membrane is constructed to be selective in its permeability will decide the charge and the permeability. Many natural and synthetic materials which are as an alternative thick are also semipermeable. One example of this is the thin film at the inside of the egg.

Schematic of semipermeable membrane all through hemodialysis, where blood is red, dialysing fluid is blue, and the membrane is yellow.

organic membranes are selectively permeable,[ with the passage of molecules managed by means of facilitated diffusion, passive transport or lively transport regulated by way of proteins embedded inside the membrane.

For example, the plasma membrane of eukaryotic cells.

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what do you mean by colle's fracture?​

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HOPE IT HELPS!!!!!!

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Answer:

colles' fracture is a bone injury.

Explanation:

A colles' fracture is a type of fracture of the distal forearm in which the broken end of the radius is bent backwards.

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Which macromolecule provides the blueprint for living things by storing and transmitting genetic information?; What macromolecule serves as the storage and transmission of genetic information?; What type of molecule is the blueprint of living organisms?; Which Nucleic acid is the blueprint?

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Nucleic acids are the most important macromolecules for the continuity of life. They carry the genetic blueprint of a cell and carry instructions for the functioning of the cell.Nucleic acids are, a large biomolecules that play essential roles in all cells and viruses. A major function of nucleic acids involves the storage and expression of genomic information. Deoxyribonucleic acid is called the blueprint of life because it contains the instructions needed for an organism to grow, develop, survive and reproduce. DNA does this by controlling protein synthesis.DNA is a molecule which contains our genetic code, the blueprint of life, and this is a part of nucleic acids.

How does the structure of DNA store the blueprint for living things?The information in DNA is stored as a code made up of four chemical bases, they are : adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C), and thymine (T). Human DNA consists of about 3 billion bases, and more than 99 percent of those bases are the same in all people.Blueprints in biology is, DNA or deoxyribonucleic acid is the blueprint of the body designs of all living organisms. It carries genetic information and is the information source for protein synthesis for creating body designs. Hence, any modifications in protein synthesis would alter body designs.

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Which of the following components are found both in a PCR reaction AND in a naturally occurring cell during DNA replication? Select all that apply. O A Nucleotides O B Helicase enzymes O C. DNA to be replicated O D Polymerase O E. Primers

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Nucleotides, DNA to be replicated, Polymerase, Primers are found both in a PCR reaction AND in a naturally occurring cell during the replication of DNA.

Cells duplicate their genome's DNA through a process known as DNA replication. Before dividing, a cell must copy (or duplicate) its entire genome in order to make sure that each daughter cell will have a full genome.

Probably one of DNA's most amazing tricks is DNA replication. If you give it some thought, every cell contains all of the DNA needed to produce every other cell. And eventually, we have trillions of cells, which began as just one cell. Additionally, during the process of cell division, each piece of information that is present in a cell must be precisely copied.

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Post-event meals should accomplish which of the following? a. replenish lost fluid and electrolytes
b. provide protein for building and repairing muscle tissue
c. all of these should be accomplished by a post-event meal
d. replenish glycogen stores

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Replenish lost fluid and electrolytes, provide protein for building and repairing muscle tissue replenish glycogen stores should be accomplished by a post-event meal. So the correct option is C.

What are post-event meals?

Post-event meals are those meals that athletes have after they have had a competition or training. Having this meal will help to replenish glycogen stores and recover the electrolytes spent in the event. Recovering this will protect the body from taking energy from the built muscles and will also help repair muscle tissue.

Therefore, we can confirm that the correct option is C. all of these should be accomplished by a post-event meal.

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Why is there a limited vegetation in the tundra Brainly?; What is the limited vegetation in the tundra?; Why is biodiversity limited in the tundra?; Why does the tundra have more vegetation than the desert?

Answers

The area's upper soil surface is frozen into a rock-like form vegetation in the tundra  throughout the entire year due to the cold.

Why does the tundra have so little vegetation?

Small shrubs, grasses, mosses, sedges, and lichens, which are all better suited to surviving tundra conditions, make up the patchy, low-to-the-ground vegetation of the tundra.

Why is tundra biodiversity so low?

Arctic tundra is largely uniform and has low biodiversity as a result of its recent glacial history, whereas alpine tundra is significantly more diversified and has higher biodiversity as a result of its fragmentation on remote mountains. The chilly temperatures and brief growing season are the main causes of the sparse vegetation.

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Which of the options is NOT a reasonable concern about CRISPR-Cas9's ability to edit human cells?
A. Off-target cutting could lead to cancer.
B. Genetically altered plants could make it into the human food chain.
C. Edited genes could affect the future gene pool.
D. Any edits made in germ-line cells will be passed onto the offspring.

Answers

Option B, Genetically altered plants could make it into the human food chain is not a  reasonable concern about CRISPR-Cas9's ability to edit human cells.

Large DNA deletions at target locations caused by CRISPR/Cas9 are a significant safety concern. These substantial deletions can have a base-pair range human cells of several hundred to several thousand . It is yet unknown what process led to the formation of these significant deletions. 1) the extent to which CRISPR usage should be allowed; 2) access to CRISPR applications; and 3) if a regulatory framework (or frameworks) for clinical research involving human subjects should include all forms of human genome editing, including editing of the human cells.

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The _ includes the gathering of information such as periodontal pocket readings, furcations, tooth mobility, presence of exudate (pus), and gingival recession.a. medical historyb. dental charting and historyc. periodontal examination and chartingd. hygiene exam

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Option C,  periodontal examination and charting. The method of measuring pockets, or the area between a tooth and the gum tissue around it, is known as periodontal charting.

By measuring the distance between your teeth and the surrounding gum tissue, periodontal examination and charting keeps track of the condition of your gums. This knowledge is essential since it may provide light on the general condition of your jaw, tooth , and gums. It is a visual diagram that dental experts use to arrange data about your gums. A probe is a tooth tool that is used by your dentist or dental hygienist to gently enter this area. The most effective method for tooth identifying dental problems is periodontal examination and charting .

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the p wave and subsequent atrial contraction are evident during the blank phase of the cardiac cycle.

Answers

The p wave and subsequent atrial contraction can be seen during the cardiac cycle's Ventricular Ejection phase.

What is cardiac called?

Cardiovascular (CV) - Having to do with the circulation system's heart and blood vessels. Heart and blood vessel disorders are collectively referred to as cardiovascular disease (CVD) (vascular system). may also be referred to as cardiac may also be referred to as cardiac disease.

What is difference between heart and cardiac?

In conclusion, a heart attack and a cardiac arrest are two distinct medical conditions. A cardiac arrest occurs when the entire heart stops beating, as opposed to a heart attack, that happens when the blood supply to a portion of the heart is cut off.

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How will the expanding use of cochlear implants affect individuals who are deaf or hard of hearing?

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An electrical device that helps hearing is a cochlear implant. It may be a possibility for those who are unable to hear effectively with hearing aids due to severe hearing loss brought on by inner-ear damage.

What is cochlear implant?

A cochlear implant bypasses damaged areas of the ear to send sound impulses to the hearing (auditory) nerve, as contrast to hearing aids which amplify sound.

A behind-the-ear sound processor is used with cochlear implants. The receiver is implanted behind the ear and receives sound signals from the processor by sending them to the receiver. The impulses are sent from the receiver to electrodes inserted in the inner ear's snail-shaped structure (cochlea).

The auditory nerve is stimulated by the signals, which subsequently sends the signals to the brain.

Therefore, An electrical device that helps hearing is a cochlear implant. It may be a possibility for those who are unable to hear effectively with hearing aids due to severe hearing loss brought on by inner-ear damage.

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What are the 3 types of genetic modification?

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Different Techniques for Genetically Modifying Crops Customary Crop Modification Genetic manipulation. edit a genome.

Which of the three forms of genetic alteration are they?

Traditional genetic modification techniques have included selection, mutagenesis, conjugation, and protoplast fusion, the last of which is comparable to somatic hybridization in plant systems. These techniques have been used, especially for microbial starter cultures.

What variety of genetic modification exists?

The Ohio State University states that there are four main ways to genetically engineer crops: Breeding with preference: In order to create offspring with particular traits, two plant strains are introduced and crossed. Affected genes range in number from 10,000 to 300,000. creating pharmaceuticals. the creation of model creatures that reflect human circumstances, the use of genes. hormones produced by humans.

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FILL IN THE BLANK. autoregulation, neural regulation, and hormonal regulation are mechanisms used to control ___, which is the volume of filtrate produced by all of the nephrons every minute.

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Autoregulation, neuro-regulation, and hormonal regulation are the mechanisms used to control the GFR, the amount of filtrate produced by every nephron per minute.

What do you mean by GFR?

Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is a test to measure kidney function and determine kidney disease's stage. The medical team can make calculations based on blood creatinine test results, age, height, and gender.

What does low GFR mean?

A low GFR means that your kidneys are not filtering your blood properly. If GFR is below 60, it means kidney disease. A number less than 15 indicates kidney failure and requires dialysis or a kidney transplant.

Low GFR caused by dehydration and use of  NSAIDs (Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs), which inhibit synthesis of prostaglandin, resulting in unhindered intrarenal vasoconstriction leading to reduced GFR.

What foods restore kidney function?

Chili pepper. It's also low in potassium, but rich in flavor. Cauliflower. Rich in vitamin C, folic acid and fiber, cauliflower helps the body fight toxins. Blueberry. Garlic. Fish. Red grapes. Olive oil.

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Please match the cell to the statement that most accurately describes its main function to test your understanding of blood cells that function in nonspecific immunity.1. Main phagocytes in circulation2. Like eosinophils, they are involved in inflammation and allergic reactions3. Phagocytic cells that leave circulation and differentiate into macrophages4. Display no antigen specificity but are active against tumor and virally infected cellsNeutrophilsBasophilsMonocytesNatural killer cells

Answers

The correct match to the given statements which describes its main function to test my understanding of blood cells are- 1)Neutrophils  2)Basophils 3)Monocytes  4)Natural killer cells

A blood cells, likewise called a hematopoietic cell, hemocyte, or hematocyte, is a phone created through hematopoiesis and tracked down basically in the blood. Significant sorts of platelets incorporate red platelets (erythrocytes), white platelets (leukocytes), and platelets (thrombocytes).

Neutrophils can be portrayed as the most plentiful kind of white platelets. They make up to 55%-75% of the invulnerable framework.

Basophils can be portrayed as white platelets which are made in the bone marrow.

Monocytes can be portrayed as white platelets which are the biggest and separate into macrophages and myeloid heredity dendritic cells.

Regular executioner cells can be portrayed as white platelets which assume a part in giving natural resistance.

Hence, the correct matches for statement 1)Neutrophils, 2)Basophils 3)Monocytes 4)Natural killer cells.

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(Complete question) is:

Please match the cell to the statement that most accurately describes its main function to test your understanding of blood cells that function in nonspecific immunity.

1. Main phagocytes in circulation

2. Like eosinophils, they are involved in inflammation and allergic reactions

3. Phagocytic cells that leave circulation and differentiate into macrophages

4. Display no antigen specificity but are active against tumor and virally infected cells

Options are

1)Neutrophils

2)Basophils

3)Natural killer cells

4)Monocytes

which of the following is not a method of replicating pores? stippling moist ligature lintless gauze coarse- textured paper hand towel prev submit

Answers

The method of not replicating pores that is listed in the options provided is: stippling.

What are the methods of replicating pores?

Replicating pores, which refers to the process of creating a replica or copy of a porous surface. Moist ligature is a method of replicating pores in which a moistened piece of thread or string is pressed against the surface to be replicated. Lintless gauze is a type of fine, smooth gauze that can be used to replicate pores by pressing it against the surface. Coarse-textured paper or a hand towel can also be used to replicate pores by pressing them against the surface.

Stippling, on the other hand, is a technique used to create a textured or dotted effect in art or design. It involves the use of small, repeated dots or strokes to create a visual texture or pattern. While stippling can be used to replicate some types of textures, it is not typically used to replicate pores in scientific or technical contexts.

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which of the following would be considered environmental factors that could affect a quantitative trait?

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The expression of an animal's genes ultimately determines its phenotype, which is influenced by environmental factors like as nutrition, temperature, oxygen levels, humidity, light cycles, and the presence of mutagens.

Because of alterations in the environment, as well as the physiological and morphological changes brought on by ageing, an individual's phenotype may change continuously throughout their lifetime. As the availability of food, for example, affects size, different environments can both change the expression of similar genotypes and impact how inherited features develop (for example, twins maturing in dissimilar families). Natural selection, which initially affects individuals and favors the survival of those creatures with phenotypes most adapted to their existing settings, is based on the effect of the environment in nature.

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Would a mutation in a gene cause a change in the sequence of amino acids in a protein?; What may happen when a mutation changes the amino acid sequence of a protein?; Why do some mutations not result in a changed amino acid sequence?; How does mutation result to change in the structure and function of a protein?

Answers

Mutations, which are modifications to a gene's DNA sequence, can sometimes alter the amino acid sequence of the protein for which the gene codes.

What occurs when an amino acid in a protein is altered by a mutation?

Although a mutation at specific places, such as conserved residues, might affect both the protein's structure and function, it is not always the case that a mutation in the amino acid sequence would modify a protein's structure.

What results from changing the amino acid sequence (mutations)?

A protein's function may vary or disappear totally if just one amino acid in its sequence is altered. The building blocks of proteins are amino acids.

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mitosis; interphase; what is the longest stage of the cell cycle called; phases of mitosis; g0 phase of cell cycle; g1 phase of cell cycle; s phase of cell cycle

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The G1 phase (cell growth) precedes the S phase (DNA synthesis) and the G2 phase (cell growth) during interphase.

The mitotic phase, which consists of mitosis and cytokinesis and results in the formation of two daughter cells, occurs at the conclusion of the interphase.

The cell grows physically larger, copies organelles, and produces the molecular building blocks it will require in subsequent steps during the G1 phase, also known as the first gap phase. Phase S The cell's nucleus produces a complete copy of the DNA during the S phase. Additionally, it duplicates the centrosome, a microtubule-organizing structure. During the M phase, the centrosomes aid in the separation of DNA.

The phase G2 The cell expands produces proteins and organelles and begins to reorganize its contents in preparation for mitosis during the second gap phase, or G2 phase. When mitosis begins, the G2 phase ends.

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coral bleaching is a very serious problem that is increasing at an alarming rate. which of the following statements best describes coral bleaching?

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Elevated temperature is the cause of coral bleaching, which is the loss of symbiotic algae.

When exposed to high temperatures, all marine species that have zooxanthellae lose their symbiotic algae. One of two ways that temperature can cause bleaching is through brief, moderately increased temperature exposure (1.5–2.0°C above average summertime temperatures for several days) or through prolonged, mildly increased temperature exposure (1.0–1.5°C above average for 3–4 weeks after the end of the typical summer warm season). bleached corals seem dead and white. The spectral appearance is misleading. The coral's hue is not chalky because it has died; rather, it is transparent because it lacks the coloring that is provided by the symbiotic algae.

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it is particularly important for pregnant women to carefully wash their hands and take other precautions if they have a pet cat and are changing the litter box. an organism occasionally carried by cats, pigs, and sheep can infect humans and pass from mother to child in utero, resulting in severe symptoms in the growing child. microscopic examination of this single-celled organism shows a nucleus and other visible cellular organelles. this pathogenic organism is the
1. plant, Plasmodium vivax
2. protist, Plasmodium vivax
3. plant, Toxoplasma gondii
4. protist, Toxoplasma gondii

Answers

Option 1. plant, Plasmodium vivax.

A pathogenic organism is an organism that is able to inflict diseases on a host man or woman. the arena fitness company indexed among dangers that may be present in meals probably dangerous bacteria, viruses, toxins, parasites, and chemicals.

Pathogenic organisms are of five principal types: viruses, bacteria, fungi, protozoa, and worms. some common pathogens in every organization are listed in the column at the right. Infectious retailers can grow in various frame cubicles.

Pathogens encompass viruses, bacteria, fungi, and parasites that invade the body and can motivate fitness problems. Anthrax, HIV, Epstein-Barr virus, and the Zika virus, amongst many others, are examples of pathogens that cause serious sicknesses.

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Sort the characteristics as belonging to the first half of the pathway that requires energy or to the second half of the pathway that produces energy during glycolysis:- ATP is utilized- Six-carbon compounds start the pathway- Overall reaction: glucose --> dihydroxyacetone phosphate + glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate- ATP is synthesized- Three-carbon compounds start the pathway- NADH + H+ is produced- Overall reaction: dihydroxyacetone phosphate + glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate --> pyruvate

Answers

The correct ordering of characteristics of first half of the pathway that produces energy during glycolysis is

ATP is utilized- Six-carbon compounds start the pathway.Overall reaction: glucose --> dihydroxyacetone phosphate + glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate- ATP is synthesized- Three-carbon compounds start the pathway- NADH + H+ is produced- Overall reaction: dihydroxyacetone phosphate + glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate --> pyruvate

The steps involved in glycolysis are:

The most vital phase in glycolysis  is catalyzed by hexokinase, a protein with expansive particularity that catalyzes the phosphorylation of six-carbon sugars. Hexokinase phosphorylates glucose using ATP as the source of the phosphate, producing glucose-6-phosphate, a more reactive form of glucose.In the second step of glycolysis, an isomerase changes over glucose-6-phosphate into one of its isomers, fructose-6-phosphateThe third step is the phosphorylation of fructose-6-phosphate, catalyzed by the catalyst phosphofructokinase. A second ATP molecule donates a high-energy phosphate to fructose-6-phosphate, producing fructose-1,6-bisphosphateThe fourth move toward glycolysis utilizes a catalyst, aldolase, to divide 1,6-bisphosphateIn the fifth step, an isomerase changes the dihydroxyacetone-phosphate into its isomer, glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate.

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FILL IN THE BLANK. you step on a sharp object pick up your foot and balanca on the opposite lefg this is blank reflex also known as a ____reflex

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This reflexive response is known as the withdrawal reflex, which is the automatic withholding of a limb from a painful stimulation.

What happens if we step with your left leg on a sharp object?

The nerves in your foot, for instance, can convey a pain signal to your brain if you walk on something sharp. Your brain sends a second signal down your spinal cord to the nerves in your leg and foot muscles when it detects danger, instructing them to draw away from the object.

Which four types of reflexes are there?

A stretch reflex, Golgi tendon reflex, crossed extensor reflex, and withdrawal reflex are a few examples of the various types of reflexes.

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clinical microbiologists often obtain pure cultures of a pathogen for use in identification procedures by utilizing sterile techniques and

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Clinical microbiologists often obtain pure cultures of a pathogen for use in identification procedures by utilizing sterile techniques and specialized media.

In microbiology, pure culture is a laboratory culture that contains a single species of organism. It allows scientists to study certain species without the worry of contamination from other organisms.

To obtain pure culture, one must spread bacteria on the surface of a solid medium so a single cell occupies an isolated part of the surface. That cell will then go through repeated multiplication, producing a colony of similar cells. To make sure that the obtained culture is pure, microbiologist use sterile techniques (sterile environment and tools used) as well as a specialized medium.

The question above are incomplete, but most likely the completed version is as follows:

Clinical microbiologists often obtain pure cultures of a pathogen for use identification procedures by (utilizing using) sterile techniques and ______ media.

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suppose that three loci, each with two alleles (a and a, b and b, c and c), determine the differences in height between two homozygous strains of a plant. these genes are additive and equal in their effects on plant height. one strain (aa bb cc) is 10 cm in height. the other strain (aa bb cc) is 22 cm in height. the two strains are crossed, and the resulting f1 are interbred to produce f2 progeny. match the f2 phenotypes and expected proportions of progeny Phenotype (Height) Proportion of F2 10 cm 12 cm 14 cm 16 cm 18 cm 20 cm 22 cm 12/64 15/64 20/64 36/64 1/64 6/64

Answers

The differences in height between two homozygous strains of a plant are AABBCC strain is 12 cm taller than aabbcc strain.

As a result, each dominant allele increases height by 2 cm over the baseline of 10 cm for the all-recessive strain. The genotype AaBbCc F1 will measure 10 + 6 = 16 cm. Given that each dominant allele is 2 cm, the six comes from the equation 2 * 3.

6 | 10+(2*6) = 22 | 1/64

5 | 10+(2*5) = 20 | 6/64

4 | 10+(2*4) = 18 | 15/64

3 | 10+(2*3) = 16 | 20/64

2 | 10+(2*2) = 14 | 15/64

1 | 10+(2*1) = 12 | 6/64

0 | 10+(2*0) = 10 | 1/64

A person is considered to be homozygous for a gene if they inherit two identical copies of it. A genotype with separate alleles, on the other hand, is referred to as heterozygous. Recessive traits, like red hair or blue eyes, are always present in homozygous individuals.

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Which statement describes a process that occurs in mitochondria?

Answers

All organisms' mitochondria participate in cellular respiration, which is a process. Simple sugars are broken down into carbon dioxide and water during this process, releasing energy in the form of adenosine triphosphate (ATP).

What action takes place within mitochondria?

Mitochondria use oxygen present inside the cell to transform chemical energy from meals into energy the host cell can use. The procedure, known as oxidative phosphorylation, takes place inside mitochondria.

What takes place inside the mitochondria?

Only in the mitochondria can oxygen and food molecules come together in a living thing. The substance can be digested once oxygen is supplied. They are energetic organelles that keep the cell active.

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which statement is false regarding e2fs

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The statement that is false is 2fs is taht they are lively while in affiliation with the retinoblastoma protein.

The maximum vital gene in retinoblastoma is the RB1 tumor suppressor gene. This gene makes a protein (pRb) that facilitates forestall cells from developing too quickly. Each mobileular usually has RB1 genes. As lengthy as a retinal cellular has as a minimum one RB1 gene that works because it should, it's going to now no longer shape a retinoblastoma.

In non-cancerous cells, anti-proliferative alerts spark off pRb via way of means of selling its dephosphorylation via way of means of serine and threonine kind I phosphoprotein phosphatases and via way of means of inhibiting the Cyclin-CDK complexes that phosphorylate pRb. This activation permits pRb to dam development to S-phase, selling access to G0 instead.

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Which statement about the apparent brightness of the stars in the night sky is not true?

A. Stars that appear brighter are bigger than stars that do not appear as bright.
B. A large star can appear less bright than a small star if it is farther away from Earth.
C. Stars that appear less bright may be smaller than stars that appear brighter.
D. A small star can appear brighter than a large star if it is closer to Earth.

Answers

From the above options none of them is wrong concerning the apparent  brightness of the stars in the night sky is.

what is a star?

A star is an astronomical object made up of a luminescent plasma spheroid that is held together by gravity. The Sun is the closest star to Earth. However, because to their enormous distances from Earth, many additional stars that are visible to the unaided eye at night seem like stationary points of light.

Types of star

some of the types of stars are:

Protostar: A protostar is what you have before a star forms. ...T Tauri Star:Main Sequence Star:Red Giant Star:White Dwarf Star: Red Dwarf Star: Neutron Stars: Supergiant Stars:

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in blood vessels innervated by only sympathetic axons, increased sympathetic stimulation causes the vessels to while decreased sympathetic stimulation causes the vessels to dilate.

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Increased sympathetic stimulation causes blood vessels to constrict, whereas decreased sympathetic stimulation causes blood vessels to vasodilate, in blood vessels that are only innervated by sympathetic axons.

Sympathetic stimulation of blood vessels causes arteries & arterioles (resistance vessels) to contract, increasing vascular resistance and reducing distal blood flow. The increasing vascular resistance that results from this across the body raises arterial pressure. When this happens, the sympathetic nervous system kicks in to assist you escape danger by increasing your heart rate, pumping more blood to regions of your body that need it, and other responses. Vasoconstriction that raises arterial blood pressure is caused by increased vascular sympathetic activity, which also increases the tone of the vascular smooth muscle. Vascular sympathetic activity is reduced, which causes the blood vessels to expand and lower blood pressure.

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What does succession do for an ecosystem?; How does succession help the ecosystem recover?; What is succession biology ?; Does ecological succession affect ecosystems?

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Ecological succession is the gradual change in the environmental conditions due to which new plants and animal species originate over time and space.

Succession process enables emergence of new organisms in primary succession and the development that occurs when biotic community begins to stabilize itself in that region. It helps the ecosystem by increasing the diversity of organisms which are present in the ecosystem and helps to restore the natural balance. Succession biology is the progressive change that happens in a ecological community over a period of time. For example, conversion of barren land to forest or grassland and vice versa. Ecological succession does affect ecosystems because the emergence of new biotic components will cause the place to have biodiversity and other natural processes to happen smoothly.

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