Only some of the seats in an elected body are up for election at the same time in elections that are known as staggered elections.
What are staggered elections in the Senate?Elections that are staggered only have some of the seats in an elected body up for election at the same time. For instance, while all US senators are elected at the same time, they each serve a six-year term. Instead, contests for one-third of the Senate's seats are contested every two years.
In order to allow for one-third elections every two years, the seats of the senators from the first class must be vacated at the end of the second year, those from the second class at the end of the fourth year, and those from the third class at the end of the sixth year. If vacancies occur due to resignation, these dates must also be observed.
Therefore, the correct answer is option e) help prevent takeovers.
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question a resident of city a (located in the northern district of state a) brought a diversity action against a resident of city b (located in the eastern district of state b). the cause of action arose in city b. the defendant commutes daily from his home in city b to his office in city a and would find it much more convenient to litigate the action there than in city c, where the appropriate court for the eastern district of state b is located. the plaintiff would also find it more convenient to litigate in city a, but will go to city c if necessary. may the action be litigated in city a?
It is possible that the diversity action brought by the resident of City A against the resident of City B could be litigated in City A, but it would depend on the specific circumstances of the case and the rules of the court where the action is brought.
What are the some jurisdiction points to consider?The general rule in cases involving diversity jurisdiction is that the action must be brought in the district where the defendant resides.However, there may be exceptions to this rule if the defendant is also a resident of the district where the cause of action arose.In this case, the defendant resides in City B, which is located in the Eastern District of State B, and the cause of action arose in City B.The defendant's daily commute from City B to City A may be considered as evidence that they are also a resident of the district where the action is brought.If the defendant is considered a resident of the district where the action is brought, the court may have discretion to hear the case in City A to accommodate the defendant's convenience.The plaintiff's preference to litigate in City A also could be taken into account, but the defendant's convenience should be given greater weight.In any case, the final decision would be up to the court where the action is brought.It is worth noting that the final decision would be subject to the specific jurisdiction of the court and the rules of the court where the action is brought. It is always best to consult with a lawyer familiar with the jurisdiction before making any assumptions.To learn more about jurisdiction refer:
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Which section of the US Constitution has the LEAST relevance for modern judicial decisions, since the topic it concerns is only of historical concern?
A. Articles 1-3
B. Articles 4-6
C. Article 7
D. Bill of Rights
'Article 7' of the US Constitution has the least relevance for modern judicial decisions.
What do you mean by the US Constitution?
The Constitution of the United States basically is the supreme law of the United States of America. It is the foundation of the federal government of the United States and is the basis for the powers of the federal government, the relationship between the federal government and the states, and the rights of citizens. The Constitution was written in the year 1787 and ratified in 1788.
Article 7 of the US Constitution states that ratifications of the Constitution by nine of the thirteen original states would be sufficient to make it “the supreme Law of the Land.” This article has little relevance for modern judicial decisions because it was relevant only during the initial formation of the United States and no longer applies to modern legal proceedings.
Hence, option C is correct.
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Ursula’s friend Chandra bought a new dress. Ursula thinks the dress is ugly. Chandra asks for Ursula’s opinion of the dress. Ursula knows Chandra will almost never wear the dress and thinks there’s no harm in her thinking it looks good. Ursula decides that since the truth will only upset Chandra, she instead says that the dress is “unique.” In Ursula’s mind, there’s no real harm in lying, if it helps make her friend happy. What ethical decision-making principle did Ursula MOST LIKELY rely on in this scenario?
A. utilitarianism
B. virtue
C. rights
D. fairness and justice
According to the utilitarianism concept, a deed is ethically justified if it results in the greatest good for the largest number of people.
What is the utilitarian method of making ethical decisions?
The ethical course of action, according to utilitarianism, a results-based philosophy, is the one that results in the greatest balance of good over harm for the greatest number of stakeholders. It necessitates a precise assessment of both the significance and possibility of a potential outcome.
What are the principles of justice or fairness?
Aim for justice and fairness. Which course of conduct does not favor anyone and treats everyone equally, unless there is a morally acceptable reason not to? This method allows the person the chance to consider whether the activity is just to the people.
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2. What does the Constitution do?
true/false. generally, american indian and alaskan native peoples abstain more and have fewer regular drinkers than most other populations, but those who do drink are more likely to drink heavily and have serious problems.
True. American indian and alaskan native peoples abstain more and have fewer regular drinkers than most other populations, but those who do drink are more likely to drink heavily and have serious problems.
Researchers discovered that while heavy and binge consumption rates were comparable between Native Americans and white peers, Indian Americans were more likely to completely abstain from alcohol. According to Teshia Solomon, head of the University of Arizona's Native American Training and Research Center, "these findings allow us to get away of the caricature of 'the intoxicated Indian' that has lasted for several years in the news and in wider public thought." Native Americans made up about 20 per cent of binge drinkers, or people who consumed more than four drinks in a single day. Approximately 8.3 % of Native Americans are engaged in heavy drinking, also known as continuous binge drinking. Nearly half of Native Americans and 43 percent of whites reported not drinking any alcohol in the previous month, correspondingly.
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FILL IN THE BLANKS. When it comes to lawyers and other professionals, evidence of custom is ________________________________ as evidence to establish the proper standard of care, and such evidence is _________________________.
When it comes to lawyers and other professionals, evidence of custom is standard of care as evidence to establish the proper standard of care, and such evidence is custom.
Acceptable proof A form of evidence that judges let attorneys to present in court is known as admissible evidence. Judges base their decision on relevance, authenticity, and worth. Acceptable evidence is factual, specific to the issue, and has more weight than other factors like bias or shock value. The following are 21 forms of evidence used in jury trials that may have an impact on a case: 1. Acceptable proof A form of evidence that judges let attorneys to present in court is known as admissible evidence. Judges base their decision on relevance, authenticity, and worth. The administration of decisions is thought to be centred on the lawyers of the law.
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true/false. progressives came mostly from the political radicals, such as anarchists and socialists political conservative class middle-class of reporters and working city dwellers recent immigrants
True, Progressives primarily emerged from the ranks of political radicals, including anarchists and socialists, political conservatives from the middle class, journalists, and recent immigrants who were working-class city dwellers.
Progressives believe that by political activity, human societies may be improved. Progressivism is a political philosophy that aims to improve social reform based on alleged improvements in science, technology, economic development, and social organization. Adherents believe that progressivism can be applied to all human communities and work to disseminate this belief. The Age of Enlightenment saw the rise of progressivism, which was motivated by the idea that new empirical knowledge was being used to manage society more effectively in Europe. Progressivism is frequently equated in contemporary political discourse with social liberalism, a left-leaning form of liberalism, as opposed to the right-leaning neoliberalism, which combines support for a mixed economy with cultural liberalism. An organization that calls itself progressive in the twenty-first century is "a social or political movement that seeks to represent the interests of common people through political reform and the backing of government activities."
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under the taxpayer relief act of 1997, joint filers can qualify up to how much in tax exemptions?
The Taxpayer Relief Act of 1997 allows joint filers to qualify for certain tax exemptions. Here are some key points about the exemptions:
How much in tax exemption under the taxpayer relief act of 1997?The act increased the amount of the standard deduction for joint filers to twice the amount for single filers.It also increased the amount of the personal exemption for joint filers to twice the amount for single filers.The act also established a new $500 nonrefundable credit for certain taxpayers who are age 65 or older, or who are retired on permanent and total disability.It also increased the amount of the child tax credit for joint filers.Joint filers can also qualify for other tax benefits such as earned income credit, child and dependent care credit and education credit.Please note that the exact amount of exemptions and credits will vary depending on the specific tax laws in effect at the time of filing and the individual's tax situation. It is always recommended to consult with a tax professional or use tax software to ensure you are claiming the correct exemptions and credits.To learn more about tax refer:
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which of the following statements about just-in-time (jit) systems is/are correct? multiple select question. jit is often used to describe lean systems. conversion to jit systems entail some risk. jit systems require minimal coordination and effort. jit systems are demand driven.
Using a just-in-time (JIT) inventory system, a business can get products as soon as feasible before they are actually needed.
What is just-in-time JIT system list out its main benefits?In a just-in-time (JIT) inventory system, products are delivered to a business as close to the time of real need as is feasible. As a result, if an auto assembly factory wants to install airbags, it doesn't have a supply on hand; instead, it gets them as the vehicles pass through the assembly line.
avoidance of overproduction reducing transportation expenses and wait times. reducing resource consumption by streamlining your production processes lowering the amount of money that is invested in shares.
Reduce waste, boost cash flow, increase flexibility, make the most of human resources, and promote team empowerment with just-in-time inventory management. Companies who are adept at JIT inventory management improve profitability by minimizing stock investment. To manage inventory, they employ data.
Therefore, the correct answer are:
JIT systems are demand driven,
JIT is often used to describe Lean systems,
Conversion to JIT systems entail some risk.
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which of the following conditions is/are not necessary to justify the use of t procedures in a significance test for the slope of a regression line?
The correct response is D. I and II only. The following circumstances would be necessary to support the use of t for the significance test: l and ll only
The results of statistical tests for statistical significance show whether apparent disparities in assessment results are the product of sampling mistake or random chance. Because they don't represent actual differences, such "insignificant" results ought to be disregarded. ("Significance" in this context does not imply any assessment of absolute magnitude or instructional applicability. It merely relates to the difference's statistical makeup and suggests that it is significant enough to mention.) Select the report you are interested in, then select the Significance Test tab. You must first choose the variable you want to test and the standard by which you want to test it. It must have more than one value since you will compare or "look across" the range of values for the criterion. For instance, you can examine various years or jurisdictions. You may, for instance, search for a variable across jurisdictions or years. You can browse through all of the possible values for a certain variable, such as "male" and "female" within "gender." Following the selection of the primary criterion, each additional criterion must have a single value.
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Which of the following conditions is/are necessary to justify the use of t procedures in a significance test for the slope of a regression line? (4 points)
I. For each given value of x, the values of the response variable y are Normally distributed.
II. For each given value of x, the values of the response variable y are independent.
III. For each given value of x, the standard deviation of y is the same.
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II only
E. I, II, and III
the doctrine of judicial review . group of answer choices is expressly provided for in the constitution holds that the supreme court possesses the authority to rule acts of congress unconstitutional is only used to issue nonbinding advisory opinions is a modern creation of activist judges from the civil rights era
The Supreme Court's capacity to declare a legislative or executive act to be in violation of the Constitution through judicial review is its most well-known authority.
Why was the judicial review important?Judicial review, or the Court's capacity to declare a legislative or executive act to be in violation of the Constitution, is the most well-known power of the Supreme Court. However, this power is not contained in the Constitution's text. In Marbury v. Madison, the court articulated this theory (1803).
A statute, a treaty, or an administrative regulation may be subject to judicial review, which is the process through which a court determines whether it is constitutional or consistent with other laws. Speeches and arguments made by a lawyer in support of or against a particular legal remedy before a court.
Considering that judicial review has the authority to declare that any municipal, state, or federal laws or activities that are in violation with the Constitution are invalid.
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which of the following are reasons for rising automation? multiple select question. advances in automation poor safety in developing countries low labor costs in developing countries shorter domestic transportation times
Shorter domestic transportation times are reasons for rising automation.
What domestic transportation?Transport inside a nation's boundaries refers to the movement of people or products. The means of transportation, whether by air or land, do take place within the nation. International transport, on the other hand, refers to the movement of people and things across international boundaries.Transport inside a nation's boundaries refers to the movement of people or products. Using these methods, movement can take place on land or via air.Rising automation is a result of faster domestic transportation.A leading supplier of domestic transportation management systems is TruckSuvidha. While some businesses have fewer options for internally managed systems.To learn more about transportation refer to:
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A defendant is being tried for the murder of a woman who disappeared 10 years ago and has not been heard from since. Her body has never been found. The prosecutor has presented strong circumstantial evidence that she was murdered by the defendant. To help establish the fact of her death, the prosecutor has requested that the judge give the following instruction, based on a recognized presumption in the jurisdiction: "A person missing and not heard from in the last seven years shall be presumed to be deceased."
Is the instruction proper?
No, because a criminal defendant cannot be subjected to a mandatory pressumption regarding a charged crime's element.
a legal principle that requires judges and courts to draw a specific conclusion from a specific fact or piece of evidence, unless or until the veracity of that conclusion is refuted. According to the U.S. Supreme Court, it is against the law for a judge to teach a jury in a criminal proceeding that a certain aspect of the charged offense must be proven. The statement "must be considered" could be read by the jury as transferring the burden of evidence toward the defendant or as forcing the jury to identify a component of the claimed crime, either of which is not permitted, making the instruction illegal.
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if a driver of a motor vehicle is involved in a collision while operating a motor vehicle on a highway or street which resulted in damages in excess of $ , or injury or death, he/she must report it to the dmv within 10 days. 500 750 1000 1250
A traffic collision, also known as a motor vehicle collision, car accident, or car crash, happens when a vehicle strikes another vehicle.
What is collision in driving?If you hit a parked car or other object and can't find the owner, you have to leave a note with your contact information that is fastened to the object. then let the cops know.
Exposure to the possibility of harm or other loss is how risk is typically defined.
A traffic collision, also known as a motor vehicle collision, automobile accident, or car crash, happens when a car hits another car, a pedestrian, an animal, road debris, or another immovable object like a building, tree, pole, or another car.
In a collision, two forces with opposite directions and equal magnitudes act on each object, accelerating them simultaneously. Each object feels the same acceleration in collisions with objects of equal mass.
Therefore, the correct answer is option c) 1000.
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Alcohol intoxication can be used as a defense when...
a. it does not involve large amounts
b. it is involuntary
c. there is a designated driver
d. no injuries are sustained by victims
Alcohol intoxication can be used as a defense when it is involuntary.
The correct option is B.
Criminal law defendants may raise the defence of in-toxic-ation. After invoking this defence, a defendant argues that he shouldn't be held accountable for committing a crime because his mental health prevented him from having the essential mens rea i.e of mentalstate of mind while commuting the crime.
The consumption of alcohol, drugs, or other intoxicating substances without consent that is brought on through coercion or fraud is known as involuntary in-toxic-ation.
In many jurisdictions, involuntary state of alcoholic consumption is accepted as a legal defence against criminal charges.
In these jurisdictions, a defendant may introduce proof of his in-ebria-tion to demonstrate that he committed the crime while unaware of the wrongness of his actions and should not be held accountable.
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for u.s. forces, domestic sources of authority include which of the following? (select all that apply.)
Answer:
1. Judicial decisions
2. U.S. Constitution
3. Written statutes
Explanation:
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The Ohio Graduated Driver Licensing Law requires that drivers under the age of 18 years have at least 50 hours of driving practice, 10 of which must be at night. T / F
The given statement "Ohio Graduated Driver Licensing Law requires that drivers under the age of 18 years have at least 50 hours of driving practice, 10 of which must be at night is" True as per the Vehicle Code.
If you are 15 years and 6 months old in Ohio and pass a knowledge and eyesight screening, you can obtain a Temporary Instruction Permit Identification Card (TIPIC).
For an Ohio kid, the TIPIC is simply the start of the licensing process.
There are at least 50 hours required that you'll need to spend in driver's education in Ohio and the skills you'll need to master to pass the driving test.
Driver's education isn't the only prerequisite for acquiring a license, though.
In fact, you should get your Temporary Instruction Permit Identification Card (TIPIC), the learner's permit that enables you to practice driving, before you ever sign up for your driver's ed course.
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TRUE/FALSE. a driver whose vehicle becomes involved in a skid should not attempt to regain control of their vehicle.
False. A driver whose vehicle becomes involved in a skid should attempt to regain control of their vehicle. The easiest way to prevent skids is to slow down beforehand, anticipate lane changes, and accurate motions.
Skids frequently occur on slick surfaces because the lack of steering angle causes the drivers to abruptly lose control of their cars. The safest course of action in these circumstances is to apply harsh control inputs by spinning the vehicle until it completely slows down. Front -wheel skids and rear-wheel skids are the two types of skids. Rear wheel skids-When you press the brakes firmly enough to cause one or more wheels to lock up or when you accelerate quickly enough to spin the drive wheels, you experience a rear-wheel skid. Skids can also happen when you are moving too quickly around a bend or come upon a slippery area. Wheel skids-With a front drive vehicle, forceful braking or acceleration frequently results in front-wheel skids. You won't be able to steer if the front wheels start to slide. Due to their rarity, front-wheel skids might occasionally be viewed as more dangerous.
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A law passed by Congress and the adoption of a regulation by an agency are examples of which of the following? A. Interest groups B. Red tape C. Public policies D. Public opinion
A law passed by Congress and the adoption of a regulation by an agency are examples of Public policies .A system of rules, regulations, options for action, and financial priorities involving a specific subject that have been established by a governmental body or its representatives is known as public policy.
People and organizations frequently make an effort to influence public policy through advocacy, education, or the recruitment of interest groups. In Western-style democracies, public policy is clearly shaped differently from how it is in other systems of government. But it is logical to suppose that competing interest groups would always make an effort to sway policymakers in their direction. Law is a key component of public policy. The term "law" is used generally to refer to both legislative action and more relatively broad constitutional or foreign law principles.
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The FDA's regulations related to electronic records and electronic signatures (21 CFR Part 11) are intended to: Allow the use of electronic documents and signatures in the regulatory process for drugs and devices.
The FDA's regulations related to electronic records and electronic signatures (21 CFR Part 11) are intended to allow the use of electronic documents and signatures in the regulatory process for drugs and devices. Here are some key points about the regulations:
What is FDA regulation?The regulations establish the criteria under which the FDA considers electronic records, electronic signatures, and handwritten signatures executed to electronic records to be trustworthy, reliable, and equivalent to paper records and handwritten signatures executed on paper.They apply to records in electronic form that are created, modified, maintained, archived, retrieved, or transmitted under any records requirements set forth in FDA regulations.They also apply to electronic signatures and handwritten signatures executed to electronic records.The regulation also includes security requirement for electronic records and electronic signatureThe regulations also provide for FDA inspection of such records, electronic signatures, and the systems used to create, modify, maintain, archive, retrieve, or transmit them.It is important to note that these regulations are intended to ensure the integrity, confidentiality, and availability of electronic records, and to protect against their falsification. Therefore, all regulated industries that are required to maintain records under FDA regulations must comply with 21 CFR Part 11.To learn more about FDA regulation refer:
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how long does it take to get a paralegal certificate
Depending on where you are in your teaching career, being a paralegal might take two to seven years.
An associate degree takes around two years to complete, a bachelorette's degree takes four years, and a master's degree takes two years. Amarillo College is a public, two-year institution that provides an Associate in Applied Science in paralegal studies with a goal on small class sizes, networking opportunities, and a knowledgeable staff of paralegals and attorneys while preparing students for public instrument testing. For scalable, this programme must be finished at least twice and takes 60 credit hours. Paralegal classes are offered in the evenings and on weekends, while general studies courses are offered throughout the day and night.
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A boater, caught in a sudden storm and reasonably fearing that her boat would capsize, drove the boat up to a pier, exited the boat, and tied the boat to the pier. The pier was clearly marked with "NO TRESPASSING" signs. The owner of the pier ran up to the boater and told her that the boat could not remain tied to the pier. The boater offered to pay the owner for the use of the pier. Regardless, over the boater’s protest, the owner untied the boat and pushed it away from the pier. The boat was lost at sea.
Is the boater likely to prevail in an action against the owner to recover the value of the boat?
(A) No, because the owner told the boater that she could not tie the boat to the pier.
(B) No, because there was a possibility that the boat would not be damaged by the storm.
(C) Yes, because the boater offered to pay the owner for the use of the pier.
(D) Yes, because the boater was privileged to enter the owner’s property to save her boat.
Answer: (D) Yes, because the boater was privileged to enter the owner's property to save her boat.
Explanation: Boaters are generally privileged to enter another person's property to save their boat in an emergency situation, such as when caught in a sudden storm and reasonably fearing that the boat would capsize. In this scenario, the boater had the right to tie her boat to the pier in order to prevent it from being lost at sea. The owner's actions in untying the boat and pushing it away from the pier, despite the boater's protest, may be considered a violation of the boater's right to save her property.
The fact that the pier was marked with "NO TRESPASSING" signs and that the boater offered to pay the owner for the use of the pier would not necessarily prevent the boater from recovering the value of the boat. The boater's right to save her property in an emergency situation would likely take precedence over the owner's property rights in this scenario.
It's worth mentioning that the outcome of a legal case depends on the specific circumstances and laws of the jurisdiction where the incident occurred. It would be advisable to consult with an attorney specialized in maritime and property law to better analyze the case and predict the outcome of the suit.
Lacey files a civil suit against Mischa. To succeed, Lacey must prove her case
a. beyond a reasonable doubt.
b. by a preponderance of the evidence.
c. through a scintilla of evidence.
d. to the extent promised in her attorney's opening statement.
Lacey files a civil suit against Mischa. To succeed, Lacey must prove her case- b) by a preponderance of the evidence. One kind of evidential criterion utilized in a burden of proof assessment is the preponderance of the evidence.
According to the preponderance standard, the proof burden is satisfied when the party presenting it persuades the fact-finder that the claim has a higher than 50% chance of being true. In a civil trial, the proof burden is this. To establish anything by a majority of the evidence is to merely demonstrate that it is more probable than not. Do you think that each part of his or her [assertion] is more probably correct than false in view of the evidence as well as the law, to put it another way.
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A firearm safety:
is intended for use only by inexperienced hunters
is foolproof
can prevent all accidental shootings
can be bumped from the safe position
The action of a firearm is blocked by a safety, which can only be released or turned off when the safety is in the off position.
What is a safety on a firearm?A safety is a mechanism that stops the action so that the gun cannot fire until it is released or moved to the off position. The safety is designed to keep the gun from accidently firing. Safeguards should never, however, be completely depended upon to prevent unintentional shooting.
Always point the muzzle in a secure direction. The fundamental safety principle is this. Almost no mishaps involving firearms would occur if everyone handled weapons with such care that the muzzle was never pointed at an object they did not plan to shoot.
4 Essential Guidelines for Firearm Safety
Keep your firearm pointed in a safe direction at all times. Never aim your pistol at something you don't want to get shot at.Treat all firearms as if they are loaded.Till you are prepared to shoot, keep your finger off the trigger.Always be confident in your goal and what is beyond it.To learn more about firearm safety refer to:
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there has been a decades-long debate about whether representations of violence in various forms of mass media cause real-world violence. which of the following statements about that debate is accurate?
While the effect of violence on television is still up for discussion, research indicates that video games frequently result in real-world violence.
Every significant study has found a clear correlation between watching violent television and playing violent video games and actual violence. In general, violent criminals have a history of watching more violent media than the public in general does. Major studies have never found a connection between watching violent media and any type of violence in real life. In general, the years when there were the most violent depictions in the media saw a decline in violent crime in the United States. It has been the trend in the media sector over the last 40 years. The number of people and businesses with ownership has increased dramatically. Greater numbers of people and businesses now have a little more of the ownership.
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which of the following statements about theorists during the democratization of landscapes is untrue
The untrue statement about theorists during the democratization of landscapes is John ruskin put forth the nation of transcendentalism.
Being one of the earliest philosophical currents to arise in the United States, transcendentalism marks an important early period in the development of American philosophy. Its proponents emphasize subjective intuition above empirical empiricism and hold that people are capable of coming up with wholly original insights with no regard for or deference to earlier thinkers. It emerged in response, as a kind of protest against the period's prevalent intellectualism and spirituality. The Harvard Unitarianism, an early nineteenth-century religious movement that originated in Boston, is closely tied to transcendentalism. Transcendentalism did not oppose Unitarianism; rather, it emerged as a natural result of Unitarianism's emphasis on the importance of the free exercise of religion and the value of reasoned thought. Divinity School's teachings on Unitarian doctrine were closely related.
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True or False, cybercrime laws are consistent between states and countries, making it easy to reach a consensus as to what is illegal.
Cybercrime laws are consistent between states and countries, making it easy to reach a consensus as to what is illegal the stetement is false.
What is Cybercrime laws ?The Indian Penal Code, 1860 and the Information Technology Act, 2000 both address cybercrimes in India. The act from 2000 known as the Information Technology Act deals with matters pertaining to online crime and electronic trade.For political purposes, a cybertortionist damages or destroys computers via the Internet or a network. During the construction of a system, programmers frequently incorporate trapdoors.Cybercrime may be defined as illegal conduct in which a computer is either a tool, a target, or both. Traditional criminal offences including theft, fraud, forgery, defamation, and mischief are all covered by the Indian Penal Code and can also be included in cybercrimes.To learn more about Cybercrime laws refer to:
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a government in which the legislative branch elects the president
The Executive Branch of our government is run by the President of the United States.
The Legislative Branch (Congress) passes laws, which are then enforced by the President. According to the proportional representation system, a single transferable vote is used to elect the president by members of an electoral college made up of elected members of both Houses of Parliament and state legislative assemblies. A parliamentary system, sometimes known as a parliamentarian democracy, is a form of democratic government in which the executive branch obtains the support ("confidence") of the legislative, usually a parliament, to whom it is answerable. democratic parliamentary system in which the party (or a coalition of parties) with the most votes is The government is formed through representation in the legislature, with the leader serving as prime minister or chancellor. There are three primary categories of political systems in existence today, according to Yale professor Juan José Linz: democracies, totalitarian regimes, and hybrid regimes that fall between the two.
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The fact that the defendant committed a particular act is sufficient for the jury to infer that he acted with:
A. Malice
B. General intent
C. Specific intent
D. Negligence
The fact that the defendant committed a particular act is sufficient for the jury to infer that he acted with General intent. Just by performing the act, a judge can infer the necessary general intent. It is not sufficient for the prosecution to present particular evidence demonstrating the overall intent.
A jury, however, cannot draw the conclusion that the defendant's actions were motivated by a specific intention. (However, how an act is performed may offer circumstantial proof that the defendant engaged with a certain intent. By demonstrating that the defendant willfully ignored a clear or significant risk that a certain negative outcome would occur, malice is proven. By demonstrating that the defendant was ignorant of a significant and unreasonable danger, negligence can be proven.
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Labor law pertains to the rights of workers as:
Answer:
Labor law pertains to the rights of workers as: Groups
Explanation:
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