Supplement connect is usada’s resource focusing on dietary supplement education. As your athletes and you search for answers to questions about dietary supplements, what information is not on the website?.

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Answer 1

Dietary supplements may also help athletes who are gaining weight or who need to address known nutritional deficiencies.

Some of the most studied include protein creatine caffeine bicarbonate and beta-alanine. No supplements are required. Instead, whole foods and a balanced nutrition plan provide the right amount of key nutrients needed to be a healthy athlete and perform at peak performance can.

These extra ingredients may seem like a good idea but the more ingredients the higher the chance of unwanted side effects. Start with only the vitamins or minerals you want to take. Don't buy more than you need. Too much vitamin A can cause headaches and liver damage, reduce bone strength and cause birth defects. Excess iron can cause nausea and vomiting and damage the liver and other organs.

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a 21-year-old client has been recently diagnosed with agoraphobia. which situation is most likely to cause the client anxiety?

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Any situation that involves Leaving their house to go out in public

patient is concerned about pigmented skin lesions on her body, her pmd informed the patient that these lesions must be monitored visitor ability to transform to malignant melanoma, and these lesions are referred as to?

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Those pores and skin spots and growths are due to melanocyte cells inside the pores and skin. Melanocytes are the cells that produce melanin, the substance that offers coloration (pigment) to the pores and skin cancers

A visual self-exam by using the affected person and a scientific examination by way of the health care company may be used to screen for pores and skin cancers. all through a pores and skin examination a health practitioner or nurse tests the skin for moles, birthmarks, or other pigmented areas that look bizarre in color, length, form, or texture.

Communicate with your health practitioner in case you observe modifications in your pores and skin which include a brand new growth, a sore that doesn't heal, an exchange in a vintage boom, or any of the A-B-C-D-Es of melanoma. A trade to your skin is the most not unusual signal of skin cancer. this will be a brand new increase, a sore that does not heal, or an alternate in a mole.

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when asked to exercise daily to maintain a healthy lifestyle, joan refuses. however, when she realizes that her current lifestyle will result in adverse health effects, she joins the gym and works out regularly. joan's decision to exercise is most likely caused by

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when she realizes that her current lifestyle will result in adverse health effects, she joins the gym and works out regularly. joan's decision to exercise is most likely caused by the researcher manipulating one or more variables that might affect behavior.

Health consequences (or fitness impacts) are adjustments in health due to exposure to a supply. health effects are a crucial consideration in lots of regions, which include hygiene, pollution research, occupational protection, fitness, ([nutrition]), and health sciences in well-known.

The fitness results of these disruptions encompass elevated respiration and cardiovascular disorder, accidents and premature deaths associated with extreme weather occasions, changes in the superiority and geographical distribution of meals- and water-borne illnesses and other infectious sicknesses, and threats to mental health.

There are numerous different factors that can have an effect on your fitness. those consist of things like housing, financial protection, network safety, employment, schooling, and the environment. those are known as the broader determinants of Health.

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a client is prescribed phenobarbital to control seizures. which medication prescribed for the client would the nurse recognize interacts with phenobarbital?

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loratadine is the medication prescribed for the client would the nurse recognize interacts with phenobarbital.

What brings about seizures?

A seizure can result from anything that disrupts the regular connections made by brain nerve cells. This covers conditions like a high fever, low blood sugar, alcohol or drug withdrawal, or a concussion. However, epilepsy is labeled when a person experiences two or more seizures without any apparent cause.

Phenobarbital is effective in treating patients of all ages with focal aware (previously known as simple partial), focal impaired awareness (previously known as complex partial), and generalized tonic-clonic seizures. It is frequently regarded as the best option for treating specific types of infant seizures.

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this syndrome is a group of disorders in which intestinal absorption of dietary nutrients is impaired. what is the most probable diagnosis and the most likely cause?

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Malabsorption syndrome is the most probable diagnosis for the disorder in which intestinal absorption of dietary nutrients is impaired.

The most likely cause: is the presence of mucosal cells in intestinal lining that are defective.

A condition known as "malabsorption syndrome" describes the body's small intestine's failure to absorb substances such as lipids, carbs, vitamins, minerals, and liquids. A common symptom of this illness is persistent diarrhea. The "stool test" is the initial diagnostic procedure to see if a patient has this syndrome.

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a patient experiences nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and lightheadedness after meals following gastric bypass surgery. the nurse recognizes these as symptoms of:

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If a patient experiences nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and lightheadedness after meals following gastric bypass surgery, then the nurse may recognize these as symptoms of dysphagia.

What is the dysphagia condition?

The dysphagia condition refers to a medical condition in which a person may have swallow health problems and thereby he/she can show several symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramping, etc., after meals.

The health symptoms may also appear when the individual drinks (not only eating) because health problems are associated with the difficulty to move both solids and liquids from the mouth to the stomach.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that the dysphagia condition is associated with swallow health problems in an individual or patient and therefore a series of common symptoms as above can be described to be related to this type of disease.

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a nurse is preparing to give a vaccine to a client in the ob/gyn office. what should the nurse review before giving the medication?

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The nurse review before giving the medication is the Vaccine Information Statements (VISs)

What is a vaccine ?

A substance that is used to boost the body's defences against illness. Although needle injections are the most common method of administering vaccines, some can also be taken orally or sprayed into the nose.

When routinely advised childhood vaccines are given, it is required by federal law that VISs be given. When receiving a vaccine covered by the law, everyone adults included should be given the appropriate VIS. Before giving the vaccine, the VIS must be given.

Without getting sick first, vaccinations provide immunity to a disease. They are created using disease-causing microorganisms or portions of them that have been killed or weakened. Some vaccines use genetic engineering to create the antigens that are used in the vaccine.

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the nurse is caring for a preterm newborn with nasal flaring, grunting, and sternal retractions. after administering surfactant, which assessment is most important for the nurse to monitor?

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Respiratory rate is the assessment which is most important for the nurse to monitor after administering surfactant in a newborn with nasal flaring and is denoted as option D.

What is Lungs?

This is referred to as the central organ of the respiratory system and contains specialized structures which ensures that there is adequate gaseous exchange in organisms.

Pulmonary surfactant are administered when an individual has a respiratory distress disease as it helps to line the alveoli to lower surface tension. This prevents atelectasis during breathing which is known as the collapse of the lungs.

The respiratory rate is referred to as the number of breaths per unit of time and is used to assess if appropriate oxygen is taken into their body to be used by the cells for adequate functioning.

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The options are:

A) Arterial blood gases

B) Breath sounds

C) Oxygen saturation

D) Respiratory rate

if it is not possible to adequately clean your ambulance at the hospital following a call, you should:

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A. Immediately wipe down all higher friction surfaces with only an antibacterial solution after receiving a call at the hospital.

Why is the hospital named that way?

The Latin term hospes, which denotes a stranger or foreigner and hence a visitor, is where the word "hospital" originates. Another noun derived from this is hospitium, which evolved to represent hospitality, the relationship between a shelterer and a visitor, as well as friendliness and a welcoming attitude.

What does "hospital" signify in its simplest form?

A facility designed, staffed, & equipped for the diagnosis of disease, the medical and surgical care of the ill and injured, and their housing while undergoing these procedures. The modern hospital frequently acts as a research and educational hub.

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a client presents with uncharacteristic chest pain, and his ecg reveals t-wave elevation. this finding suggests an abnormality with which aspect of the cardiac cycle?

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This finding suggests an abnormality with the Ventricular repolarization aspect of the cardiac cycle.

A cardiac cycle is a process by which oxygen-depleted blood is converted to oxygen-rich blood in the lungs before being pushed by the heart to the body through the aorta.

The cardiac cycle describes the activity of the human heart from the beginning of one heartbeat to the beginning of the next. It consists of two phases: a systole, during which the heart muscle contracts vigorously and pumps blood, and a diastole, during which the heart muscle relaxes and replenishes with blood.

Assuming a healthy heart and a normal rate of 70 to 75 beats per minute, each cardiac cycle, or heartbeat, lasts approximately 0.8 seconds to complete.

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the nurse is assessing a client with a known history of chronic heart failure. which finding indicates poor perfusion to the tissues?

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Capillary refill time is increasing and Urinary output is 20​ mL/hr for the past 2 hours and Blood pressure is​ 126/72 mmHg.

What is chronic heart failure?

The inability of the heart muscle to pump enough blood reaches the body's needs for oxygenated blood causes heart failure, a chronic, progressive ailment. In essence, the heart is overwhelmed by its workload.

What is the lifespan of chronic heart failure?

According to one study, persons with heart failure live 10 years less than people without the condition. According to another study, persons with chronic heart failure had survival rates between 80percentage points and 90% for the first year, but that fell to between 50% and 60% for the fifth year and then to just 30% for the final ten years.

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what is the most likely explanation for the variability in expression of disease severity for cystic fibrosis?

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In patients with cystic fibrosis (CF), genetic variants within and outside the CFTR locus contribute to the variability of the disease severity

What is cystic fibrosis ?

In cystic fibrosis, the airways become blocked with thick, sticky mucus, making breathing challenging. For bacteria and fungi, the thick mucus is a perfect breeding ground. The lungs, digestive system, and other body organs are seriously harmed by the inherited disorder known as cystic fibrosis (CF).

The type of gene variation and the severity of the illness are related. For a child to have the condition, one copy of each parent's gene must be inherited. Children who inherit just one copy won't get cystic fibrosis.

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after teaching a group of nursing students about intellectual disability, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which as the most common etiology?

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The students list the genetic disorders with the most prevalent etiologies.

Is it difficult to be accepted to nursing school?

There is a ton of material to learn, challenging exams, confusing schedules, and an endless supply of assignments. All of these characteristics might make it difficult for you to succeed academically. Nursing is an extremely competitive field from the moment you begin the application process until you complete it.

Does math have a role in nursing?

Despite the fact that almost all institutions need at least one college-level math course, usually algebra, nursing in the "real world" generally just requires basic arithmetic skills.

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the nurse is caring for a client in the cardiac intensive care unit (cicu) after a myocardial infarction (mi). which drug will the nurse administer that will decrease contractility?

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The nurse is caring for a client in the cardiac intensive care unit after a myocardial infarction, so the drug that the nurse will administer that will decrease contractility is Metoprolol.

What is metoprolol?

Metoprolol, which is sold under the brand name Lopressor among others, is a selective β1 receptor blocker medication. Metoprolol is used to treat chest pain due to poor blood flow to the heart, high blood pressure, and a number of conditions that involve an abnormally fast heart rate. Metoprolol is also used to prevent headaches in those with migraine and to prevent further heart problems after myocardial infarction.

Metoprolol can be taken by mouth or given intravenously. It is often taken twice a day.

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The nurse is caring for a client after a myocardial infarction (mi). the drug given by the nurse that will reduce contractility is the drug metoprolol.

Metoprolol for what disease?

Metoprolol is useful for reducing heart rate, blood pressure, and heart workload. This medication is usually used to treat high blood pressure, chest pain (angina), and heart failure. Metoprolol works by blocking the action of certain natural chemicals in the body that affect the heart and blood vessels. Because of this, this drug can lower heart rate, blood pressure, and strain on the heart.

What is meant by myocardial infarction?

Acute myocardial infarction is the medical term for a heart attack. This condition occurs when blood flow to the coronary arteries of the heart is narrowed. Both of these things will make the heart muscle oxygen deprived and damaged

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the nurse is admitting a patient who is experiencing increased signs and symptoms of dilated cardiomyopathy (dcm). what changes in the heart characterize dcm?

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Significant ventricular enlargement without appreciable concurrent hypertrophy or systolic dysfunction is the hallmark of DCM. Patients with DCM do not experience ventricular atrophy.

What is dilated cardiomyopathy (dcm) and symptoms?

The heart chambers (ventricles), which are affected by dilated cardiomyopathy, become thinner and stretch, enlarging. Usually, it begins in the principal pumping chamber of the heart (left ventricle). It is more difficult for the heart to pump blood to the body's other organs when the cardiomyopathy is dilated.

Early on in the development of the condition, some persons with dilated cardiomyopathy don't exhibit any symptoms or indicators.

Dilated cardiomyopathy symptoms and signs might include:

FatigueDyspnea, a shortness of breath, during exercise or while resting downDecreased capacity for exerciseEdema, or swelling, in the legs, ankles, feet, or abdomen (abdomen)Chest discomfort or agonyHeartbeat that is quick, fluttery, or hammering (palpitations)

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the drug called antabuse is considered an aversive drug because it helps people abstain from drinking alcohol by:

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The medication known as antabuse is regarded as an unpleasant drug since it aids in alcohol abstinence by preventing the breakdown of an alcohol byproduct, which causes sensations of disease.

Since 1932, obsessive behaviour has been treated psychologically using the aversion therapy technique. Aversion therapy, also known as conversion therapy or reparative therapy, involves exposing a patient to the subject of their preoccupation while simultaneously subjecting them to an unpleasant and painful stimulation. The goal is to apply the principle of conditioning to make the patient identify their obsessive behaviour or addiction with a bad feeling. The strategy is grounded in the idea that by conditioning the patient to identify the targeted behaviour with pain, discomfort, or stress, they will stop doing it. Antabuse is a pharmacological variant of aversion therapy that causes unpleasant side effects when an individual who takes it consumes alcohol. Disulfiram, also known as the prescription drug Antabuse, is used to treat alcoholism in some recovery programs. It functions by preventing the enzyme that the body uses to metabolise alcohol.

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a pregnant woman with diabetes is having a glycosylated hemoglobin (hgba1c) level drawn. which result would require the nurse to revise the client's plan of care?

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8.5% rationale: an HbA1C level of more than 8% indicates poor control and the need for intervention is the result that would require the nurse to revise the client's plan of care.

Hemoglobin that has been bonded chemically to sugar is known as glycated hemoglobin. When present in human bloodstreams, the majority of monosaccharides, including glucose, galactose, and fructose, naturally link with hemoglobin.

A glycated hemoglobin test calculates the level of blood glucose (sugar). The test is frequently referred to as A1c or HbA1c. Detect prediabetes, which is elevated blood sugar levels that can result in diabetes, heart disease, and stroke.

You have too much sugar in your blood if your HbA1c is high. As a result, you have a higher risk of developing serious eye and foot complications as a result of your diabetes.

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what teaching can the nurse provide regarding administration of antibiotics that helps decrease the development of resistance?

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According to the given statement Take the entire course as prescribed even if the symptoms have subsided.

What are antibiotics use for?

Drugs known as antibiotics are used to treat infections caused by bacteria in both people and animals. They accomplish this by either eliminating the bacteria or by impeding their ability to grow and procreate. Bacteria are germs. Antibiotics are often taken with water since taking them with dairy products, alcohol, or fruit juices might change how some drugs are absorbed by the body.

When do I need antibiotics?

Using antibiotics when. Antibiotics are only effective against specific bacterial illnesses; other bacterial infections also heal on their own. We rely on antibiotics to treat serious, potentially fatal conditions including pneumonia and septic, the body's extreme response to an infection.

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a client diagnosed with acute pancreatitis is being transferred to another facility. the nurse caring for the client completes the transfer summary, which includes information about the client's drinking history and other assessment findings. which assessment findings confirm the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis?

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Medical history, physical exam, and a blood test (amylase or lipase) for pancreatic digesting enzymes confirm acute pancreatitis. Acute pancreatitis raises amylase and lipase levels 3 times normal.

What is acute pancreatitis?

Acute pancreatitis is a disorder in which inflammation (swelling) of the pancreas develops over a relatively short amount of time. The pancreas is a tiny organ that is situated beneath the stomach and plays an important role in the digestive process. The majority of patients who have acute pancreatitis start to feel better after about a week of treatment and do not experience any further complications.

Acute pancreatitis is typically brought on by gallstones or excessive alcohol consumption, however there are cases in which the root cause cannot be determined.

Acute pancreatitis can be diagnosed by looking at a patient's medical history, performing a physical exam, and usually taking a blood test to look for digestive enzymes produced by the pancreas (amylase or lipase). During acute pancreatitis, the levels of amylase or lipase in the blood are frequently raised to be three times higher than the normal level.

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which prescribed medication would the nurse anticipate providing additional information to the patient expressing fear of cluster headaches recurring during an upcoming flight?

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The prescribed medication the nurse anticipate for the patient who expressed fear of cluster headaches recurring during an upcoming flight is ergotamine.

Ergotamine is a medication that's used to prevent and treat acute migraine attacks. It is usually sold under the brand name Migergot, Cafergot, and Ergomar. This medicine works by preventing blood vessels in the head from expanding.

In the U.S., ergotamine is sold in tablets, sometimes with caffeine as a combination. The side effects of ergotamine include nausea, vomiting, raised arterial blood pressure, vasoconstriction, and tachycardia. Make sure to let your doctor knows about your allergies, the medicines you're taking, and your health problem when the doctor is prescribing this medication to you.

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which condition contributes to a patient's increased risk for acquiring an opportinustic fungal infection

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Patients who have secondary immunodeficiencies are more vulnerable to getting sick from common, less dangerous pathogenic bacteria, opportunistic fungi, and viruses.

Which two kinds of contraindications are there?

Two categories of contraindications exist: The term "relative contraindication" refers to the need for caution while using two medications or medical treatments simultaneously. (If the advantages outweigh the risks, doing so is permissible.) Absolute contraindications include anything that might put your life in danger.

A circumstance in which a certain therapy or technique is wholly contraindicated is known as an absolute contraindication. For instance, aspirin is nearly usually not recommended for usage in children due to the risk that it will result in Reye syndrome.

A condition that acts as a justification not to get a certain medical therapy is known as a contraindication in medicine.

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the health care practitioner is educating a client in the use of ophthalmic eye drops. what important information does the health care practitioner need to share with the client?

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Ophthalmic eye drops are used to treat eye infections caused by bacteria which can be characterized by the appearance of symptoms in the form of red, watery eyes and discharge of yellow or green pus.

Ophthalmic eye drops

Several types of antibiotics that are often used to treat eye infections are chloramphenicol, gentamicin, tobramycin, ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin, bacitracin, neomycin, and polymyxin.

Ophthalmic eye drops that contain antibiotics only work effectively to kill bacteria, these drugs are not effective for treating eye infections caused by viruses or fungi.

Don't forget to keep ophthalmic eye drops in a place with cool temperatures or room temperature and avoid the sun. Try not to touch the tip of the bottle with your eyes, fingers or other surfaces to keep it free of germs. Do not share ophthalmic eye drops with other people and keep stored out of reach of children.

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the antipsychotic drugs that have been marketed in the past ten years, such as zyprexa (olanzepine), are referred to as:

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In 2010 antipsychotic drugs racked up more than $16 billion in sales, according to IMS Health, a firm that tracks drug trends for the health-care industry. For the past three years they have ranked near or at the top of the best-selling classes of drugs, outstripping antidepressants and sometimes cholesterol medicines. A study published last year found that off-label antipsychotic prescriptions doubled between 1995 and 2008, from 4.4 million to 9 million. And a recent report by pharmacy benefits manager Medco estimated that the prevalence of the drugs’ use among adults ballooned more than 169 percent between 2001 and 2010.

Critics say the popularity of atypical antipsychotics reflects a combination of hype that the expensive medicines. designed to calm patients and to moderate the hallucinations and delusions of psychosis, are being used “promiscuously, recklessly,” often to control behavior and with little regard for their serious side effects. These include major, rapid weight gain — 40 pounds is not uncommon — Type 2 diabetes, breast development inboys, irreversible facial tics and, among the elderly, an increased risk of death.

Explanation:

Functional selectivity is the term that describes drugs that cause markedly different signaling through a single receptor (e.g., full agonist at one pathway and antagonist at a second). It has been widely recognized recently that this phenomenon impacts the understanding of mechanism of action of some drugs, and has relevance to drug discovery. One of the clinical areas where this mechanism has particular importance is in the treatment of schizophrenia. Antipsychotic drugs have been grouped according to both pattern of clinical action and mechanism of action. The original antipsychotic drugs such as chlorpromazine and haloperidol have been called typical or first generation. They cause both antipsychotic actions and many side effects (extrapyramidal and endocrine) that are ascribed to their high affinity dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. Drugs such as clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone and others were then developed that avoided the neurological side effects (atypical or second generation antipsychotics). These compounds are divided mechanistically into those that are high affinity D2 and 5-HT2A antagonists, and those that also bind with modest affinity to D2, 5-HT2A, and many other neuroreceptors. There is one approved third generation drug, aripiprazole, whose actions have been ascribed alternately to either D2 partial agonism or D2 functional selectivity. Although partial agonism has been the more widely accepted mechanism, the available data are inconsistent with this mechanism. Conversely, the D2 functional selectivity hypothesis can accommodate all current data for aripiprazole, and also impacts on discovery compounds that are not pure D2 antagonists.The serendipitous observations about antipsychotic actions of chlorpromazine ultimately led to the finding that these antipsychotic effects were due to antidopaminergic actions [2]. Numerous antipsychotics were subsequently developed that, like chlorpromazine, work primarily as dopamine D2 receptor antagonists. Drugs of this type (first called typical and now named first generation antipsychotics) include a variety of different chemical classes. These typical drugs can be classified as high, intermediate, or low potency based on their average daily dose range, with their clinical potency often highly correlated with their affinity for the dopamine D2 receptor . Thus, actions at dopamine systems have been a critical mechanism in all currently approved antipsychotic drugs and many of the compounds in the discovery and development pipeline.The serendipitous observations about antipsychotic actions of chlorpromazine [1] ultimately led to the finding that these antipsychotic effects were due to antidopaminergic actions . Numerous antipsychotics were subsequently developed that, like chlorpromazine, work primarily as dopamine D2 receptor antagonists. Drugs of this type (first called typical and now named first generation antipsychotics) include a variety of different chemical classes. These typical drugs can be classified as high, intermediate, or low potency based on their average daily dose range, with their clinical potency often highly correlated with their affinity for the dopamine D2 receptor. Thus, actions at dopamine systems have been a critical mechanism in all currently approved antipsychotic drugs and many of the compounds in the discovery and development pipeline.

the nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of end-stage renal disease. the client tells the nurse that a lawyer has prepared a living will and will be visiting the client today so that the will can be reviewed. the client also tells the nurse that the lawyer has asked for a witness to sign the will and requests that the nurse act as a witness. which is the most appropriate nursing response to the client?

Answers

The most appropriate nursing response to the client is to say that she  is caring for a client with a diagnosis of end-stage renal disease.

What is renal disease?

Renal disease condition during which the kidneys stop working and are not able to remove waste and extra water from the blood or keep body chemicals in balance.

Therefore,  The most appropriate nursing response to the client is to say that she is caring for a client with a diagnosis of end-stage renal disease.

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a 34-year-old client birthed a healthy baby boy 5 days ago. the client is experiencing insomnia and weepiness, lasting for short periods of time each day. what factor/condition does the nurse believe is causing this experience?

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Manic depression and bipolar disorder are both mental illnesses that cause extreme highs and lows in mood as well as changes in sleep, activity, thinking, and behavior.

What symptoms indicate bipolar disorder?

Much of the time feeling depressed, despondent, or irritated weak in vigor. Insomnia treatment for bipolar Trazodone, Amitriptyline, Klonopin.

Persistent anxiety or worry that is excessive compared to the effects of the occurrences in a number of different areas. overanalyzing strategies and answers to account for all potential worst-case scenarios interpreting circumstances and events as dangerous even though they are not handling uncertainty with difficulty.

Therefore, Manic depression and bipolar disorder are both mental illnesses that cause extreme highs and lows in mood as well as changes in sleep, activity, thinking, and behavior.

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the patient undergoes a cardiac catheterization that requires the use of contrast dyes during the procedure. to detect signs of contrast-induced kidney injury, the nurse should

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The patient undergoes a cardiac catheterization that requires the use of contrast dyes during the procedure. to detect signs of contrast-induced kidney injury, the nurse should affects nearly two thirds of patients.

Cardiac catheterization (kath-uh-tur-ih-ZAY-shun) is a manner in which a thin, bendy tube (catheter) is guided through a blood vessel to the heart to diagnose or treat positive coronary heart situations, which include clogged arteries or abnormal heartbeats.

Cardiac catheterization isn't taken into consideration a surgical operation because your issuer may not make a big incision. also, the recuperation time is plenty shorter than that of surgical operation. In some cases, your issuer may suggest surgery in a while, depending on the consequences of your manner.

Situations that catheterization can help to diagnose and treat encompass coronary artery disorder (arteriosclerosis); heart valve ailment; congenital coronary heart ailment, such as patent foramen ovale (PFO) and ventricular septal defect; congestive coronary heart failure; and cardiomyopathy or growth of the coronary heart.

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a client with rheumatoid arthritis asks what can be used to control pain besides taking pain medication. which recommendations will the nurse suggest to this client? select all that apply.

Answers

The first medication prescribed for rheumatoid arthritis is typically methotrexate, frequently in combination with another DMARD and a brief course of steroids (corticosteroids) to treat any pain.

What is the rheumatoid arthritis alternative treatment?

Joint pain and inflammation may be successfully treated with acupuncture, herbal supplements, massage, rest, and mind-body activities. If you're thinking about undergoing these procedures, consult your primary care physician or rheumatologist for a suggestion or referral to an alternative, complementary, or integrative healthcare provider.

Which arthritis medication works the best?

Drugs that are non-steroidal anti-inflammatory: The most successful oral treatments for OA are NSAIDs. They consist of diclofenac, naproxen, and ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil) (Voltaren, others). All function by preventing the enzymes that lead to pain and edema.

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a client is being evaluated for a possible diagnosis of emphysema. what client characteristic should the nurse monitor to provide evidence of the disorder?

Answers

Emphysema is a pulmonary disease so you would want to monitor a patient for symptoms such as abnormal breathing or persistent coughing

nicotine is group of answer choices a highly addictive drug. a carcinogenic compound. a slow-acting drug. an hypo-allergenic compound.

Answers

Nicotine is a highly addictive drug.

The substance in tobacco called nicotine is what keeps you smoking and considered as a highly addictive drug . Within seconds after inhaling nicotine, it reaches the brain. Nicotine enhances the release of neurotransmitters, brain chemicals that help control mood and behavior.

Your circulation carries nicotine to your adrenal glands, which are located above your kidneys. Your heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure all rise as a result of the glands releasing adrenaline. You experience a lot of positive emotions at once when taking adrenaline.

Typical negative effects :  Nicotine is known to reduce hunger, elevate mood, raise blood pressure and heart rate, induce nausea and diarrhea, improve memory, and boost alertness.

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a patient suffered a middle cerebral artery stroke, which resulted in difficultly completing hand movements and gripping objects. she participates in motor performance training and subsequently shows significant improvement in hand movement tasks. if you were to compare fmri images of cortical activity in this patient immediately after the insult with images taken after the training, what would you expect to see?

Answers

According to the given statement she would have decreased activity in the primary motor cortex after training.

What is patient or patience?

The word 'patience' as a noun, refers to wait calmly or endure hardship for a long time without becoming angry or eager. The word 'patients' though is the plural form of the word 'patient' refers to a person who receives medical care.

What patient means?

a person who is receiving medical care, esp. in a hospital, or who is cared for by a particular doctor or dentist when necessary. They sound the same but have very different meanings. The noun "patience" refers to the ability to wait or endure hardship for a long time without becoming upset. The noun "patients" is the plural form of "patient"—someone who receives medical care.

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In most cells, there are electrochemical gradients of many ions across the plasma membrane even though there are usually only one or two electrogenic pumps present in the membrane. The gradients of the other ions are most likely accounted for by. which abstract data type (adt) is most suitable to store a list of perishable products such that the product with the nearest expiry date is removed first? residual income is a better measure for performance evaluation of an investment center manager than return on investment because? it encourages managers to make investments that are profitable for the entire company it can be used to compare the performances of divisions of different sizes it does not measure performance based on operating assets the problems with measuring the asset base are eliminated Wyatt had to climb the stairs to ride the waterslide. The top of the waterslide was more than 56 feet from the ground. Which graph represents this inequality? A) number line with open circle on the number 56 and line shaded to the left B) number line with closed circle on the number 56 and line shaded to the left C)number line with an open circle on the number 56 and line shaded to the right D)number line with a closed circle on the number 56 and line shaded to the right which of the following does not describe the anatomical characteristics of the kidney? a. protected by the perirenal fat capsule b. located in a retroperitoneal position c. left kidney is below the right kidney d. anterior to psoas major e. partially tucked under the ribs for protection retirement usually does not bring about the same kinds of feelings of loss for people with developmental disabilities as it does for people without disabilities (T/F)false what platform can you connect with analytics in order to get insights into organic search queries that are directing users to your website? what do retailers consider while managing markdown of merchandise? multiple choice question. an everyday low-price strategy implies that products are already at low prices and will not require markdowns. retailers that change their displays frequently have a more difficult time getting rid of merchandise. retailers who make bulk purchases are less likely to include markdowns in their retail formats. retailers that receive markdown money from vendors are less likely to markdown products. A species of fox lives in the arctic where the ground is covered in white snow most of the year. These arctic foxes hunt rodents and other small mammals, while their predators include eagles, wolves, and polar bears. A mutation in its DNA causes a fox to have white fur rather than brown. Given this information, would you classify this mutation as a harmful, beneficial, or neutral mutation? Would this make the fox more or less likely to survive? Explain your answer.A species of fox lives in the arctic where the ground is covered in white snow most of the year. These arctic foxes hunt rodents and other small mammals, while their predators include eagles, wolves, and polar bears. A mutation in its DNA causes a fox to have white fur rather than brown. Given this information, would you classify this mutation as a harmful, beneficial, or neutral mutation? Would this make the fox more or less likely to survive? Explain your answer.A species of fox lives in the arctic where the ground is covered in white snow most of the year. These arctic foxes hunt rodents and other small mammals, while their predators include eagles, wolves, and polar bears. A mutation in its DNA causes a fox to have white fur rather than brown. Given this information, would you classify this mutation as a harmful, beneficial, or neutral mutation? Would this make the fox more or less likely to survive? Explain your answer. A 100 V DC power supply is used to charge a 45 F capacitor. What is the maximum charge of the capacitor?Q=After the capacitor is fully charged, it's disconnected from the power supply and connected to a 45 mH inductor. The resistance in the circuit is negligible. What is the frequency and period of electric oscillation in the circuit?f= T=What is the charge on the capacitor at time t=2.9 ms?q=What is the current in the circuit at time t=2.9 ms?i= a client with supraventricular tachycardia has received a dose of verapamil to slow the heart rate. which explanation describes the effect of this drug on the heart? Purple hibiscusChapter 17We learn about some of the customs in Nigeria when a woman loses her husband; name 3 of these. Why doesnt Mama follow them? What has she told everyone? Determine if the statement is true or false. When applying zippers and buttons to a garment, designers consider the design elements of proportion, emphasis, and balance to create an aesthetically pleasing look. 42 km of 120 km help pls Please help me answer these two questions on my statistics homework! Data is included in the attached Excel file, questions are shown in the screenshot.Thank you! Read paragraph 2 from thepassage.White Fanq had seen the camp-dogs toiling in the harness, So that he did not resent overmuch the first placing of the harness upon himself. About his neck was put a moss-stuffed collar, which was connected by two pulling-traces to a strap that passed around his chest and over his back. It was to this that was fastened the long rope by which he pulled at the sled.What can be inferred about White Fang from this paragraph?A. He realizes that the sled ne will be pulling is a small and light one.B. He wants to prove his worth as a sled dog to Mit-sah's father.C. He admires the other sled dogs and wants to be more like them.D. He has witnessed other dogs wearing harnesses and pulling sleds. displacement of the l5 vertebrae to the point at which it sits anterior to the s1 segment is referred to as . A veterinarian has been asked to prepare a diet, x ounces of Brand A and y ounces of Brand B, for a group of dogs to be used in a nutrition study at the School of Animal Science. It has been stipulated that each serving should be no larger than 8 oz and must contain at least 29 units of Nutrient I and 20 units of Nutrient II. The vet has decided that the diet may be prepared from two brands of dog food: Brand A and Brand B. Each ounce of Brand A contains 3 units of Nutrient I and 4 units of Nutrient II. Each ounce of Brand B contains 5 units of Nutrient I and 2 units of Nutrient II. Brand A costs 5 cents/ounce, and Brand B costs 7 cents/ounce. Determine how many ounces of each brand of dog food should be used per serving to meet the given requirements at a minimum cost. (x,y)=... What is the minimum cost? (Round your answer to the nearest cent.) ..... cents per serving A cyclist rode 5.83 miles in 0.4 hours.How fast was she going in miles per hour?At that rate, how long will it take her to go 5.5 miles? WHAT is my cup sizei need to know waht my cup size is its for science