If blood clots or specific clotting diseases run in your family, you are more prone to develop this problem. After childbirth, for example. Following a heart attack, heart operation, or stroke.
What type of patient has Pulmonary embolism?Pulmonary embolisms are more likely to occur in those who have illnesses or conditions that raise the possibility of blood clotting.
A person is more likely to get a pulmonary embolism if they now have, or have ever had, a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the arm or leg.
Pulmonary embolism is brought on by a clogged pulmonary artery. A blood clot that develops in a deep leg vein and travels to the lungs, where it lodges in a smaller lung artery, is the most frequent cause of such a blockage.
In the deep leg veins, the majority of blood clots that result in pulmonary embolism are produced.
Therefore, The patient may have a pulmonary embolism, according to the nurse.
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the nurse is caring for a client who is receiving amikacin for the treatment of a serious staphylococcus aureus infection. what assessment should the nurse prioritize?
When caring for a client who is receiving amikacin for the treatment of a serious Staphylococcus aureus infection, the nurse should prioritize monitoring the client's renal function.
Amikacin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that is primarily eliminated through the kidneys. As such, it can be toxic to the kidneys, and can cause nephrotoxicity, especially if given in high doses or for prolonged periods. To prevent nephrotoxicity, the nurse should monitor the client's renal function by checking urine output, serum creatinine, and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels.
The nurse should also assess for signs of nephrotoxicity, such as decreased urine output, increased serum creatinine and BUN levels, and signs of fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
Other important assessments that the nurse should prioritize include monitoring for signs of ototoxicity (hearing loss, tinnitus, and vertigo) and ensuring that the client is well-hydrated to prevent kidney damage. The nurse should also assess for any signs of allergic reaction or adverse effects associated with the medication.
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The skin helps in the excretion of uric acid and ammonia.
True
False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Yes it True it helps to get rid of that.
T-R-U-E
I hope this helps.
a nurse is preparing to administer dopamine 5 mcg/kg/min by continuous iv infusion for a client who is in shock and weighs 56 kg. available is dopamine 3.2 mg/ml. the nurse should set the iv pump to deliver how many ml/hr? (round the answer to the nearest tenth. use a leading zero if it applies. do not use a trailing zero.)
The nurse should set the iv pump to deliver 0.42 ml/hr in order to to administer dopamine 5 mcg/kg/min by continuous iv infusion for a client who is in shock and weighs 56 kg,
How do you calculate dopamine HR mL?
The formula used to calculate dopamine/hour in ml = 0.0015 x wt (kg) x dose (µg/kg/min)
Given:
Wt = 56 kg
Dose = 5 mcg/kg/min
Hence, placing the given values, we obtain
= 0.0015 (56) (5)
= 0.42 ml/hr
Why does dopamine alter our bodies function?
• Dopamine is a type of neurotransmitter and hormone. It has an impact on a number of essential physical functions which are namely known as motivation, memory, reward pleasure, and movement. A variety of neurological and mental health issues can be impacted by dopamine levels.
• Dopamine causes signaling cascades that significantly affect executive function, motor control, motivation, arousal, reinforcement, and reward when it interacts with dopaminergic receptors at projections in the substantia nigra, ventral tegmental area, and arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus.
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nurse noemi administers glucagon to her diabetic client, then monitors the client for adverse drug reactions and interactions. which type of drug interacts adversely with glucagon?
A common drug that interacts adversely with glucagon is insulin. When administered together.
The combination can cause a sharp drop in blood sugar, performing in hypoglycemia. Symptoms of hypoglycemia include dizziness, confusion, sweating, insecurity, and fatigue. However, it can affect in coma or indeed death, If severe. It's thus important for the nanny to cover the case for any signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia after administration of glucagon.
To help any adverse responses, the nanny should also check for any other specifics the case is taking, similar as insulin, before administering glucagon. The nanny should also educate the case on the significance of maintaining a balanced diet, exercising regularly, and taking his/ her specifics as specified.
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the nurse is conducting a support group for parents of 9- and 10-year-olds. the parents express concern about the amount of time their children want to spend with friends outside the home. what should the nurse teach the parents that peer groups provide?
The nurse should include a source of affection, regarding the role of the peer group in the life of a school-age child.
School age child development is a range from 6 to 12 times of age. During this time period observable differences in height, weight, and figure of children may be prominent. The language chops of children continue to grow and numerous geste changes do as they try to find their place among their peers.
Peer relationships give a unique environment in which children learn a range of critical social emotional chops, similar as empathy, affection, cooperation, and problem- working strategies. Peer connections can also contribute negatively to social emotional development through bullying, rejection, and counterculturist peer processes.
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the nurse is assessing a 14-year-old male client when the client's parent jokes about the changes in the client's voice and the hair under his armpits. which response by the nurse to the client's parent is most appropriate?
"It's important to remember that our teenage clients are growing and changing, and it's important to keep the conversation respectful."
What is teenage ?Teenage is a period of transition between childhood and adulthood. It is a time of physical, emotional, mental and social change. During this stage, teenagers develop a sense of personal identity and explore their interests and talents. They also learn how to interact with peers, communicate effectively and develop relationships. During the teenage years, they are expected to become more independent, take on more responsibility and make their own decisions. It is an important time for self-discovery and growth as teens learn how to navigate the world and become competent, responsible adults.
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a nurse should recognize which symptom as a cardinal sign of type 1 diabetes mellitus?
A nurse should recognize polyuria as a cardinal sign of type 1 diabetes mellitus.
Polyuria is an increase in the frequency of urination, which can be caused by excess glucose in the blood. This is a common symptom of type 1 diabetes mellitus, as the body attempts to rid itself of excess glucose through increased urination. Type 1 diabetes mellitus itself is a chronic condition that occurs when the pancreas is unable to produce enough insulin. Other cardinal signs of type 1 diabetes mellitus include polydipsia (increased thirst) and polyphagia (increased hunger).
It is important for a nurse to recognize these symptoms in order to properly diagnose and treat a patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus.
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natalia is looking to start planning healthy weekly meals. she does not enjoy any type of fish or red meat and eats very limited types of vegetables. in this scenario, which factor is impacting natalia's healthy meal planning? cost dietary needs family involvement personal taste
Factor influences her healthy meal planning is the cost dietary needs.
What is healthy food?Healthy food is food that contains various kinds of nutrients needed by the body. The human body needs a variety of nutrients to keep the body healthy and for optimal growth.
Some of the benefits that are felt when eating healthy foods are:
Help you live long.Keeps skin, teeth and eyes healthy.Supports muscles.Increase body immunity.Strengthens bones.Reducing the risk of heart disease, type 2 diabetes and cancer.Helps maintain a healthy weight.But there are several factors that affect a healthy food plan program, one of which is the cost of dietary needs.
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the nurse establishes that the client has poor airway clearance. which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement for this problem?
The most important intervention to be implemented for a client that has poor airway clearance is airway management.
Ineffective airway clearance is a condition where the patient is unable to clear secretions or obstructions from their respiratory tract. It may cause breathing to be difficult.
Some nursing interventions that should be used for poor airway clearance are:
Reposition the patient to decrease secretions and allow proper lung expansion.Suction if needed to clear the airway.Give respiratory medication when needed.Involve respiratory therapist.Encourage fluid intake and lifestyle modifications.Learn more about airway clearance at https://brainly.com/question/28319749
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which of the following treatments would you choose for mr. fitzgerald's skin cancer? choose the single best answer. a. observation for now, because it is still carcinoma in-situ. b. refer mr. fitzgerald for mohs surgery. c. refer mr. fitzgerald for radiation therapy. d. treat the lesion with cryotherapy. e. treat the lesion with topical 5-fluorouracil (5-fu). f. wide excision under local anesthesia in the office
The following treatments would choose for Mr. Fitzgerald's skin cancer (squamous cell carcinoma) Option A. Wide excision under local anesthesia in the office.
Squamous cell carcinoma of the skin is a type of skin cancer that develops in the squamous cells that comprise the skin's middle and outer layers.
Squamous cell carcinoma of the skin is rarely fatal, but it can be aggressive. Squamous cell carcinoma of the skin, if left untreated, can become large and spread to other parts of your body, causing major consequences.
The majority of squamous cell carcinomas of the skin are caused by extended exposure to ultraviolet (UV) radiation, which can come from sunshine or tanning beds or lamps. Avoiding UV light reduces your chances of squamous cell carcinoma and other types of skin cancer.
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Complete Question is:
Which of the following treatments would you choose for Mr. Fitzgerald's skin cancer (squamous cell carcinoma)? Choose the single best answer.
A. Wide excision under local anesthesia in the office
B. Refer Mr. Fitzgerald for Mohs surgery.
C. Treat the lesion with topical 5-fluorouracil (5-FU).
D. Treat the lesion with cryotherapy.
E. Refer Mr. Fitzgerald for radiation therapy.
F. Observation for now, because it is still carcinoma in-situ.
Which learning activities are part of the cognitive domain of learning? a) Analyzing statistics b) Memorizing vocabulary words c) Discussing a new policy d) Practicing throwing and catching e) Reflecting on feelings about bullying
The learning activities that are part of the cognitive domain of learning include: Analyzing statistics, Memorizing vocabulary words, Discussing a new policy and Reflecting on feelings about bullying.
Analyzing statistics: This involves using critical thinking and problem-solving skills to interpret and make sense of data.
Memorizing vocabulary words: This involves rote memorization and recall of information, such as definitions, formulas, or terms.
Discussing a new policy: This involves applying knowledge to new situations, analyzing different perspectives, and engaging in higher-order thinking.
Reflecting on feelings about bullying: This involves analyzing personal experiences, identifying emotions, and evaluating the impact of behavior on self and others.
Practicing throwing and catching falls under the psychomotor domain of learning, which involves the development of physical skills. While physical skills can be a part of learning, they are not part of the cognitive domain of learning.
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acillllllllllll cevap lütfen
the nurse wishes to use a distraction technique when administering an injection to an anxious child. which technique would be best for the nurse to implement?
Interactive games would be the best technique to distract a pediatric patient while performing any medical procedure.
No of the patient's age, you are an experienced healthcare practitioner who understands the need of giving them a satisfying experience. But building trust is even more important when treating pediatric patients who are only starting to link the hospital setting with experiencing pain.
You'll have time to gather supplies and ready the injection site without pepping up their interest if you open the app and launch the game a few minutes before you start the process. They will be completely immersed in their game by the time you are prepared to begin.
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why are antihistamines usually not prescribed to patients who have a respiratory infection? group of answer choices can cause excessive fluid build up can make it easier for secretions to be cleared can cause excessive fluid build up and make secretions difficult to clear
The reason why antihistamines are not prescribed in patients with respiratory infections is can make it easier for secretions.
What are antihistamines?Antihistamines are a group of drugs used to relieve the symptoms of an allergic reaction. When the body is exposed to allergy-triggering substances (allergens), histamine will increase in number and cause an allergic reaction. Antihistamines work by blocking the action and reducing the amount of histamine released by the body. That way, the symptoms due to an allergic reaction can subside.
Certain types of antihistamines can also block nerve signals in the brain that control the nausea or vomiting response. Because of this, some antihistamines can be used to relieve nausea and vomiting, especially from motion sickness.
However, there are several types of antihistamines that should not be given to patients who have respiratory infections because they can make it easier for secretions.
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presbycusis is the most common age-related: group of answer choices visual disorder. form of dementia. variety of copd. type of hearing problem.
Presbycusis is the most common age-related type of hearing problem. Option B is correct.
The cumulative effect of aging on hearing is known as presbycusis, or age-related hearing loss. It is a gradual and permanent bilateral symmetrical age-related sensorineural hearing loss caused by cochlear degeneration or accompanying inner ear or auditory nerve degeneration. Higher frequencies are particularly affected by hearing loss.
Hearing loss that worsens with age but is not caused by natural aging (nosocusis and sociocusis) is not presbycusis, however distinguishing the specific impacts of different types of hearing loss can be difficult. Presbycusis is caused by a mix of genetics, cumulative environmental exposures, and pathophysiological changes associated with age. There are no known preventative strategies at this time; therapy consists of a hearing aid or surgical implant.
The complete question is:
Presbycusis is the most common age-related
a. form of dementia.b. type of hearing problem.c. visual disorder.d. variety of COPD.To learn more about Presbycusis, here
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Patients with pheochromocytoma should avoid which of the following classes of drugs because of the possibility of developing hypertensive crisis?a. Beta-2 agonists
b. Beta-3 agonists
c. Beta-7 agonists
d. Ipratropium bromide
Patients with pheochromocytoma should avoid A. Beta-2-agonists.
In general , in case of pheochromocytoma the agents that are known to provoke pheochromocytoma paroxysm are beta-adrenergic blocker in absence of alpha-adrenergic blockade also glucagon, histamine, metoclopramide they should be avoided.
Hence ,Preoperative preparation may requires combined alpha and beta blockade in order to control the blood pressure and to prevent an intraoperative hypertensive crisis. Alpha-adrenergic blockade are the drugs used for controlling the blood pressure and prevent a hypertensive crisis .
Hence , A is the correct option
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a nurse organizes care for a family by focusing on the common tasks of family life and considering a longitudinal view of the family life cycle. which theory is being applied?
A nurse organizes a care for a family by focusing on the common tasks of family life and a longitudinal view of the family life cycle. The theory which is being applied in this scenario is Family developmental and life cycle theory. Option C is correct.
This theory views the family as a complex system that goes through various stages and transitions over time. It focuses on the tasks that families must accomplish at each stage, as well as the challenges and stressors that families may face.
By considering a longitudinal view of the family life cycle, the nurse can better understand the needs of the family and help to organize care that is appropriate for their specific stage of development.
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--The given question is incomplete, the complete question is
"A nurse organizes care for a family by focusing on the common tasks of family life and considering a longitudinal view of the family life cycle. Which of the following theories is being applied? a. Family systems b. Bioecological systems c. Family developmental and life cycle d. Capacity building model"--
what is the best way to shorten this sentence using standard abbreviations: client complained of pain in the right metacarpophalangeal joint after approximately 15 minutes of passive range of motion.
The best way to shorten this sentence using standard abbreviations is: "Pt c/o R MCP pain after ~15 min of PROM."
In this sentence, "Pt" is the standard abbreviation for "patient," "c/o" is the standard abbreviation for "complained of," "R" is the standard abbreviation for "right," "MCP" is the standard abbreviation for "metacarpophalangeal," "~" is the standard abbreviation for "approximately," and "PROM" is the standard abbreviation for "passive range of motion." By using these abbreviations, we are able to shorten the original sentence while still accurately conveying the same information.
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a health organization that studies the health characteristics of the population in a specific area and then implements a health education plan geared towards that target population is engaged in what? group of answer choices b. epidemiology d. health policy and management c. community health a. biostatistics
A health organization which studies the health characteristics of the population that is in a specific area and then implements a health education plan which is absolutely geared towards that target population is engaged in is known as a Community Health.
Public health is the science and art of preventing disease and promoting health. Health can be explained as a circumstance of the complete physical, mental, social, emotional, and spiritual well-being of an individual. It is with respect to not merely the absence of disease or infirmity. It determines the complete psychology and physiology of an individual.
Public health is the general science of protecting and improving the health of people and their communities. This work is achieved by promoting a lot of healthy lifestyles, researching disease and injury prevention, and detecting, analyzing, preventing, and responding to infectious diseases.
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you hate vegetables, but you eat them so you won't have a heart attack. what type of operant conditioning explains why you eat vegetables?
Negative reinforcement type of operant conditioning explains why you eat vegetables.
Operant behavior is defined as conduct that is "controlled" by its consequences. In practice, operant conditioning is the investigation of reversible behavior that is sustained through reinforcement schedules. We examine empirical investigations as well as theoretical approaches to two major types of operant behavior: interval timing and choice. Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental conditioning, is a kind of learning in which actions are influenced by associating inputs with reinforcement or punishment.
By reducing unpleasant consequences or cues, negative reinforcement tries to enhance specified behaviors. It is a component of the operant conditioning learning theory. Positive reinforcement, which enhances behavior through rewards, is also included in this approach.
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what are three nursing interventions for someone who has atelectasis? group of answer choices staying in bed educating how to use an incentive spirometer educating about deep breathing exercises early mobilization
Three nursing interventions for someone who has atelectasis include educating them about how to use an incentive spirometer, educating them about deep breathing exercises, and encouraging early mobilization.
Incentive spirometry involves the use of a device that helps to encourage deep breathing and improve lung function. The nurse can teach the patient how to properly use the spirometer, including how to take slow, deep breaths and hold the breath for several seconds. This can help to prevent atelectasis and promote healing.
Deep breathing exercises can also be beneficial for patients with atelectasis. The nurse can instruct the patient to take slow, deep breaths and cough regularly to help clear secretions from the lungs. This can help to prevent the accumulation of secretions and improve lung function.
Encouraging early mobilization can also be beneficial for patients with atelectasis. The nurse can help the patient get out of bed and walk around, which can help to promote lung expansion and improve oxygenation. This can also help to prevent complications such as pneumonia and deep vein thrombosis.
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The complete question is-
What are three nursing interventions for someone who has atelectasis?
the nurse provides guidance to parents of a 3 year old child. instructions should include: group of answer choices keep the poison control center's number close to the phone the proper use of sports equipment restrain the child in a rear facing care seat in the front seat of the car drug and alcohol education
The nurse provides anticipatory guidance to parents of a 3-year-old child. Instructions should include: Option B - The use of syrup of ipecac for accidental poisonings.
Nurses play an important role in teaching parents how to keep their toddler's environment safe by providing instructions such as keeping ipecac syrup on hand, keeping the Poison Control Center number near the phone, using child-resistant containers and cupboard safety closures, and keeping medicines and other poisonous materials locked away. Infants should be restrained in rear-facing car seats, school-age children should be taught how to use sports equipment properly, and adolescents should be educated about drug and alcohol addiction.
Therefore, Option B - The use of syrup of ipecac for accidental poisonings, is the correct statement.
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Complete Question is:
The nurse provides anticipatory guidance to parents of a 3-year-old child.
Instructions should include:
a. To restrain the child in the car seat facing rear in the back seat of the car.
b. The use of syrup of ipecac for accidental poisonings.
c. Drug and alcohol education.
d. The proper use of sports equipment.
a patient is seen for three extra visits during the third trimester of her 30-week pregnancy because of her history of pre-eclampsia during her previous pregnancy which puts her at risk for a recurrence of the problem during this pregnancy. no problems develop. what diagnosis code(s) is/are reported for these three extra visits?
The O09.893, Z3A.30 diagnostic code is reported for these three additional visits for Pre-eclampsia.
Pre-eclampsia usually begins after the 20th week of pregnancy in women with normal blood pressure. It can cause serious and even fatal complications for both mother and child. No symptoms occur. Hypertension and proteinuria are the main features. Also, the legs may be swollen or swollen, but this may be difficult to distinguish from a normal pregnancy. Pre-eclampsia can often be treated with oral or intravenous drugs until the baby is mature enough to deliver. This often involves weighing the risk of preterm birth against the risk of persistent preeclamptic symptoms.
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The nurse is caring for a client with heart failure. What sign will lead the nurse to suspect right-sided heart failure?
Blood entering the body from the veins may begin to back up when the right side of the heart becomes weak. Right-sided heart failure is what this is, and it frequently causes edema in the lower limbs.
What is the caring for a client with heart failure?Left-sided heart failure is typically caused by cardiac attacks, chronic high blood pressure, or coronary artery disease (CAD). In most cases, advanced left-sided heart failure leads to the development of right-sided heart failure, which is then treated similarly.
Breathlessness while moving around or upon lying down. Weakness and exhaustion. Legs, ankles, and feet swelling irregular or fast heartbeat. When the heart muscle is not functioning normally, cardiac failure ensues.
Therefore, the fluid build-up sign will lead the nurse to suspect right-sided heart failure.
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pregnant patient presents to labor and delivery with the baby in a breech presentation. during the delivery the doctor attempts to turn the baby (version of the breech presentation) while it is still in the uterus. the baby turns but then immediately resumes his previous breech position. can this service (the version of the breech) be billed? if so, what is the code?
To move a baby from a breech position to a head-down position, a surgery known as external cephalic version, or ECV, is performed. It usually takes place around week 37 of pregnancy and increases your chances of giving birth vaginally.
Healthcare professionals will employ the external cephalic version (also known as ECV or EV) treatment to turn a new born from the breech position to the head-down position. A baby is said to be in a breech position when its feet or buttocks emerge first or lie horizontally across your uterus (called a transverse lie). During pregnancy, a baby regularly shifts positions. The majority of new born will turn to lie head-down at about 36 weeks of pregnancy. This occurs in your uterus when your baby gets ready to be born naturally. Head-down posture is referred to as cephalic or vertex presentation, and it's the preferred position for a vaginal birth.
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after confirming the patient's name, what should a pharmacy technician verify when a nurse picks up a patient's medication at the hospital pharmacy window?
When a nurse picks up a patient’s medication at the hospital pharmacy window, the pharmacy technician should verify the patient name, the medication name.
The medicine, route of administration, and frequence of administration. They should also check the case's disinclinations, and the croaker 's orders for the drug. also, the technician must insure that the drug is within its expiration date, and that the case has been counseled on it. The technician should also make sure that the case understands the side
goods and any preventives they should take while taking the drug. Eventually, they should review the case's record to make sure there are no contraindications with any other specifics they're taking.
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a client is newly prescribed a medication that must be taken on an empty stomach. which statement by the nurse best describes why some medications should be taken before meals?
Some medications should be taken on an empty stomach because they can be more effective if food does not interfere with the absorption of the dr-ug.
Food can reduce the action of the medicine by contending for immersion. Taking dr-ug on an empty stomach can help insure that the full cure of the dr-ug is delivered to the body and that the medicine reaches its maximum effectiveness. also, some specifics may beget stomach worried or nausea when taken with food,
so taking them on an empty stomach can reduce the chance of these side goods. It's important to follow the instructions on the tradition marker to insure the dr-ug is taken rightly.
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There are two codes for limited lymphadenectomy for staging: 38562 and 38564. Both of these codes are separate procedure codes. In your own words explain what is meant by "separate procedure". Write one well-written paragraph and answer the above question to earn 10 points.
while riding a bicycle on a narrow road, the patient was hit from behind and thrown into a ditch, sustaining a pelvic fracture. what complications does the nurse know to monitor for that are common to pelvic fractures?
The nurse should monitor for potential complications such as internal bleeding, neurovascular compromise, infection, and deep vein thrombosis (DVT) following a pelvic fracture, as these are common among patients with this injury.
Damage to blood arteries in the pelvis might result in internal bleeding, which may call for rapid treatment to stop shock or other problems. Pressure on neurons or blood arteries can result in neurovascular compromise, which can cause excruciating pain, edema, and functional impairment. Due to the exposed incision and exposure to environmental toxins, infection is a concern that may call for antibiotics or other therapies.
Finally, DVT might develop as a result of decreased blood flow and movement, necessitating prophylaxis or therapy to avoid potentially fatal consequences including pulmonary embolism.
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a nurse is preparing to convert a client's iv to an intermittent infusion device. the iv is connected to extension tubing. before disconnecting the iv tubing from the extension tubing, the nurse clamps the extension tubing for which reason?
A nurse is preparing to convert a client's iv to an intermittent infusion device. the iv is connected to extension tubing. before disconnecting the iv tubing from the extension tubing because it is essential process.
It is essential component of the process both to attach the primed saline lock adapter to the extension tubing and to flush the tubing with normal saline to confirm patency.
Replacement of an intravenous tubing, including various steps add-on devices, no more frequently than at 72-hour intervals unless clinically indicated.
A nurse is preparing to convert a client's iv to an intermittent infusion device. the iv is connected to extension tubing. before disconnecting the iv tubing from the extension tubing because it is essential process.
The health care workers control the infusion rate by using a clamp on the IV tubing, which can either speed up or slow down the flow of IV fluids.
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