The data set shows the admission prices at several amusement parks. $25, $24, $12, $25, $19, $27. Find the mean absolute deviation of the admission prices

Answer:

P = 36 units

Step-by-step explanation:

Pythagoras

ip = √(12² + 9²)

= √(144 + 81)

= √225

= √15²

= 15 units

P = 9units + 12units + 15units = 36 units

Answer:

It takes 0.619 hours (approximately 37 minutes) for the van to catch up with the storm.

They have driven 33.43 miles

They will catch up when their distances are equal.

Step-by-step explanation:

The speed of the van is 54 mph, and the speed of the storm is 33 mph. They are going in the same direction, so the relative speed is the difference of their speeds:

relative speed = 54 - 33 = 21 mph

Now, to find the time when the van reaches the storm, we just need to use the equation:

distance = speed * time

13 = 21 * t

t = 13 / 21 = 0.619 hours

The distance traveled by the van is:

distance = 54 * 0.619 = 33.43 miles

The van will catch up when the distances are equal (the distance of the storm is 13 + 33*0.619 = 33.43 miles)

The surface area of the solid cuboid is 76 cm²

From the question, we are to determine the surface area of the cuboid

The surface area of a cuboid is given by the formula,

Surface area = 2(lb + lh + bh)

Where l is the length

b is the breadth

and h is the height

Let

l = 5 cm

b = 4 cm

h = 2cm

Then,

Surface area = 2(5×4 + 5×2 + 4×2)

Surface area = 2(20 + 10 + 8)

Surface area = 2(38)

Surface area = 76 cm²

Hence, the surface area of the solid cuboid is 76 cm²

Learn more on Calculating the surface area here: https://brainly.com/question/26403859

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Answer:

8 glasses

Step-by-step explanation:

Total volume : 1500 ml

Glasses capacity : 180 ml

Glasses can be filled : 1500 / 180 = 8.33

Notice it says completely fill thus it is 8 glasses

Hello!

The cost of the book is $150.

CP = [tex]\frac{SP(100)}{100 + PP}[/tex]

Basically, what this formula is saying is that to find the cost price (CP), we must multiply the sale price (SP) by 100, and divide the product by the sum of 100 + profit percentage (PP).

CP = [tex]\frac{180(100)}{100 + 20}[/tex]

CP = [tex]\frac{18000}{120}[/tex]

CP = 150

Answer:

$150

Step-by-step explanation:

let cp=x

(20/100*x) +x=180

1/5x+x=180

6x/5=180

6x=180*5

x=(180*5)/6

x=150

Answer:

x² - 10x + 16 = 0

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the solutions x = 8 and x = 2 , then the factors are

(x - 8) and (x - 2) and the equation is

(x - 8)(x - 2) = 0 ← expand left side using FOIL

x² - 10x + 16 = 0

Answer:

w=-16

Step-by-step explanation:

divide -192 by 12 to isolate w

Answer:

w=-16

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1-√10

1+√10

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

-3

Step-by-step explanation:

Because when y is 4, x is 4/-2 = -2

So when y is 6,

x= 6/-2

= -3

Answer:  10.35 miles per hour

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\dfrac{63,756\ feet}{70\ minutes}\times \dfrac{1\ mile}{5280\ feet}\times \dfrac{60\ minutes}{1\ hour}=\dfrac{(63,756)(60)\ miles}{(70)(5280)\ hour}=\dfrac{10.35\ miles}{hour}[/tex]

Answer:

The experimental probability of spinning a number less than 2

P( x<2) = 0.14

Step-by-step explanation:

Given data table

x                        7           10            8                8           8            9      = total 50

P(X=x)    [tex]\frac{7}{50} = 0.14[/tex]     [tex]\frac{10}{50} = 0.2[/tex]  [tex]\frac{8}{50} = 0.16[/tex]   [tex]\frac{8}{50} = 0.16[/tex]  [tex]\frac{8}{50} = 0.16[/tex]   [tex]\frac{9}{50} = 0.18[/tex]  

Sum of the probabilities is equal ∑x P(x=x)

                                 = 0.14 +0.2 +0.16 +0.16+0.16 +0.18

                                 =1

Given data table

spinning

a spinner             1            2            3                4           5             6                    

x                        7             10            8                8           8            9      

P(X=x)            0.14     0.2         0.16             0.16         0.16        0.18    

The experimental probability of spinning a number less than 2

P( x<2) = P( x=0) +P(x=1)

          = 0 + 0.14

The experimental probability of spinning a number less than 2

P( x<2) = 0.14

Answer:

Thinking Process

(i) Firstly, determine the factors of quadratic polynomial by splitting middle term.

(ii) The two different values of zeroes put in bioquadratic polynomial.

(iii) In both the case if remainder is zero, then bioquadratic polynomial is divisible by

quadratic polynomial.

Answer:

2x⁴ - 5x³ + 2x² - x + 2=

2x²(x²-3x+2) +x³-2x² -x +2=

2x²(x²-3x+2) + x(x²-3x+2) +x² -3x +2=

(x²-3x+2)(2x²+x+1)

since x²-3x+2 is the factor of the given polynomial, we can state the polynomial is divisible by x²-3x+2

-------------

note: x²+3x+2 is not the factor of the given polynomial

Answer:  

1

Step-by-step explanation:

8-1,2,4.....

25-1,5...

Step-by-step explanation:

21% of 36570

21/100 x 36570 = 7679.7

12.2% of 640

12.2/100 x 640 = 78.08

87.5% of 860

87.5/100 x 860 = 752.5

37.5% of 3200

37.5/100 x 3200 = 1200

Answer:

The answer is "[tex]\bold{6\sqrt(2)i+2\sqrt(2)j)}[/tex]"

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

[tex]w=3\sqrt(2)i+\sqrt(2)j[/tex]

To Find:

2w=?

Solution:

[tex]\Rightarrow 2w= 2\times w\\\\\Rightarrow 2w= 2\times (3\sqrt(2)i+\sqrt(2)j)\\\\\Rightarrow 2w= 6\sqrt(2)i+2\sqrt(2)j)\\[/tex]

Answer:

tip is $6

Step-by-step explanation:

multiply 40 by 0.15 so 6

Answer:

a-4/5+1/6 (n-1)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

a-4/5+1/6 (n-1)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The answer is 6.

Step-by-step explanation:

To find this answer, divide 24 by 3 and you get 8. 8 minus 2 is 6.

Answer:

The most reasonable estimate for the number of Getaway Travel Agency clients who expect to go on 3 vacations in the next year is 241.

Step-by-step explanation:

The best estimate for the proportion of clients who expect to go on 3 vacations is the same proportion of the sample.

Sample:

45 clients.

Of those, 21 expected to go on 3 vacations in the next year.

21/45 = 0.4667

Out of the 516 clients:

0.4667*516 = 240.8

Rounding up

The most reasonable estimate for the number of Getaway Travel Agency clients who expect to go on 3 vacations in the next year is 241.

Answer:

$255

Step-by-step explanation:

250*.85=212.5

212.5*1.2=255

Answer:

Q1. x = 10

Q2. x = 7

Step-by-step explanation:

The steps are :

Q1.

[tex]5x - 6 = 3x + 14[/tex]

[tex]5x - 3x = 14 + 6[/tex]

[tex]2x = 20[/tex]

[tex]x = 20 \div 2[/tex]

[tex]x = 10[/tex]

Q2.

[tex]6x - 11 = 4x + 3[/tex]

[tex]6x - 4x = 3 + 11[/tex]

[tex]2x = 14[/tex]

[tex]x = 14 \div 2[/tex]

[tex]x = 7[/tex]

Answer:

[tex]x=10, \: x=7[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]5x -6 = 3x + 14[/tex]

[tex]5x -6+6-3x = 3x + 14+6-3x[/tex]

[tex]5x -3x = 14+6[/tex]

[tex]2x=20[/tex]

[tex]x=\frac{20}{2}[/tex]

[tex]x=10[/tex]

[tex]6x - 11 = 4x + 3[/tex]

[tex]6x - 11+11-4x = 4x + 3+11-4x[/tex]

[tex]6x-4x = 3+11[/tex]

[tex]2x=14[/tex]

[tex]x=\frac{14}{2}[/tex]

[tex]x=7[/tex]

Answer:

Brainliest goes to me!

Step-by-step explanation:

3

3.268

lets only look at 3.2   .......

3.2 is rounded down to 3

Answer:

3.268 rounds to 3

Step-by-step explanation:

Please mark Brainliest

Answer:

4 days

Step-by-step explanation:

there are 8 pints in a gallon

Answer:

4 days.

please see the attached picture for full solution solution.

hope it helps

good luck on your assignment

Answer: Yes it's possible for Joshua to meet his goal of having $5,000 after 4 years.

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question, Joshua has $4,200 to invest for college which he invests $4,200 for 3 years and earns $630.

Interest = (Principal × Rate × Time)/100

630 = (4200 × R × 3)/100

630 = 12600R/100

12600R = 630 × 100

12600R = 63000

Interest rate =63000/12600 = 5%

Joshua's goal is to have $5,000 after 4 years. Is this possible if he invests with a rate of return of 6%?

Interest = (Principal × Rate × Time)/100

Interest = (4200 × 6 × 4)/100

= 100800/100

= $1008

At the end of 4 years, Joshua will have:

= $4200 + $1008

= $5208

Yes it's possible.

Answer:

x= 50

Step-by-step explanation:

The unknown angle is also x since we have an isosceles triangle and the bases angle are the same

The sum of the angles of a triangle are 180 degrees

x+x+80 =180

2x+80 = 180

Subtract 80 from each side

2x= 180-80

2x= 100

Divide by 2

2x/2 =100/2

x= 50

Answer:

[tex]x=50[/tex]°

Step-by-step explanation:

This is an isosceles triangle since 2 of it's sides are the same length. That means the missing angles are the same. Since a triangles' interior angles add up to 180°, we get:

(180°-80°)÷2=x°

100°÷2=x°

50°=x°

x°=50°

Answer:

Using the difference of squares this can be rewritten as (y² + 10)(y² - 10).

Answer:

(y² + 10)(y² - 10)

Step-by-step explanation:

y^2=y^4

Answer:

The length is 35 inches and the width is 15 inches.

Step-by-step explanation:

First work of the real length of the field. Given is the ratio of drawing to original and the dimensions of the drawing. so in real life the lawn measures 70 inches in length and 30 inches in width.

Now, we have to divide this in the ratio 1:2, which gives

The length of 35 inches and the width of 15 inches.

Hope this helps

Answer:

Your answer is 3 or C.. 35 inches and width of 15 :)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: RS

Step-by-step explanation:

A greater angle of a triangle is opposite a greater side. If angle Q is greater than angle R, then side RS is greater than side QS.

Because Q is the larger angle in the triangle, Then RS is the longest side.

Answer:

c) a right angle

Step-by-step explanation:

A right angle can be defined as angles that are created or formed by two non-common sides of adjacent, complementary angles.

These angles have the following attributes:

a) They are angles that are complementary angles. This means that the sum of these angles is equal to 90°

b) The angles are adjacent complementary angles: These means that the angles are next to each other.

Two non-common sides of adjacent, complementary angles form a right angle because they have a common vertex and arm.

Answer:

a right angle

Step-by-step explanation: