The non-nutritive chemical that is found in fruits and vegetables and have disease-preventing properties are known as Phytochemicals
What is Phytochemicals ?The amount of calories and other nutrients in non-nutritive substances is either zero or very low. They offer neither vitamins nor minerals. Artificial or non-caloric sweeteners frequently come to mind when discussing non-nutritive substances. In spite of the fact that they are not the only non-nutritive substances in existence, these ones are in fact not nutrients.
Additionally non-nutritive substances are phytochemicals. Phytochemicals are substances that are naturally present in plants, such as fruits and vegetables, and have the ability to improve one's health. Some phytochemicals are thought to guard against heart disease and cancer. Lycopene, for instance, which is present in red-orange fruits and vegetables and is thought to prevent prostate cancer.Learn more about Phytochemicals here:
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amy has been biting her fingernails for five years. her mother applied a terrible tasting medication to her fingernails to discourage her from biting them. so far, the nail biting has not decreased much even with the medication. what's one possible reason?
Her mother applied a terrible tasting medication to her fingernails to discourage her from biting them and the nail biting has not decreased much even with the use of the medication which is therefore as a result of previous learning history.
What is Medication?This is referred to as drugs which contains chemical substances and they are used to treat different types of sickness or illness.
In this scenario, her mom discouraged her from biting them and the nail biting has not decreased much even with the medication as a result of previous learning history or sensitivity to the consequence.
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the nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of end-stage renal disease. the client tells the nurse that a lawyer has prepared a living will and will be visiting the client today so that the will can be reviewed. the client also tells the nurse that the lawyer has asked for a witness to sign the will and requests that the nurse act as a witness. which is the most appropriate nursing response to the client?
The most appropriate nursing response to the client is to say that she is caring for a client with a diagnosis of end-stage renal disease.
What is renal disease?
Renal disease condition during which the kidneys stop working and are not able to remove waste and extra water from the blood or keep body chemicals in balance.
Therefore, The most appropriate nursing response to the client is to say that she is caring for a client with a diagnosis of end-stage renal disease.
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the drug called antabuse is considered an aversive drug because it helps people abstain from drinking alcohol by:
The medication known as antabuse is regarded as an unpleasant drug since it aids in alcohol abstinence by preventing the breakdown of an alcohol byproduct, which causes sensations of disease.
Since 1932, obsessive behaviour has been treated psychologically using the aversion therapy technique. Aversion therapy, also known as conversion therapy or reparative therapy, involves exposing a patient to the subject of their preoccupation while simultaneously subjecting them to an unpleasant and painful stimulation. The goal is to apply the principle of conditioning to make the patient identify their obsessive behaviour or addiction with a bad feeling. The strategy is grounded in the idea that by conditioning the patient to identify the targeted behaviour with pain, discomfort, or stress, they will stop doing it. Antabuse is a pharmacological variant of aversion therapy that causes unpleasant side effects when an individual who takes it consumes alcohol. Disulfiram, also known as the prescription drug Antabuse, is used to treat alcoholism in some recovery programs. It functions by preventing the enzyme that the body uses to metabolise alcohol.
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Developmental psychologists use measures at different levels of analysis. When dr gunnar collects spit sample to measure levels of the hormone, cortisol, in response to stress, which level of analysis is she using?.
When Dr. Gunnar collects spit samples to measure levels of the hormone, cortisol, in response to stress, the level of analysis she is using is systems-level measures.
System Level Measures are outcome-driven metrics that provide a structure for system integration and ongoing quality improvement. These requirements are made on a national level with a focus on children, young people, and vulnerable groups.
System Level Measures acknowledge that effective health outcomes depend on cooperation among health system partners. The implementation of the improvement plans for system-level measures (SLMs) in each district will therefore fall under the purview of the district alliances.
District alliances are local leadership groupings that comprise every PHO servicing the district's population as well as the DHB where they reside.
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a 21-year-old client has been recently diagnosed with agoraphobia. which situation is most likely to cause the client anxiety?
the health care practitioner is educating a client in the use of ophthalmic eye drops. what important information does the health care practitioner need to share with the client?
Ophthalmic eye drops are used to treat eye infections caused by bacteria which can be characterized by the appearance of symptoms in the form of red, watery eyes and discharge of yellow or green pus.
Ophthalmic eye dropsSeveral types of antibiotics that are often used to treat eye infections are chloramphenicol, gentamicin, tobramycin, ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin, bacitracin, neomycin, and polymyxin.
Ophthalmic eye drops that contain antibiotics only work effectively to kill bacteria, these drugs are not effective for treating eye infections caused by viruses or fungi.
Don't forget to keep ophthalmic eye drops in a place with cool temperatures or room temperature and avoid the sun. Try not to touch the tip of the bottle with your eyes, fingers or other surfaces to keep it free of germs. Do not share ophthalmic eye drops with other people and keep stored out of reach of children.
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the antipsychotic drugs that have been marketed in the past ten years, such as zyprexa (olanzepine), are referred to as:
In 2010 antipsychotic drugs racked up more than $16 billion in sales, according to IMS Health, a firm that tracks drug trends for the health-care industry. For the past three years they have ranked near or at the top of the best-selling classes of drugs, outstripping antidepressants and sometimes cholesterol medicines. A study published last year found that off-label antipsychotic prescriptions doubled between 1995 and 2008, from 4.4 million to 9 million. And a recent report by pharmacy benefits manager Medco estimated that the prevalence of the drugs’ use among adults ballooned more than 169 percent between 2001 and 2010.
Critics say the popularity of atypical antipsychotics reflects a combination of hype that the expensive medicines. designed to calm patients and to moderate the hallucinations and delusions of psychosis, are being used “promiscuously, recklessly,” often to control behavior and with little regard for their serious side effects. These include major, rapid weight gain — 40 pounds is not uncommon — Type 2 diabetes, breast development inboys, irreversible facial tics and, among the elderly, an increased risk of death.
Explanation:
Functional selectivity is the term that describes drugs that cause markedly different signaling through a single receptor (e.g., full agonist at one pathway and antagonist at a second). It has been widely recognized recently that this phenomenon impacts the understanding of mechanism of action of some drugs, and has relevance to drug discovery. One of the clinical areas where this mechanism has particular importance is in the treatment of schizophrenia. Antipsychotic drugs have been grouped according to both pattern of clinical action and mechanism of action. The original antipsychotic drugs such as chlorpromazine and haloperidol have been called typical or first generation. They cause both antipsychotic actions and many side effects (extrapyramidal and endocrine) that are ascribed to their high affinity dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. Drugs such as clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone and others were then developed that avoided the neurological side effects (atypical or second generation antipsychotics). These compounds are divided mechanistically into those that are high affinity D2 and 5-HT2A antagonists, and those that also bind with modest affinity to D2, 5-HT2A, and many other neuroreceptors. There is one approved third generation drug, aripiprazole, whose actions have been ascribed alternately to either D2 partial agonism or D2 functional selectivity. Although partial agonism has been the more widely accepted mechanism, the available data are inconsistent with this mechanism. Conversely, the D2 functional selectivity hypothesis can accommodate all current data for aripiprazole, and also impacts on discovery compounds that are not pure D2 antagonists.The serendipitous observations about antipsychotic actions of chlorpromazine ultimately led to the finding that these antipsychotic effects were due to antidopaminergic actions [2]. Numerous antipsychotics were subsequently developed that, like chlorpromazine, work primarily as dopamine D2 receptor antagonists. Drugs of this type (first called typical and now named first generation antipsychotics) include a variety of different chemical classes. These typical drugs can be classified as high, intermediate, or low potency based on their average daily dose range, with their clinical potency often highly correlated with their affinity for the dopamine D2 receptor . Thus, actions at dopamine systems have been a critical mechanism in all currently approved antipsychotic drugs and many of the compounds in the discovery and development pipeline.The serendipitous observations about antipsychotic actions of chlorpromazine [1] ultimately led to the finding that these antipsychotic effects were due to antidopaminergic actions . Numerous antipsychotics were subsequently developed that, like chlorpromazine, work primarily as dopamine D2 receptor antagonists. Drugs of this type (first called typical and now named first generation antipsychotics) include a variety of different chemical classes. These typical drugs can be classified as high, intermediate, or low potency based on their average daily dose range, with their clinical potency often highly correlated with their affinity for the dopamine D2 receptor. Thus, actions at dopamine systems have been a critical mechanism in all currently approved antipsychotic drugs and many of the compounds in the discovery and development pipeline.
patient is concerned about pigmented skin lesions on her body, her pmd informed the patient that these lesions must be monitored visitor ability to transform to malignant melanoma, and these lesions are referred as to?
Those pores and skin spots and growths are due to melanocyte cells inside the pores and skin. Melanocytes are the cells that produce melanin, the substance that offers coloration (pigment) to the pores and skin cancers
A visual self-exam by using the affected person and a scientific examination by way of the health care company may be used to screen for pores and skin cancers. all through a pores and skin examination a health practitioner or nurse tests the skin for moles, birthmarks, or other pigmented areas that look bizarre in color, length, form, or texture.
Communicate with your health practitioner in case you observe modifications in your pores and skin which include a brand new growth, a sore that doesn't heal, an exchange in a vintage boom, or any of the A-B-C-D-Es of melanoma. A trade to your skin is the most not unusual signal of skin cancer. this will be a brand new increase, a sore that does not heal, or an alternate in a mole.
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which prescribed medication would the nurse anticipate providing additional information to the patient expressing fear of cluster headaches recurring during an upcoming flight?
The prescribed medication the nurse anticipate for the patient who expressed fear of cluster headaches recurring during an upcoming flight is ergotamine.
Ergotamine is a medication that's used to prevent and treat acute migraine attacks. It is usually sold under the brand name Migergot, Cafergot, and Ergomar. This medicine works by preventing blood vessels in the head from expanding.
In the U.S., ergotamine is sold in tablets, sometimes with caffeine as a combination. The side effects of ergotamine include nausea, vomiting, raised arterial blood pressure, vasoconstriction, and tachycardia. Make sure to let your doctor knows about your allergies, the medicines you're taking, and your health problem when the doctor is prescribing this medication to you.
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a pregnant woman with diabetes is having a glycosylated hemoglobin (hgba1c) level drawn. which result would require the nurse to revise the client's plan of care?
8.5% rationale: an HbA1C level of more than 8% indicates poor control and the need for intervention is the result that would require the nurse to revise the client's plan of care.
Hemoglobin that has been bonded chemically to sugar is known as glycated hemoglobin. When present in human bloodstreams, the majority of monosaccharides, including glucose, galactose, and fructose, naturally link with hemoglobin.
A glycated hemoglobin test calculates the level of blood glucose (sugar). The test is frequently referred to as A1c or HbA1c. Detect prediabetes, which is elevated blood sugar levels that can result in diabetes, heart disease, and stroke.
You have too much sugar in your blood if your HbA1c is high. As a result, you have a higher risk of developing serious eye and foot complications as a result of your diabetes.
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the patient undergoes a cardiac catheterization that requires the use of contrast dyes during the procedure. to detect signs of contrast-induced kidney injury, the nurse should
The patient undergoes a cardiac catheterization that requires the use of contrast dyes during the procedure. to detect signs of contrast-induced kidney injury, the nurse should affects nearly two thirds of patients.
Cardiac catheterization (kath-uh-tur-ih-ZAY-shun) is a manner in which a thin, bendy tube (catheter) is guided through a blood vessel to the heart to diagnose or treat positive coronary heart situations, which include clogged arteries or abnormal heartbeats.
Cardiac catheterization isn't taken into consideration a surgical operation because your issuer may not make a big incision. also, the recuperation time is plenty shorter than that of surgical operation. In some cases, your issuer may suggest surgery in a while, depending on the consequences of your manner.
Situations that catheterization can help to diagnose and treat encompass coronary artery disorder (arteriosclerosis); heart valve ailment; congenital coronary heart ailment, such as patent foramen ovale (PFO) and ventricular septal defect; congestive coronary heart failure; and cardiomyopathy or growth of the coronary heart.
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a student asks the healthcare professional to explain the function of the papillary muscles. what response by the professional is best?
The papillary muscles' function is to prevent the atrioventricular valves from being expelled backward.
The papillary muscles of the heart are pillar-like muscles that are attached to the walls of the ventricles. They play an important role in maintaining proper cardiac valvular function.
Papillary muscles are classified into three types:
1. Anterior papillary muscle
2. Posterior papillary muscle
3. Septal papillary muscle
The chordae tendineae of the anterior and posterior cusps attach to the anterior papillary muscle. The chordae tendineae of the posterior and septal cusps attach to the posterior papillary muscle. The chordae tendineae of the anterior and septal cusps attach to the septal papillary muscle.
The largest muscle is the anterior papillary, the posterior is frequently bifid or triangulate, and the septal is the smallest. The chordae for the adjacent components of the cusps they support are supplied by these papillary muscles.
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which condition contributes to a patient's increased risk for acquiring an opportinustic fungal infection
Patients who have secondary immunodeficiencies are more vulnerable to getting sick from common, less dangerous pathogenic bacteria, opportunistic fungi, and viruses.
Which two kinds of contraindications are there?Two categories of contraindications exist: The term "relative contraindication" refers to the need for caution while using two medications or medical treatments simultaneously. (If the advantages outweigh the risks, doing so is permissible.) Absolute contraindications include anything that might put your life in danger.
A circumstance in which a certain therapy or technique is wholly contraindicated is known as an absolute contraindication. For instance, aspirin is nearly usually not recommended for usage in children due to the risk that it will result in Reye syndrome.
A condition that acts as a justification not to get a certain medical therapy is known as a contraindication in medicine.
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what teaching can the nurse provide regarding administration of antibiotics that helps decrease the development of resistance?
According to the given statement Take the entire course as prescribed even if the symptoms have subsided.
What are antibiotics use for?Drugs known as antibiotics are used to treat infections caused by bacteria in both people and animals. They accomplish this by either eliminating the bacteria or by impeding their ability to grow and procreate. Bacteria are germs. Antibiotics are often taken with water since taking them with dairy products, alcohol, or fruit juices might change how some drugs are absorbed by the body.
When do I need antibiotics?Using antibiotics when. Antibiotics are only effective against specific bacterial illnesses; other bacterial infections also heal on their own. We rely on antibiotics to treat serious, potentially fatal conditions including pneumonia and septic, the body's extreme response to an infection.
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a client with severe acute respiratory syndrome privately informs the nurse of a desire not to be placed on a ventilator if the condition worsens. the client's partner and children have repeatedly expressed their desire that every measure be taken for the client. the most appropriate intervention by the nurse would be to:
Encourage the individual to think about a power of attorney or living will.
A nurse is what kind of worker?A nurses is a member of the medical profession who tends to patients. Giving mental health assistance, taking vital signs, and treating patients are all possible aspects of being a nurse. The type of doctor your choose to be will determine the type of care you offer, however many nurses collaborate with physicians or midwives.
Can a nurse become a physician?Without a doubt, an RN can become a physician. By obtaining a Bachelor's degree then entering to medical school like any other student, they can obtain a MD or DO. Or, a registered nurse (RN) could earn a doctor or nurse (Aprns), which is an academic degree that confers no clinical authority.
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the nurse is assessing a client with a known history of chronic heart failure. which finding indicates poor perfusion to the tissues?
Capillary refill time is increasing and Urinary output is 20 mL/hr for the past 2 hours and Blood pressure is 126/72 mmHg.
What is chronic heart failure?The inability of the heart muscle to pump enough blood reaches the body's needs for oxygenated blood causes heart failure, a chronic, progressive ailment. In essence, the heart is overwhelmed by its workload.
What is the lifespan of chronic heart failure?According to one study, persons with heart failure live 10 years less than people without the condition. According to another study, persons with chronic heart failure had survival rates between 80percentage points and 90% for the first year, but that fell to between 50% and 60% for the fifth year and then to just 30% for the final ten years.
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this syndrome is a group of disorders in which intestinal absorption of dietary nutrients is impaired. what is the most probable diagnosis and the most likely cause?
Malabsorption syndrome is the most probable diagnosis for the disorder in which intestinal absorption of dietary nutrients is impaired.
The most likely cause: is the presence of mucosal cells in intestinal lining that are defective.
A condition known as "malabsorption syndrome" describes the body's small intestine's failure to absorb substances such as lipids, carbs, vitamins, minerals, and liquids. A common symptom of this illness is persistent diarrhea. The "stool test" is the initial diagnostic procedure to see if a patient has this syndrome.
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the nurse is caring for a client in the cardiac intensive care unit (cicu) after a myocardial infarction (mi). which drug will the nurse administer that will decrease contractility?
The nurse is caring for a client in the cardiac intensive care unit after a myocardial infarction, so the drug that the nurse will administer that will decrease contractility is Metoprolol.
What is metoprolol?Metoprolol, which is sold under the brand name Lopressor among others, is a selective β1 receptor blocker medication. Metoprolol is used to treat chest pain due to poor blood flow to the heart, high blood pressure, and a number of conditions that involve an abnormally fast heart rate. Metoprolol is also used to prevent headaches in those with migraine and to prevent further heart problems after myocardial infarction.
Metoprolol can be taken by mouth or given intravenously. It is often taken twice a day.
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The nurse is caring for a client after a myocardial infarction (mi). the drug given by the nurse that will reduce contractility is the drug metoprolol.
Metoprolol for what disease?
Metoprolol is useful for reducing heart rate, blood pressure, and heart workload. This medication is usually used to treat high blood pressure, chest pain (angina), and heart failure. Metoprolol works by blocking the action of certain natural chemicals in the body that affect the heart and blood vessels. Because of this, this drug can lower heart rate, blood pressure, and strain on the heart.
What is meant by myocardial infarction?Acute myocardial infarction is the medical term for a heart attack. This condition occurs when blood flow to the coronary arteries of the heart is narrowed. Both of these things will make the heart muscle oxygen deprived and damaged
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a 34-year-old client birthed a healthy baby boy 5 days ago. the client is experiencing insomnia and weepiness, lasting for short periods of time each day. what factor/condition does the nurse believe is causing this experience?
Manic depression and bipolar disorder are both mental illnesses that cause extreme highs and lows in mood as well as changes in sleep, activity, thinking, and behavior.
What symptoms indicate bipolar disorder?Much of the time feeling depressed, despondent, or irritated weak in vigor. Insomnia treatment for bipolar Trazodone, Amitriptyline, Klonopin.
Persistent anxiety or worry that is excessive compared to the effects of the occurrences in a number of different areas. overanalyzing strategies and answers to account for all potential worst-case scenarios interpreting circumstances and events as dangerous even though they are not handling uncertainty with difficulty.
Therefore, Manic depression and bipolar disorder are both mental illnesses that cause extreme highs and lows in mood as well as changes in sleep, activity, thinking, and behavior.
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what is the most likely explanation for the variability in expression of disease severity for cystic fibrosis?
In patients with cystic fibrosis (CF), genetic variants within and outside the CFTR locus contribute to the variability of the disease severity
What is cystic fibrosis ?In cystic fibrosis, the airways become blocked with thick, sticky mucus, making breathing challenging. For bacteria and fungi, the thick mucus is a perfect breeding ground. The lungs, digestive system, and other body organs are seriously harmed by the inherited disorder known as cystic fibrosis (CF).
The type of gene variation and the severity of the illness are related. For a child to have the condition, one copy of each parent's gene must be inherited. Children who inherit just one copy won't get cystic fibrosis.Learn more about Cystic fibrosis here:
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a client in the critical care unit is receiving aminoglycosides for an infectious process. what does the nurse need to monitor?
Nurses should keep an eye out for indicators of diminished renal function in patients using aminoglycosides, nurses need to monitor liver function tests.
What are aminoglycosides?Testing for liver function patients with myasthenia gravis should avoid aminoglycosides due to the possibility of long-term neuromuscular inhibition.
Aminoglycosides are linked to major toxic side effects, such as acute kidney damage and impairment to hearing and/or balance (ototoxicity) (nephrotoxicity).
Therefore, nurses need to monitor liver function tests when clients receive aminoglycosides.
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after teaching a group of nursing students about intellectual disability, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which as the most common etiology?
The students list the genetic disorders with the most prevalent etiologies.
Is it difficult to be accepted to nursing school?There is a ton of material to learn, challenging exams, confusing schedules, and an endless supply of assignments. All of these characteristics might make it difficult for you to succeed academically. Nursing is an extremely competitive field from the moment you begin the application process until you complete it.
Does math have a role in nursing?Despite the fact that almost all institutions need at least one college-level math course, usually algebra, nursing in the "real world" generally just requires basic arithmetic skills.
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while performing a morning assessment of an elderly patient on a subacute medical unit, the nurse notes petechiae on a patient's lower extremities. when checking this patient's most recent blood work, the nurse should pay particular attention to the patient's level of:
The nurse should pay close attention to the patient's number of platelets while reviewing this patient's most recent blood test. A platelet count lab test counts the number of platelets in your blood. Blood components called platelets aid in blood clotting. Compared to red or white blood cells, they are smaller.
Our blood contains tiny, colorless cell fragments called platelets, or thrombocytes, which form clots to slow or stop bleeding. The sponge-like tissue inside our bones called bone marrow is where platelets are created. Stem cells that differentiate into red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets are found in the bone marrow.
So, we can say that a nurse on a subacute medical unit observes petechiae on a patient's lower extremities while conducting a morning assessment of an elderly patient. Therefore, the nurse should focus especially on the patient's level of platelets when examining this patient's most recent blood work.
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Complete Question
While performing a morning assessment of an elderly patient on a subacute medical unit, the nurse notes petechiae on a patient's lower extremities. When checking this patient's most recent blood work, the nurse should pay particular attention to the patient's level of:
1- Platelets
2- Neutrophils
3- Iron
4- Albumin
a patient experiences nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and lightheadedness after meals following gastric bypass surgery. the nurse recognizes these as symptoms of:
If a patient experiences nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and lightheadedness after meals following gastric bypass surgery, then the nurse may recognize these as symptoms of dysphagia.
What is the dysphagia condition?The dysphagia condition refers to a medical condition in which a person may have swallow health problems and thereby he/she can show several symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramping, etc., after meals.
The health symptoms may also appear when the individual drinks (not only eating) because health problems are associated with the difficulty to move both solids and liquids from the mouth to the stomach.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the dysphagia condition is associated with swallow health problems in an individual or patient and therefore a series of common symptoms as above can be described to be related to this type of disease.
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a 9-year-old patient with pharyngitis later develops complications resulting in damage to his heart valves. what could have prevented the complications? group of answer choices penicillin treatment at the first sign of heart valve damage acetaminophen there is no preventative treatment immunization against streptococcus in infancy penicillin treatment of the pharyngitis
Pharyngitis later develops complications resulting in damage to his heart valves and the complications could have been prevented through penicillin treatment at the first sign of heart valve damage.
Pharyngitis is pain or irritation within the throat that may occur with or while not swallowing, usually accompanies infections, like a chilly or contagious disease. The foremost common explanation for a inflammatory disease (pharyngitis) could be a infection, like a chilly or the contagious disease. It is caused by a scourge and resolves on its own.
Penicillins are accustomed to treat infections caused by bacterium. They work by killing the bacterium or preventing their growth. There are many completely different styles of penicillins. Each is employed to treat completely different styles of infections.
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the nurse is caring for a preterm newborn with nasal flaring, grunting, and sternal retractions. after administering surfactant, which assessment is most important for the nurse to monitor?
Respiratory rate is the assessment which is most important for the nurse to monitor after administering surfactant in a newborn with nasal flaring and is denoted as option D.
What is Lungs?This is referred to as the central organ of the respiratory system and contains specialized structures which ensures that there is adequate gaseous exchange in organisms.
Pulmonary surfactant are administered when an individual has a respiratory distress disease as it helps to line the alveoli to lower surface tension. This prevents atelectasis during breathing which is known as the collapse of the lungs.
The respiratory rate is referred to as the number of breaths per unit of time and is used to assess if appropriate oxygen is taken into their body to be used by the cells for adequate functioning.
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The options are:
A) Arterial blood gases
B) Breath sounds
C) Oxygen saturation
D) Respiratory rate
a client presents with uncharacteristic chest pain, and his ecg reveals t-wave elevation. this finding suggests an abnormality with which aspect of the cardiac cycle?
This finding suggests an abnormality with the Ventricular repolarization aspect of the cardiac cycle.
A cardiac cycle is a process by which oxygen-depleted blood is converted to oxygen-rich blood in the lungs before being pushed by the heart to the body through the aorta.
The cardiac cycle describes the activity of the human heart from the beginning of one heartbeat to the beginning of the next. It consists of two phases: a systole, during which the heart muscle contracts vigorously and pumps blood, and a diastole, during which the heart muscle relaxes and replenishes with blood.
Assuming a healthy heart and a normal rate of 70 to 75 beats per minute, each cardiac cycle, or heartbeat, lasts approximately 0.8 seconds to complete.
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the nurse is admitting a patient who is experiencing increased signs and symptoms of dilated cardiomyopathy (dcm). what changes in the heart characterize dcm?
Significant ventricular enlargement without appreciable concurrent hypertrophy or systolic dysfunction is the hallmark of DCM. Patients with DCM do not experience ventricular atrophy.
What is dilated cardiomyopathy (dcm) and symptoms?The heart chambers (ventricles), which are affected by dilated cardiomyopathy, become thinner and stretch, enlarging. Usually, it begins in the principal pumping chamber of the heart (left ventricle). It is more difficult for the heart to pump blood to the body's other organs when the cardiomyopathy is dilated.
Early on in the development of the condition, some persons with dilated cardiomyopathy don't exhibit any symptoms or indicators.
Dilated cardiomyopathy symptoms and signs might include:
FatigueDyspnea, a shortness of breath, during exercise or while resting downDecreased capacity for exerciseEdema, or swelling, in the legs, ankles, feet, or abdomen (abdomen)Chest discomfort or agonyHeartbeat that is quick, fluttery, or hammering (palpitations)To know more about dilated cardiomyopathy, visit:
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a client who experienced a stroke that left her with residual right-sided weakness was just discharged to go home. the client lives in a two-story house in which the bathroom is located on the second floor. a home health care nurse is visiting the client for the first time. which issue should the nurse address during this visit?
The bathroom is placed on the 2nd floor of the client's two-story home. Ability of the client to ascend stairs when using a walker.
What three sorts of healthcare are there?There are several levels of care in the health industry, including primary, secondary, tertiary, even quaternary. The primary care provider for your health is typically a family doctor or internist. Specialists are referred to as secondary care. Term used to describe care and equipment that are extremely specialized.
What does healthcare serve as a means for?The main goal of medical care is to improve health in order to improve quality of life. To maintain their valuation and continue to operate, commercial enterprises concentrate on generating financial profit. To accomplish its mission, health care must prioritize generating societal profit.
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a client is being evaluated for a possible diagnosis of emphysema. what client characteristic should the nurse monitor to provide evidence of the disorder?
