Answer: The Hypothalamus
Explanation:
Select the disorder in which concurrent substance abuse occurs in 5% to 10% of patients.A.Bipolar IB.Bipolar IIC.Major depressionD.Cyclothymia.
People also ask
Extreme depression It affects 5% to 10% of individuals and is characterized by comorbid substance misuse.
What proportion of people with bipolar disorder use drugs?According to the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMSHA), research indicates that as many as 30 to 50% of people with bipolar disorder may experience comorbid substance abuse disorder at some point in their lives.
The definition of bipolar I disorderManic episodes that persist at least seven days (most of the day, virtually every day) or manic symptoms that are so severe that a person needs emergency hospital care are both indications of bipolar I disorder. Depressive episodes often last at least two weeks and also happen frequently.
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the community health nurse is caring for a farm migrant worker client who reports difficulty in paying for medications. which action would the nurse take next to assist the client with acquiring the medication?
The community health nurse is caring for a farm migrant worker client who is having trouble affording his prescriptions. The nurse would next take the following measures to help the client in obtaining their medication : Ask the health care provider to prescribe a less expensive medication on behalf of the client.
The biggest barrier to the use of essential medicines in India is their low availability in healthcare facilities. In India, which has a higher proportion of the poorer population, economic constraints related to the ability to purchase medicines are the main reason for the lack of access to essential medicines.
A major reason for the surge in healthcare costs in India is the huge amount of money being poured into developing new treatments for people with life-threatening illnesses. Development of cutting-edge drugs and treatments for diseases such as cancer and transplantation
A generic is a drug that replaces the original drug. imitated. Strength, efficacy, usage/dosage, usage, quality, safety. Generic drugs must be FDA approved for prescription and consumption. Generic drugs are less expensive medication, easily available online or at your local pharmacy.
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Complete question :
The community health nurse is caring for a farm migrant worker client who reports difficulty in paying for his medications. Which action would the nurse take next to assist the client with acquiring their medication?
Contact the pharmaceutical sales representative for sample packs of medications.
Ask the client if his cultural health practices have a remedy he could use instead.
Ask the health care provider which medications the client could have discontinued.
Ask the health care provider to prescribe a less expensive medication on behalf of the client.
What is the difference of CPR in adult and in child or infant ?
Use only one hand, rather than the two you would with an adult, and breathe more gently while giving a infant a chest compression. Use only two fingers and not your entire hand when holding a baby.
Pinch the child's nose shut while providing rescue breathing, and then create a seal with your mouth over the child's mouth. Make a seal with your mouth over the infant's mouth and nose when holding an infant. Use only one hand, rather than the two you would with an adult, and breathe more gently while giving a youngster a chest compression. Use only two fingers and not your entire hand when holding a baby. Call 911 if you execute five cycles without getting a response from the child. If an automatic external defibrillator (AED) is available, the operator may instruct you on how to use it.
You may have heard of a form of CPR where the victim only receives chest compressions and no rescue breathing. This is for instances in which a grown person passes out and requests assistance from a stranger in public. Use standard CPR, which involves alternating 30 compressions with two breaths, rather than compression-only CPR, on children.
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the doctor writes an order for a liquid oral medication. the order says to administer 15 mg by mouth every 4 hours as needed for sore throat. pharmacy dispenses 30 mg/3ml. how many ml will you administer per dose? round to the nearest tenth.
you administer 1.5 ml/dose if the doctor writes an order for a liquid oral medication to administer 15 mg by mouth every 4 hours as needed for sore throat.
The most common cause of a sore throat (pharyngitis) is a viral infection, such as a cold or flu. A sore throat caused by a virus will heal naturally. Streptococcal pharyngitis (streptococcal pharyngitis) is a rare type of sore throat caused by bacteria and requires treatment with antibiotics to prevent complications.
liquid oral medication are most often used by people who have difficulty swallowing tablets and capsules, such as: B. Children and the Elderly. Liquid formulations come in many forms, including solutions, suspensions, and syrups.
Viral pharyngitis usually clears itself in 5 to 7 days. For bacterial pharyngitis, taking antibiotics for a few days will make you feel better. You should take antibiotics even if you feel better.
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which goal would the nurse establish when providing care for a client recovering from a transurethral resection of the prostate (turp)?
Continuous flow of an irrigant avoids distention and improves hemostasis, whereas indwelling catheter patency encourages bladder decompression, which reduces the risk of distention and bleeding.
A cystostomy tube is a catheter that is inserted directly into the bladder by a suprapubic incision; maintaining the patency of the cystostomy tube is not related with a TURP. Because the resection is carried out through the urethra, there is no need for an abdominal incision. Despite the possibility of bleeding and infection, there is no visible wound because the procedure was done through the urethra. A drainage tube is inserted into the urine bladder slightly above the pubic symphysis during a procedure known as suprapubic catheterisation. People who can't urinate through the urethra often have this procedure done. When other treatments are not clinically practical, unpleasant, or impossible, suprapubic catheterization provides an alternate way to drain the urine bladder.
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a client is suspected of having endometrial cancer. the nurse would most likely prepare the client for which procedure to confirm the diagnosis?
The most often used method to check for endometrial cancer is endometrial biopsy.
One of the most popular methods for detecting endometrial cancer is endometrial biopsy, which is particularly reliable in postmenopausal women. The clinic is where it can be done. Through the cervix and into the uterus is introduced a very small, flexible tube. The endometrium is then partially aspirated out of the body using the tube.
Abnormal vaginal bleeding occurs in 90% of endometrial cancer patients. Menstrual changes, intermenstrual bleeding, or post-menopausal bleeding could be the cause of this. Uneven bleeding can also result from non-cancerous issues. If you exhibit symptoms, your doctor might do a transvaginal ultrasound or an endometrial biopsy. Your doctor may do this test in his office or suggest that you see another physician.
Endometrial biopsies are frequently performed on women who are older than 35. Women who are expecting are ineligible. Sometimes, a woman will get a biopsy to evaluate if her infertility is due to a problem with her endometrium.
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which modification in the plan of care would the nurse make because of the clietns age when caring for an older adult with cad
The nurse should modify the plan of care to include further frequent monitoring of the customer's with vital signs of CAD,
Similar as blood pressure, heart rate, and oxygen achromatism, as aged grown-ups are more susceptible to changes in their health. The nanny should also add further nutritive support, similar as icing acceptable hydration and offering nutritive supplements, as aged grown-ups are more likely to be glutted. Eventually, the nanny should also insure that the customer has access to applicable assistive bias, similar as a perambulator or club, as aged grown-ups may be more prone to cascade.
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according to icd-10-cm/pcs coding clinic, first quarter icd-10 2021, page 13, when a patient with a history of nonalcoholic steatohepatitis (nash) cirrhosis complicated by hepatic encephalopathy and diabetes secondary to altered mental status is evaluated and diagnosed with toxic metabolic encephalopathy secondary to acute on chronic hepatic encephalopathy, how is the encounter coded? group of answer choices
A patient with a history of nonalcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) cirrhosis complicated by hepatic encephalopathy and diabetes, secondary to altered mental status is encountered and his diagnosis is coded by three ways.
What are the three codes that are needed to capture the patient's diagnoses?Code K72.00 captures the hepatic failure without coma; Code K72.10 captures the chronic hepatic failure without coma; and Code G92 captures the toxic encephalopathy in the patient.
What is Hepatic encephalopathy?The liver condition causes hepatic encephalopathy. When your liver isn't working perfectly, the toxins that it normally eliminates from your body are permitted to accumulate in your blood and soon reach your brain. The symptoms of Hepatic encephalopathy includes diminished brain function, including decreased attention and anxiety. The patient's mood may shift; his or her judgement may be compromised and the sleeping patterns may be disrupted.
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arterial blood gases (abgs) are obtained on a client with pneumonia. the abg results are ph, 7.50; pco2, 30 mm hg; hco3-, 20 meq/l; and po2, 75 mm hg. the nurse interprets these results and determines that which acid-base condition exists?
The nurse will look at the results of the arterial blood gas test and decide that a condition called respiratory alkalosis exists.
Respiratory alkalosis is a condition where there is a decrease in carbon dioxide (CO2) levels in the blood, resulting in an increase in pH. In this case, the ABG results show a pH of 7.50, which is above the normal range of 7.35-7.45, indicating alkalosis. In addition, the Pco2 is 30 mm Hg, which is below the normal range of 35–45 mm Hg, further supporting the diagnosis of respiratory alkalosis.
The HCO3- and Po2 levels are within normal range, 20 mEq/L and 75 mm Hg, respectively. The cause of the respiratory alkalosis is likely due to an increased rate or depth of breathing, which can lead to a decrease in CO2 levels in the blood. This can be seen in patients with pneumonia because there is a lot of inflammation in the lung, which can lead to an increased rate and depth of breathing.
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a client is admitted to the hospital with a fever and extreme weakness. which laboratory studies are likely to be elevated if the client is experiencing an infection?
Complete blood count A bacterial infection frequently increases the neutrophil's white cell count. In severe bacterial infections, C-reactive protein (CRP) is raised above 50.
A sign of generalised sepsis brought on by bacterial infection is procalcitonin. The CSF is typically examined in a lab as the initial step in determining whether bacterial meningitis is present. Remember that centrifuging and boiling the CSF should come before cytological analysis. To diagnose infections and determine whether bacteria have entered the bloodstream, blood cultures are commonly performed. An infection causing germ is specifically identified by a blood culture test, which also allows for further investigation to ascertain the most suitable form of treatment.
The complete question is:
client is admitted to the hospital with a fever and extreme weakness. Which laboratory studies are likely to be elevated if the client is experiencing an infection? Select all that apply.
White blood cell count (WBC)
Red blood cell count(RBC)
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
platelets count
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the nurse assists a primary health care provider (phcp) with the insertion of a nasogastric tube. which positions would the nurse place the client in to prepare for the procedure? select all that apply.
When preparing for the insertion of a nasogastric tube, the nurse would place the patients in the High-Fowler position.
The High-Fowler's position is the most commonly used position for nasogastric tube insertion. In this position, the client is sitting up in bed with the head of the bed elevated to at least a 45-degree angle. This position allows for the easiest access to the nose and pharynx, which is important for the insertion of the tube. Additionally, the High-Fowler's position helps to align the patient's head and neck with the stomach, which can aid in the proper placement of the tube. The nurse will also ensure that the client is comfortable and supported during the procedure to minimize discomfort and anxiety.
The answer is general because no options are provided and a similar question is nowhere to be found.
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the nurse is working with a client who has been diagnosed with urge incontinence related to detrusor muscle contractions. part of the educational material suggesting lifestyle changes should include information that which situation increases muscular contractions?
Lifestyle changes that include situational information that increases muscle contractions for people with urge incontinence are exercises such as pelvic floor muscle exercises.
What is incontinence?Urinary incontinence is a condition of involuntary leakage of urine.
The majority of urinary incontinence is based on a medical disorder, such as delirium, infection, atrophic vaginitis, certain drugs, psychological disorders, and neurological disorders. There are several types of urinary incontinence, namely:
Stress incontinenceUrge incontinenceOverflow incontinenceMixed incontinenceFunctional incontinence due to physical or cognitive impairment unrelated to a genitourinary disorderHow to overcome Urinary Incontinence, namely:
Pelvic Floor Muscle Exercises.Urination Exercise.Drugs.Installation of Medical Devices.Operation.Learn more about the cause of urinary incontinence here :
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those who are ill should see a specialist before visiting their primary care physician. t or f
The statement is false that the patient should see a specialist before visiting their primary care physician.
A primary care physician (PCP) or primary care provider is a general practitioner who practises medicine.
PCPs are our first point of contact for medical care. The majority of PCPs are doctors, but nurse practitioners and physician assistants can also be PCPs.
They assist you in staying healthy and recovering from illness. PCPs are responsible for a wide range of tasks, including routine checkups as well as diagnosing and treating illnesses, injuries, and other health conditions.
A primary care physician is a specialist in family medicine, general internal medicine, or general paediatrics who provides definitive care to the undifferentiated patient at the point of first contact and is responsible for the patient's comprehensive care on an ongoing basis.
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The word part that contains the fundamental meaning of the word is the:
The word part that contains the fundamental meaning of the word is the word root. Thus option 1 is correct.
A prefix in medicine is what?
A prefix is a letter that appears at the start of a medical word. The prefix alters the word's meaning in medical terminology. Correct prefix spelling and pronunciation are crucial. Many of the prefixes found in medical words are also found in the English language.
What is a word's base or root?
Base words, also referred to as root words, are the parts of a word that can't be decomposed. The word's fundamental meaning derives from the foundation word. Base words can occasionally have a prefixed, which is a character or group of letters. adds a letter or initials to the start, or a suffix adds a letter or consonants to the end.
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Complete question
The word part that contains the fundamental meaning of the word is the:
Word root. Word root and a combining vowel.Combining vowel.Ease word pronunciation.why is it important for the nurse to obtain baseline information from a client, such as a drug profile, an accurate history of the client's usual abilities, and changes in abilities or health status?
It is important for the nurse to obtain baseline information from a client, To provide safe and effective care, To identify potential drug interactions etc.
To provide safe and effective care, This information can also help the nurse identify potential problems or changes in the client's condition that may require further evaluation or intervention. To identify potential drug interactions: An accurate drug profile can help the nurse identify potential interactions between medications the client is taking, which can help prevent adverse reactions or other problems. To monitor changes in the client's condition. The nurse can use baseline information to evaluate the effectiveness of care over time and make any necessary adjustments. To communicate effectively with other healthcare providers: By having accurate baseline information, the nurse can communicate effectively with other healthcare providers, such as the physician, and provide them with the necessary information to make informed decisions about the client's care .
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arthroscopic surgery is a minimally invasive procedure for the treatment of the interior of a joint. true false
It is true that arthroscopic surgery is a minimally invasive procedure for the treatment of the interior of a joint.
Arthroscopy is conducted with an arthroscope, a small tool about the size of such a drinking straw and pencil. The arthroscope is a narrow fiberoptic scope with a light source or a miniature camera that is linked to a television screen. Precision instruments at the ends of flexible tubes are utilized to execute operations in the joint while seeing the joint through the scope. The arthroscope can be utilized for both diagnostic procedures & a variety of surgical operations. High-definitiondefinition monitors & high resolution cameras are two examples of ongoing technology improvements that are making arthroscopy a more effective tool for treating a wide range of joint ailments.
Although uncommon, problems might develop during or after arthroscopy. Infection, phlebitis (blood clots in a vein) or DVT (deep vein thrombosis), severe swelling or bleeding, injury to blood vessels or nerves, or instrument breakage are the most prevalent, but they occur in significantly fewer than 1% of all arthroscopic procedures.
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the nurse has just finished administering two units of packed red blood cells (prbcs) to a client with anemia. before the blood transfusion, the client's hemoglobin was 5.5 g/dl and hematocrit was 26%. the nurse would expect which laboratory values upon the next blood count?
The client must give permission to receive blood or blood products because of the nature of potential complications.
Why a Nursing Protocol?For many patients, the transfusion of blood components is a life-saving procedure. Throughout their careers, RNs provide many units of blood products; as a result, it frequently becomes a routine process. However, RNs should exercise vigilance when giving blood to prevent becoming complacent. When receiving a blood transfusion, patients run the risk of having an adverse reaction. Symptoms of an acute reaction usually appear during the first 15 minutes following transfusion in patients who experience them. A delayed reaction can show signs hours to days after the transfusion is finished. In order to guarantee that important safety precautions are observed both before and during a blood transfusion, many hospitals have a blood transfusion protocol, or a predetermined framework of care that a patient would get during blood delivery.
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a benign and a malignant tumor differ in that _____.
Answer:
Tumors can be benign (noncancerous) or malignant (cancerous).
Explanation:
Benign tumors tend to grow slowly and do not spread. Malignant tumors can grow rapidly, invade and destroy nearby normal tissues, and spread throughout the body
the nurse is caring for a client who experienced a severe headache. when the prescribed dose of analgesics did not cause relief the client took double the dosage one hour later. the nurse should assess the client for what adverse effect?
The nurse should assess the client for an adverse effect such as nausea, vomiting, dizziness, or drowsiness. Additionally, they should monitor for signs of an overdose such as confusion, difficulty breathing, or altered heart rate.
What are analgesics?Analgesics are medications used to relieve pain. They include both over-the-counter medications, such as ibuprofen, aspirin, and acetaminophen, as well as prescription opioids, such as codeine and morphine.
The nurse should evaluate the patient for any potential side effects of taking two doses of analgesics, such as a higher risk of toxicity or overdose. Indicators and symptoms include disorientation, sleepiness, dizziness, nausea, vomiting, impaired vision, narrowed pupils, shallow breathing, and seizures should be watched out for by the nurse. The client's vital indicators, such as heart rate, blood pressure, and breathing rate, should also be observed by the nurse. Any of these warning signs or symptoms should be immediately reported to the doctor by the patient. The client should be urged by the nurse to refrain from exceeding the recommended dosage going forward.
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for an older adult client with dementia who developed dehydration as a result of vomiting and diarrhea, which assessment information best reflects the client's fluid balance?
The assessment information that will reflect the client's fluid balance suffering with dementia and developed dehydration due to vomiting and diarrhea is: blood lab results.
Dehydration is the loss of excessive fluid from the body than normal. It can occur normally due to less fluid intake or can occur due to some underlying disease. The symptoms of dehydration are dry ,mouth, lips and eyes; passing less amounts of urine in very less quantities, etc.
Diarrhea is the bowel movement which is loose, watery and very frequent. Diarrhea is usually accompanied with few other symptoms like nausea, weight loss, abdominal pain, lethargy, etc.
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what are the aed pad placement options in the anteroposterior placement
Placement: front-and-back (or "front-and-back"): one on the front and one on the back. One on the lower left chest wall and one on the right side of the chest, anteroposterior location
Where should AED pads be positioned for patients 8 years of age and older in the anteroposterior placement?For adults (including kids above the age of 8 or who weigh more than 55 pounds): Peel the backing from the pads. Put one pad just below the collarbone on the right side of the chest.
In the anteroposterior positioning, where should AED pads be placed?When using the anteroposterior placement, one pad will be applied to the victim's bare chest (in the anterior position) and the other will be applied to the victim's back (posterior).
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T/F Chance of performing ucceful firt aid increae if more than one peron i involved
It is true that providing first-aid with more than one person increases the likelihood of success. Even if they are not certified, always ask for help from passersby.
Call 911 and remain with the patient until help comes if the patient refuses first aid. One of OSHA's main suggestions is to notify your supervisor and get medical attention right away if you come into touch with bodily fluids, skin, or blood. You can raise the injured body part if the victim suffered a broken bone or strain, provided that doing so does not make the discomfort worse. The Heimlich manoeuvre is used to clear an obstruction in the airway caused by a foreign body. You can raise the injured body part if the victim suffered a broken bone or strain, provided that doing so does not make the discomfort worse.
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which of the following are true about the rda? multiple select question. consuming 150% of the rda will lead to nutrient toxicity. the rda is the same as the dv used on food labels. a significant deviation (about 70%) below the required rda for an extended period of time indicates risk of deficiency. the rda serves as a standard to evaluate intake of specific nutrients.
Diseases average daily food intake that is adequate to meet this same nutrient needs of virtually all (97-98%) of individuals in a specific life span and gender group who appear to be in good health.
What distinguishes the RDA quizlet from the ear, in your opinion?Individual diets are planned using the RDA, whereas population diets are planned using the EAR. When there are insufficient data to construct an RDA, the EAR is established. Because it takes into account a factor to accommodate the needs of the majority of healthy people in a population, the RDA is greater than the EAR.
Is a nutrient's UL greater than its RDA or EAR?the point where 50% of the population is present The EAR represents their nutrient requirements, and the RDA is the level at which 97–98% of the population satisfies their requirements. The upper limit (UL) is the amount of a nutrient you can ingest without going overboard.
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an experienced medical-surgical nurse has identified critical thinking as an integral component of clinical judgment. how can the relationship between these two concepts be best described?
Critical thinking and clinical judgment are nearly affiliated generalities. Critical thinking is the capability to dissect and estimate information, arguments, and ideas.
This requires the nurse to understand and interpret substantiation and draw logical conclusions. Clinical judgment is the capability to use this substantiation to make opinions about case care. Clinical judgment also involves applying problem- working chops and remedial interventions to ameliorate patient issues. The relationship between critical thinking and clinical judgment is that the nanny must first apply critical thinking chops in order to make sound clinical judgments.
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a patient receiving a nebulizer treatment should be in a ________ position.
A patient using a nebulizer should be in a specific position.
Ensure that the nebulizer is held upright. This discourages spills and encourages nebulization. Maintain deep breathing while receiving treatment. This provides the medication with enough time to enter the airway. Peak expiratory flow should be measured with the patient standing up straight, but in hospitalised patients, it is frequently measured with the patient semi-recumbent. Place the patient at a greater than 45-degree angle while seated upright or in bed. Lung expansion and medication absorption are enhanced in this position. 8. Before starting treatment, check the patient's pulse, respiratory rate, breath sounds, pulse oximetry, and peak flow measurement (if prescribed).
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what is the purpose of a spacer or extender used with a metered-dose inhaler?
The purpose of a spacer or extender used with a metered-dose inhaler is to help the medicine to reach till lungs instead of inhaling it through the mouth.
It is frequently suggested to use a spacer because utilizing a metered-dose inhaler correctly might be difficult. A spacer is a component of meter dosed inhalers that is designed to route medication to the lung airway rather than administering it orally. As a result, the drug is more effective and its side effects are diminished.
How to Use an MDI with a Spacer (Meter Dosed Inhalers)After inserting the inhaler or canister, shake the spacer.
Breathe out.
Put the spacer mouthpiece in your mouth.
Put pressure on the inhaler once.
Breathe slowly (for 3-5 seconds).
breath hold for 10 seconds.
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the nurse is educating a pregnant client who is admitted with deep vein thrombosis in her left lower extremity. the client is at 24 weeks of gestation. the client is placed on low molecular weight heparin (lmwh). which of the following statements by the client indicate that she understands the education regarding lmwh?
The development or presence of a thrombosis in the deep veins is known as deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
What brings about DVT (deep vein thrombosis)?A blood clot can result from anything that hinders the blood from clotting properly or flowing normally. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is primarily brought on by injury, infection, or damage to a vein as a result of surgery or inflammation.
How is DVT treated, and what causes it?A blood clot in a deep bodily vein, typically in your leg, is referred to as a deep vein thrombosis. Get help quickly away to avoid more serious issues. Medicines, compression stockings, and surgery are all forms of treatment.
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ampicillin 500 mg im q 6 hrs. supply on hand: 1 gm vial, use label below for further information. patient's weight 136 lbs . give m
Ampicillin 500mg IM every 6 hours, with a 1g vial on hand, for a patient weighing 136lbs. (Note: This is a medication order and should be verified by a healthcare professional before administering)
How many doses of ampicillin will the 1 gm vial provide for the patient?The 1 gm vial of ampicillin will provide the patient with 1000 milligrams of medication. As the patient is receiving 500 milligrams per dose and the doses are given every 6 hours, the 1 gm vial will provide enough medication for 8 doses. This can be calculated by dividing 1000 (milligrams in the vial) by 500 (milligrams per dose) which equals 2, and then multiplying that by the number of doses per day, which is 4 (given every 6 hours). So, the 1 gm vial will provide enough medication for 2 days of treatment for this patient.
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a client with atrial fibrillation who is receiving maintenance therapy of warfarin sodium has a prothrombin time (pt) of 35 seconds and an international normalized ratio (inr) of 3.5. on the basis of these laboratory values, the nurse anticipates which prescription?
Based on these basic laboratory values, the nurse anticipates a prescription withholding the next dose of warfarin.
The indications and dosage of warfarin vary depending on the patient's condition, for example for stroke with an initial dose of 2-5 mg, orally, once a day, for 2 days. Continue with maintenance dose based on the target international normalized ratio (INR).
Atrial fibrillation can cause complications in the form of thromboembolic events and strokes. This can be prevented by administering warfarin. The initial dose is 2-5 mg, orally, once a day, for 2 days. The maintenance dose is adjusted according to the target INR (2.0-3.0), and the dose ranges from 2-10 mg/day PO. Until the target INR is reached (>2.0) for 2, discontinue warfarin.
So, the client's INR examination has reached 3.5, withholding the next dose of warfarin.
This question is the option:
Adding a dose of heparin sodiumHolding the next dose of warfarinIncreasing the next dose of warfarinAdministering the next dose of warfarinLearn more about the dosage of warfarin at https://brainly.com/question/29022690
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Select the two most commonly co-occurring anxiety disorders that may present with generalized anxiety disorder. A. PTSD. B. Dissociative disorder. C. OCD. D. Delusional disorder
The two most commonly co-occurring anxiety disorders that may present with generalized anxiety disorder are OCD (Obsessive-compulsive disorder) and PTSD (Post-traumatic stress disorder).
What do you mean by GAD?Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is characterized by excessive and unrealistic worry about everyday events and activities. Individuals with GAD may also experience physical symptoms such as muscle tension, fatigue, and difficulty concentrating.
OCD is an anxiety disorder characterized by recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images (obsessions) that cause anxiety or distress, and repetitive behaviors or mental acts that an individual feels driven to perform in response to an obsession or according to rules that must be applied rigidly.
PTSD is an anxiety disorder that can develop after someone experiences or witnesses a traumatic event. Individuals with PTSD may experience symptoms such as flashbacks, avoidance behaviors, and hypervigilance.
Dissociative disorder, delusional disorder and other disorders may also be comorbid with GAD, but it is less common.
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