true or false? based on the health belief mode, the public health approach to changing behavior would be to convince people that they are vulnerable, that the threat is severe, and that certain actions are effective preventive measures. group of answer choices

Answers

Answer 1

The threat is intense, and positive actions are effective preventive measures. TRUE

Preventative degree includes the measures or steps taken for prevention of ailment instead of disorder remedy. Preventive care techniques are generally described as taking vicinity on the number one, secondary, and tertiary prevention tiers.

Measures inclusive of vaccinations, changing volatile behaviors (negative consuming. habits, tobacco use), and banning substances recognised to be related. with a ailment or fitness situation.eight,9. 2. Secondary Prevention—screening to identify diseases in the earliest.effective controls protect people from place of work hazards; help avoid accidents, ailments, and incidents; minimize or get rid of safety and fitness risks; and assist employers offer employees with safe and healthy operating situations.

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Related Questions

If a stressor goes on for too long, a human being will likely fall into a state of….

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If a stressor goes on for too long, a human being will likely fall into a state of exhaustion.

What is prolonged stress and what is its impact?

Chronic stress, which is another name for long-term stress, is a physiological reaction that, if left untreated, can have detrimental effects on one's health. Long-term stress can have an adverse effect on both physical and mental health.

Impact of prolonged stress:

Heart disease, heart attack, high blood pressure and stroke. Sleep problems. Weight gain. Memory and concentration impairment.

Hence, If a stressor goes on for too long, a human being will likely fall into a state of exhaustion.

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true or false? our food choices are more likely to affect our risk for developing chronic diseases, such as heart disease, diabetes, or cancer, than to affect our susceptibility to acute diseases such as getting a fever or the flu. true

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True, Adults following a healthy diet have a lower risk of obesity, heart disease, type 2 diabetes and several malignancies. One's with chronic diseases can control their ailments by eating healthfully.

What connection exists between the common ailments and the way we eat today?

Dietary decisions, for instance, raise the risk of diseases like cardiovascular disease, diabetes, and cancer that are linked to high morbidity and mortality rates, such as hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, overweight/obesity, and inflammation.

What is the connection between diet, health, and disease?

In addition, the presence of sickness affects nutrition status due to changing nutrient requirements of the body, increased nutrient losses during illness, and effects on food and nutrient intake.

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the nurse provides education to a client who will begin ambulatory electroconvulsive therapy (ect) for the treatment of bipolar disorder. which client statement indicates a need for additional teaching?

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A client who will start ambulatory electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) for the treatment of bipolar illness receives education from the nurse. There is a need for more instruction based on the client's comment, "I will receive a muscle relaxant to prevent me from damage during ECT."

A mood disorder called bipolar disorder can result in severe mood swings. You might occasionally experience intense "up," elation, irritability, or vigor. It's known as a manic episode. Sometimes you might feel "down," depressed, uncaring, or hopeless. We refer to this as a depression episode. You might experience both manic and depressed symptoms simultaneously. We refer to this as a mixed episode. Bipolar disorder alters behavior, energy levels, and activity levels in addition to mood swings. Manic depression and manic-depressive disorder were two previous names for bipolar illness.

We can therefore conclude that the client's statement that "I shall receive a muscle relaxant to prevent me from damage during ECT." points to the necessity for extra instruction.

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Complete Question

The nurse provides education to a client who will begin ambulatory electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) for the treatment of the bipolar disorder. which client statement indicates a need for additional teaching?

A. "It is common to treat the disorder with ECT before trying medications."

B. "I can have my disorder cured if I receive a series of ECT treatments."

C. "I will have seizures lasting 1 1/2 to 2 minutes during ECT."

D. "I will receive a muscle relaxant to protect me from injury during ECT."

the nurse is explaining the dash diet to a client diagnosed with hypertension. the client inquires about how many servings of fruit per day can be consumed on the diet. what is the nurse's best response?

Answers

For a client with hypertension, the nurse is outlining the dash diet. The best response from the nurse is that the client can eat 4 or 5 servings of fruit per day while following the DASH diet.

A healthy eating program created to help treat or prevent high blood pressure is called the DASH diet. Foods high in potassium, calcium, and magnesium are part of the DASH diet. These nutrients aid in blood pressure regulation. Foods that are heavy in sodium, saturated fat, and added sugars are restricted in the diet.

The DASH diet is a healthy eating pattern that may help lower blood pressure and lower the risk of developing cardiovascular illnesses, diabetes, renal disease, and gout. This is supported by research.

Thus, we might state that the nurse is detailing the ideal diet for a client who has hypertension. The best answer given by the nurse is that the client can follow the DASH diet and consume 4 or 5 servings of fruit each day.

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the nurse is performing a physical assessment of a 5 year old boy. which documented finding most strongly indicate maltreatment of the child?

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Malnourishment and poor personal hygiene indicate maltreatment of the 5 year old boy while performing a physical assessment.

Poor personal hygiene habits, however, will result in some minor facet effects, like malodorousness and greasy skin. they'll additionally result in additional difficult or perhaps serious problems. as an example, if you do not wash your hands oft, you'll be able to simply transfer germs and bacterium to your mouth or eyes

Malnourishment happens when the body does not get enough nutrients. Causes embrace a poor diet, organic process conditions or another unwellness. Symptoms are fatigue, symptom and weight loss. Untreated deficiency disease will cause physical or mental incapacity. Treatment should address any underlying conditions and replace missing nutrients.

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the general capacity to adapt and respond favorably to physical effort best describes: a. hypertrophy b. absence of disease c. physical fitness d. atrophy

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The general capacity to adapt and respond favorably to physical effort best describes physical fitness.

Physical fitness is the capacity to adjust & perform well under physical stress. Wellness is the pursuit of an enhanced quality of life, personal growth, and potential through healthy lifestyle choices and attitudes.

The ability of your body's systems to work together efficiently is what allows you to keep excellent health and engage in regular activities. Effectiveness means doing daily chores with the least amount of effort possible.

Fitness for the mind and body go hand in hand. A person's risk of developing a mental illness is considerably reduced by physical fitness.

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which orthopedic surgery is done to correct and align a fracture after surgical dissection and exposure of the fracture?

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Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) is a surgical procedure where the fracture site is adequately exposed and fracture reduction is performed.

What is the primary disadvantage of open-reducing internal fixation (ORIF)?

ORIF disadvantages include infectious disease, swelling, and hardware mobility. Because bones grow slowly, the healing process can take months. Other factors that may influence recovery include the location as well as the severity of a fracture, the patient's age, and the type of bone broken.

A fractured bone is stabilized and healed using open reducing and internal fixation (ORIF). This procedure may be required to treat one broken ankle. The ankle joint is made up of three bones. The tibia (shinbone), fibula (the relatively small bone in your leg), and talus are the three (a bone in your foot).

Therefore, open-reducing and internal fixation surgery are done to correct and align a fracture after surgical dissection and exposure of the fracture.

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FILL IN THE BLANK. the efforts of the___ were instrumental in developing local health departments and starting schools of public health in the united states during the early 1900s.

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The answer is the Robert Wood Johnson foundation.

What is the Robert Wood Johnson foundation?

The Robert Wood Johnson foundation provides funds to multiple programs that work to help build a national culture of health. They are an American philanthropic organization.

The Robert Wood Johnson foundation is the largest one that focuses only on health. They are based in Princeton, New Jersey and focus on access to public health, health care, and health equality, changing systems to address barriers to health and leadership and training.

The Robert Wood Johnson foundation work to understand, identify, and get rid of  barriers to health and well being; these may include racism, discrimination, discrimination, powerlessness and their consequences.

Hence, the Robert Wood Johnson foundation was instrumental in developing local health departments and starting schools of public health in the united states during the early 1900s.

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the head nurse and a staff nurse are having a conflict over how to use and apply a new procedure for dressings in the medical/surgical area. the staff nurse wishes to use the new procedure based on newly released nursing research. the head nurse wishes to use a protocol that has been used in the department for a number of years. the head nurse later makes comments to other staff on her unit about the credibility of the staff nurse. this behavior is associated with:

Answers

This conduct is linked to bullying with psychological harassment .

What psychological factors underlie harassment?

The feelings of the harassee are typically heightened by angry outbursts, tears, feelings of grief, loneliness, and hurt, that may be mistakenly interpreted by a management as excessive emotion. Long-term harassment can have negative repercussions on a person's physical, psychological, and social wellbeing.

What constitutes an effective harassment claim?

Typically, for a harassment case to be successful, the harass must be so pervasive or severe that any sane person would view it as purposefully unfriendly or abusive in nature.

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in administering a sustained-release capsule to a client, the family member requests that it should be crushed into applesauce. what is the best response?

Answers

RESPONSE THE FAMILY MEMBER

The best response is say No (Refuse) it. But, don't be rude and be polite. We know, the family member interest in you, there's no need to be impolite.

Simply be direct and a little bit kind.  For example, say: "Thank you for your inquiry, that sounds wonderful. However, I cannot." Or, "I am overjoyed to meet you. I can't let you in right now because I'm in the middle of something."

There are a number of useful replies nurses can employ to clarify meaning or obtain further information from patients. This is especially crucial given that patient communication is frequently ambiguous.

In order for the nurse to fully comprehend the patient's requirements or concerns, active listening and effective communication may be required when the patient's words are more subtle.

In this case, capsule cannot be crushed in to applesauce or other seemingly harmless substances, such as fruit juice, pudding, or thickeners, to facilitate swallowing. However, crushing and mixing medications can alter their efficacy and put patients at risk.

As integral members of the patient care team, nurse must ensure that clinicians comprehend the implications of crushing and mixing and adopt policies to reduce the risk of variable dosing and patient harm.

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after completing several days of penicillin therapy, a client presents with new reports of inflamed oral mucous membranes and tongue and gum swelling. what is a priority action in regards to this new finding?

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After completing several days of penicillin therapy, a client reports inflamed oral mucous membranes as well as tongue and gum swelling. The nurse's priority action to this new finding is to: regularly inspect the mouth and gums.

Why does the tongue swell after taking penicillin?

Penicillin is a group of antibiotics that are used to treat bacterial infections. It works by killing the bacteria and preventing their growth. But, not everyone can take penicillin as a medication. In some cases, people with penicillin allergy may experience anaphylaxis, which is difficulty breathing, seizures, low blood pressure, diarrhea, vomiting, abdominal cramps, and swelling of the throat, tongue, and gum.

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Supplement connect is usada’s resource focusing on dietary supplement education. As your athletes and you search for answers to questions about dietary supplements, what information is not on the website?.

Answers

Dietary supplements may also help athletes who are gaining weight or who need to address known nutritional deficiencies.

Some of the most studied include protein creatine caffeine bicarbonate and beta-alanine. No supplements are required. Instead, whole foods and a balanced nutrition plan provide the right amount of key nutrients needed to be a healthy athlete and perform at peak performance can.

These extra ingredients may seem like a good idea but the more ingredients the higher the chance of unwanted side effects. Start with only the vitamins or minerals you want to take. Don't buy more than you need. Too much vitamin A can cause headaches and liver damage, reduce bone strength and cause birth defects. Excess iron can cause nausea and vomiting and damage the liver and other organs.

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a patient who experiences bipolar disorder may be hesitant to try a mood stabilizer because the: please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. answer choices side effects are unknown. drug mechanism is unknown. person may not see the potential benefit. drug has limited effectiveness.

Answers

Utilize prescribed drugs, seclusion, or restriction during an acute manic episode to reduce physical harm.

Patient: Does it have two meanings?

"Patience" and "patients" have a similar sound: They sound similar despite possessing quite different meanings. "Patience" is the capacity to wait or endure hardship for a prolonged period of time without becoming upset. "Patients" is the plural form of the noun "user," which designates a person who obtains medical care.

What makes us patient?

It can assist you in keeping from getting angry, being aggressive, or saying nasty things. You can take your time and avoid making quick, self-centered decisions. Understanding life from perspective of another person, or empathy, is a critical interpersonal skill that may be developed with patience.

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since 1900, the ideal body in the us question 11 options: has stayed the same. has become curvier. has become heavier. has become thinner and more muscular.

Answers

Since 1900, the ideal body in the US has become thinner and more muscular.

Why do you use the term "ideal body"?

The physical appearance deemed most appealing or suitable for a person's age, gender, and race within a culture and its media.

The result of a BMI calculation is a single number that falls into one of the following categories: If a person's BMI is under 18.5, they are regarded as being underweight. BMI levels between 18.5 and 24.9 are considered ideal. BMIs of 25 to 29.9 or higher are considered to be overweight. A BMI over 30 indicates obesity.

Keep, Don't Gain. Health consequences may result from your weight, waist size, and the amount of weight you've put on since your mid-20s. These elements may significantly impact your risk of contracting the following illnesses and conditions: Heart attack and stroke are two examples of cardiovascular disease.

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which meals should the the nurse is teaching a nutrition class about dietary reference intakes. the nurse would correctly state that this collection includes which reference set? urse encourage the client to continue to eat based upon the diary entries

Answers

The nurse would accurately remark that the dietary reference intakes include reference sets for Tolerable Upper Intakes when explaining Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) to the nutrition class.

Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) are nutrient values used to examine and create diets for healthy people. The number of calories a person requires each day is based on physical activity, gender, age, height, and weight. They are extensively utilized in designing and analyzing research investigations and their findings.

The Food and Nutrition Board of the Institute of Medicine published reference values for nutrients that are used to analyze and plan the diets of healthy persons in the United States and Canada.

Thus, when discussing dietary reference intakes (DRIs) with the nutrition class, the nurse would correctly observe that the reference sets for tolerable upper intakes are included in the dietary reference intakes reference.

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Complete Question

which meals should the nurse be teaching a nutrition class about dietary reference intakes? the nurse would correctly state that this collection includes which reference set? nurse encourage the client to continue to eat based on the diary entries

1. Nutritional density values

2. The Eatwell Guide

3. Tolerable Upper Intake

4. Physical activity recommendations

which assessment should the nurse complete immediately after hearing the client choked while eating?

Answers

The assessment a nurse should give to a client that choked while eating should be Auscultate the client's lungs for adventitious breath sounds, option B.

What is Auscultate lung sounds?

The lung are heard best when using a stethoscope and this process is called auscultation. The normal sound of a lung can be heard along the chest areas, even above the collar bone and a below the ribcage.

When the lungs are assessed immediately by the nurse, they get to determine adventitious sounds since the client is at risk of aspiration pneumonia which is secondary to a choking incident.

The full question is:

Which assessment should the nurse complete immediately after hearing the client choked while eating?

A-The caregiver's knowledge about feeding a person who is dysphagic.

B-Auscultate the client's lungs for adventitious breath sounds.

C-Assess the client's LOC with the mini-mental status exam.

D- Determine the client's ability to swallow liquids

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genetics-related health care is basic to the holistic practice of nursing. what should nursing practice in genetics include?

Answers

Nurses can assess risk, analyze the genetic contribution to disease risk, and discuss this same impact of risk on health care management for families and individuals.

What is the significance of genetics and genomics in nursing practice?

The application of genetic and genomic information in healthcare is becoming increasingly important. Genetics focuses on individual genes within a genome, generally trying to address conditions caused by single gene errors, which nurses encounter only infrequently.

Practicing nurses should indeed understand how genetics and genomics relate to health, prevention, screening, as well as treatment. Nurses must be able to collect family history, identify hereditary risks, and refer patients to genetic discussion and testing.

Therefore, nurses also provide genetics education, nursing care to patients and families, and genetic research.

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a nurse plans interventions to promote wellness in older adults. which intervention is most appropriate to meet this goal?

Answers

A nurse plans interventions to promote wellness in older adult then the intervention that is most appropriate to meet this goal is : Facilitating early mobilization to prevent muscle wasting and function loss in an older client.

What are the interventions to promote wellness in older adults?

Goals of the functional consequences theory include improving declines in functioning and also addressing quality-of-life concerns. It is important to discussing treatment options and have family members make an older adult's decisions.

Three types of interventions that can be promoted in older adults are as cognitive training, physical exercises and multicomponent interventions. All reviewed studies provide evidence of the effectiveness of interventions in improvement of older people's ability to perform the activities of daily living.

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What minerals do athletes lose in their sweat in potentially substantial amounts?.

Answers

Which mineral is lost in sweat in the largest amount? “During exercise, sodium, chloride, and then potassium are lost in the greatest quantities, making them top electrolytes of concern,”

the nurse reviews the laboratory results of a client taking digoxin. what finding creates a risk for digoxin toxicity?

Answers

A low potassium level can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity

What is digoxin toxicity ?

Both during long-term therapy and following an overdose, digoxin toxicity can develop. Even when the level of serum digoxin is within the therapeutic range, it can still happen.

Digoxin immune fab, an anti-digoxin immunoglobulin antibody, is the main treatment for digoxin toxicity. Digoxin toxicity life-threatening symptoms like hyperkalemia, hemodynamic instability, and arrhythmias have been successfully treated with this antidote.

Digoxin toxicity may be more likely in individuals with low potassium levels. If a patient with digoxin toxicity is not treated right away, severe bradycardia and even death may result. The range of serum potassium levels is 3.5–5.0 mEq/L.

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the physician orders cleocin phosphate injection 1 g iv q.12h. how many milliliters of cleocin phosphate injection will the nurse administer to the patient?

Answers

The nurse will inject the patient with 7 ml of cleocin phosphate.

What purposes does cleocin phosphate serve?

This medication can be used to treat a wide range of different bacterial infections. By preventing bacterial growth, it works. Only bacterial infections are treated with this antibiotic. Serious infections caused by anaerobic bacteria are advised to be treated with products containing cleocin phosphate.

Cleocin phosphate order dose = 1 gram

Ordered dose in mg = 1000 mg

Available dose = 9000 mg / 60 ml

Correct dose = ordered dose /available dose x Quantity

Correct dose = 1000 / 9000 x 60

Correct dose = 6.66 ml.

So correct answer is approximate 7 ml.

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the nurse is conducting a lecture on the difference between hypovolemia and dehydration. when completing a verbal comparison, which point needs clarified?

Answers

In dehydration, only extracellular is depleted, need to be clarified.

What is dehydration ?

Dehydration can be defined as a condition that arises  when the body do not have enough fluids, a Severe dehydration can cause serious problems.

severe dehydration can show symptoms like  extreme thirst,  very dry mouth, faster breathing rate, faster heart rate, low blood  pressure, no urination, fever, drowsy.

The clients diagnosed with dehydration, the fluid compartments including the intracellular and extracellular fluid  are reduced, hypovolemia relates to low blood volume.

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the nurse is caring for a client who has had acute blood loss from ruptured esophageal varices. what does the nurse recognize is an early sign of prerenal failure?

Answers

The nurse should recognize that urinary production decreased from 50 mL/hr at baseline to 10 mL/hr is an early sign of prerenal failure .

Prerenal failure is well recognized as a sort of reversible renal impairment brought on by elements that reduce renal perfusion. The phrase has been employed in relation to a dynamic process that starts with the reversible condition prerenal state and can develop into the established illness acute tubular necrosis (ATN).

Examples of prerenal failure include: Sunken eyelids, dry skin, poor skin elasticity, dry lips, dry eyes, fast heartbeat (tachycardia), and feeling faint or lightheaded upon standing or sitting up are all signs of severe dehydration ( orthostatic hypotension ).

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a nurse is providing education about hypertension to a community group. what are possible consequences of untreated hypertension? select all that apply.

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A nurse is providing education about hypertension to a community group. The possible consequences of untreated hypertension and Smoking, diabetes, and physical inactivity are all risk factors for cardiovascular problems throughout hypertensive patients.

What is hypertension?

The term hypertension is defined as the increase in the blood pressure or high blood pressure and the reasons responsible for hypertension are  smoking, diabetes, and physical inactivity and these factors are responsible for hypertension.

Nicotine has been considered as the addiction affects approximately 80-90% of people who smoke on a regular basis. Nicotine has been enters the body and travels to your brain inside of 10 seconds. It has been stimulated the release of adrenaline in the brain, resulting in a rush of pleasure as well as energy.

Therefore, A nurse is providing education about hypertension to a community group. The possible consequences of untreated hypertension and Smoking, diabetes, and physical inactivity are all risk factors for cardiovascular problems throughout hypertensive patients.

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a client being treated for complications of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease needs to be intubated. the client has previously discussed the wish to not be intubated with the client's partner of 5 years, designated as the health care power of attorney. the client's children want their parent to be intubated. a nurse caring for this client knows which statements apply to this situation? select all that apply.

Answers

Clients frequently appoint someone who is in line with your personal beliefs and values as their national healthcare power of attorney.

What exactly are pulmonary issues?

Asthma, chronic bronchitis (COPD), lung damage, influenza, and lung cancer are examples of pulmonary diseases. also known as respiratory illness and lung condition.

What exactly does a pulmonologist do?

A doctor who specialises in the pulmonary system is called a pulmonologist. A doctor is the doctor you want to treat your issue if it has to do with the lungs or any other portion of respiratory system, from the throat to the lungs. An area of research in general surgery is pulmonology.

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the nurse overhears a client, who is scheduled to begin chemotherapy, tell a family member that everything will eventually be okay and the cancer will be in remission. which question will the nurse ask to begin a conversation about hope with the client?

Answers

A discussion about hope with the client is "What gives you strength to deal with this health situation."

What is chemotherapy?

One or more anti-cancer medications are used as part of a regular chemotherapy programme in chemotherapy, a type of cancer treatment. Chemotherapy can be administered with the goal of curing a condition, extending life, reducing symptoms, or all three. In order to destroy your body's rapidly proliferating cells, chemotherapy is a medical treatment. Chemotherapy is the method of cancer treatment that is most frequently used because cancer cells grow and reproduce much more quickly than the majority of other body cells. Chemotherapy medications come in a wide variety of forms.

What stage of cancer is chemotherapy and is taking chemotherapy painful?

Systemic pharmacological therapies, such as chemotherapy or targeted therapy, are frequently used for stage 4 malignancies. There is frequently a chance for a clinical trial that offers cutting-edge medicines to assist in the treatment of stage 4 cancer. The current treatment options for the five most common cancers are listed below.

Chemotherapy side effects can be excruciating and include mouth sores, headaches, muscle and stomach pain, as well as burning, numbness, and tingling or shooting pains in your hands and feet.

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the most important information for a nurse to give a client who has been diagnosed and treated for a calcium oxalate stone would include which facts related to their diet?

Answers

Avoid spinach and peanuts

Which client do you think the nurse would rate as having the highest chance of getting a UTI?

Client with kidney stone-related blocked urine output A kidney stone that becomes stuck in the ureters can restrict the urine's flow, inflame the kidney, and cause the ureter to spasm, all of which can be excruciatingly painful. You can then experience the following signs: severe, acute discomfort below the ribcage in the side and back. The stone usually passes through the urinary canal ultimately and exits the body through the urine. If a stone gets trapped and obstructs the urine flow, discomfort may result. The passage of large stones is not always automatic and occasionally calls for. Small kidney stones may pass through your urine and leave your body (called passing a kidney stone)

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the doctor prescribed 80 mg of lasix. the medication is available as 40 mg in one cc of lasix. how many cc of lasix are required to get 80 mg?

Answers

the doctor prescribed 80 mg of Lasix. the medication is available as 40 mg in one cc of Lasix. A total of 2 ccs of  Lasix  are required to  get  80 mg

Furosemide is used to decrease additional liquid within the body caused by conditions such as heart failure, kidney disease, and liver disease. Take this pharmaceutical by mouth as coordinated by your specialist, with or without nourishment, ordinarily once or twice day by day. It is best to dodge taking this medicine within 4 hours of your bedtime to anticipate having to urge up to urinate. Dosage is based on your therapeutic condition, age, and reaction to treatment. For children, the dosage is additionally based on weight. Older grown-ups more often than not begin with a lower dose to diminish the hazard of side impacts.As one cc  contains 40 mg of Lasix, so add 2 cc's will be = 40+40 = 80  mg  

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which is a food that might be incorporated into the plan of care for a client diagnosed in the manic phase of bipolar disorder?

Answers

If a client is unable to sit still long enough to eat, snacks and high-energy foods that can be consumed while moving should be made available.

What causes bipolar disorder?

It is generally accepted that bipolar disorder is caused by brain disorders. Neurotransmitters, such as noradrenaline, serotonin, and dopamine, are the substances in charge of regulating how the brain works.

What occurs to the body when someone has bipolar disorder?

Along with feeling down and hopeless, you can experience a sudden symptoms such as fatigue and need extra sleep. Changes in appetite can also happen if a person experiences depression. Depression can produce irritation and restlessness, much like mania does. A made by mixing of mania and depression is also conceivable.

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a nurse is precepting a new graduate nurse who is caring for a client with a paralytic ileus and a salem sump tube attached to continuous suction. the preceptor should intervene when the graduate nurse performs which interventions? select all that apply.

Answers

The preceptor will have to intervene when the graduate nurse performs residue checks every 4 hours and when he covers the air outlet if the gastric content refluxes.

What is the paralytic ileus condition?

In this condition there is a partial or total blockage of the intestine, which means that the content cannot pass through the intestine. This can cause abdominal pain, diarrhea, vomiting, abdominal fullness due to gas, among other things. Among the causes of paralytic ileus are gastroenteritis, decreased potassium, kidney disease, infections within the abdomen, etc.

It is important to check the residuals that occur to see if the condition is progressing or improving. Also, if there is a reflux, the air outlet of the probe should be covered, since it can suffocate the patient.

Therefore, we can confirm that the correct options are 1. Checks for residual every 4 hours and 3. Plugs the air vent if gastric content refluxes.

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A nurse is precepting a new graduate nurse who is caring for a client with a paralytic ileus and a Salem sump tube attached to continuous suction. The preceptor should intervene when the graduate nurse performs which interventions? Select all that apply.

1. Checks for residual every 4 hours

2. Places client in semi-Fowler's position

3. Plugs the air vent if gastric content refluxes

4. Provides mouth care every 4 hours

5. Turns off suction when auscultating bowel sounds

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synthesis question: how do humans affect the greater food web? in this model, how could humans who do not live in the ecosystem still manage to alter the flow of energy within the web? (worth up to 5 bonus points) your local school system is trying to decide at what age to allow students to begin studying a foreign language. based on what you have read about brain research, which age would you recommend? Centralization of decision making will be used in a ________ strategy because the dispersed global activities of the firm that create value need to be tightly coordinated. what is the theory that suggests cognitive and physical competence is maintained by being physically and mentally active on the job? a student collect two specimen a and b from a sea shore during her biology field trip.she used a microscope to determine which structures were present un the specimens and found that specimen a contained more mitochondria than specimen b .suggest two reasons why specimen a had more mitochondria than specimen b What is the slope intercept form equation of the line that passes through 3 4 and 5/16 )? Y 6x 14 y 6x 14 y 6x 14 y 6x 14?. a group that managers or nonmanagerial employees form to help achieve their own goals or meet their own needs is called a(n) When zak and the crew investigate the norblad hotel in astoria, oregon, they interview a witness to an attack in the basement of the building. What does she call herself?. Graph the line: 6 - 3y = 2x The number of newly reported crime cases in a county in New York State is shown in the accompanying table, where x represents the number of years since 2011, and y represents number of new cases. Write the linear regression equation that represents this set of data, rounding all coefficients to the nearest hundredth. Using this equation, estimate the calendar year in which the number of new cases would reach 1141. A cout mater bough 45 meter of rope he ued two nine of the rope for knot tying. How many meter of rope were ued for knot tying What kinds of experiences have you had in relating with people whose backgrounds are different from your own?. the maybe pay life insurance company is trying to sell you an investment policy that will pay you and your heirs $27,000 per year forever. if the required return on this investment is 6.3 percent, how much will you pay for the policy? At the end of a snow storm, Audrey saw there was a lot of snow on her front lawn.The temperature increased and the snow began to melt at a steady rate. There was adepth of 10 inches of snow on the lawn when the storm ended and then it starteda melting at a rate of 2 inches per hour. Write an equation for S in terms of t,snowrepresenting the depth of snow on Audrey's lawn, in inches, t hours after the snowstopped falling. Based on the graph, can this be a proportional relationship? Why or why not? what is the moment of inertia ia of particle a? what is the moment of inertia of particle a? mr2 9mr2 10mr2 undefined: an axis of rotation has not been specified. "A toy rocket is shot vertically into the air from a launching pad 7 feet above the ground with an initial velocity of 72 feet per second. The height in feet, of the rocket above the ground at t seconds after launch is given by the function h(t)=-16 t+72 t+7. How long will it take the rocket to reach its maximum height? What is the maximum height?The rocket reaches its maximum height at second(s) after launch.(Simplify your answer.)The maximum height reached by the object is feet.(Simplify your answer.)" In 6 minutes, a conveyor belt moves 300 pounds of recyclable aluminum from the delivery truck to a storage area. A smaller belt moves the same quantity of cans the same distance in 18 minutes. If both belts are used, find how long it takes to move the cans to the storage area. An equilibrium constant of acid-base chemistry that is greater than 1 is recovered from. Help its due right now