Answer:
No the baby cant have green eyes unless someone in their family like grandparents or something has green eyes then there is a slight possibility that it will happen
rank the following events in order from greatest to least contribution to the spread of antibiotic resistance in bacterial populations. view available hint(s)
Vertical, horizontal, and novel mutations are the following events in order from greatest to least contribution to the spread of antibiotic resistance in bacterial populations.
What distinguishes vertical from horizontal gene transfer?The genetic material is transferred between bacterial cells without being connected with cell division, which is known as horizontal gene transfer (HGT) [1-3]. Vertical inheritance, in contrast, refers to the transfer of genetic material during cell division from the mother cell to the daughter cell.
What do vertical and horizontal categorisation mean?Vertical in this context refers to phylogenetic relationships that span time from an ancestor to a descendant. Horizontal refers to simultaneous living. Geologists and paleontologists who came after them have a distinctive belief that time should be measured as an ascending march from the bottom to the top.
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in which liquid should wiping cloths be stored
Answer:
fresh sanitizer
Explanation:
common sense?
The most important function of the thymus is:
to filter antigens from the blood and respond to systemic infections.
to remove foreign material from lymph before it enters the bloodstream.
to serve as a center for proliferation and response of immune cells.
immune cell production and maturation.
immune cell production and maturation.
The development and generation of immune cells is the thymus most significant task. The right response in this case is option D.
It is located just in front of and above the heart. White blood cells called T lymphocytes are created in the thymus. These have a big impact on the body's immune system, which helps to keep us healthy. Before we enter adolescence, the thymus produces all of our T lymphocytes.
The neonatal and pre-adolescent stages are when the thymus is at its biggest and busiest. After this era the organ progressively declines and is replaced by fat. The thymus of an old person weighs 5 g. Affinity maturation is the procedure whereby the immune system creates antibodies with greater affinities following a response to an antigen.
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based on figure 1, which of the following statements best describes the epinephrine signaling pathway?
based on figure 1, the following statements best describes the epinephrine signaling pathway In involves enzymes activating other enzymes. It involves the activation of additional enzymes by enzymes.
Adrenergic receptors are connected to a Gs signaling pathway that boosts intracellular cAMP, just like the glucagon receptor is. Through the Gq/IP3/DAG signaling pathway and the 1 adrenergic receptor, epinephrine also stimulates glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis. The epinephrine signal transduction route is a typical illustration of a signal pathway that makes use of this kind of receptor. The adrenal glands located above the kidneys secrete epinephrine, which binds to a unique 7TM receptor known as the beta-adrenergic receptor.
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Which allele in human blood type is always recessive?; What are the two alleles for the human blood type gene?; What is the genotype of blood type B?; Is blood type O heterozygous or homozygous?
IA, IB, and I are the three distinct blood types that exist in humans. These alleles can be referred to simply as A (for IA), B (for IB), and O. (for i). Because we receive one blood type allele from our biological mother and one from our biological father, every one of us possesses two ABO blood type alleles.A man with blood type B may have BB or BO genotypes, whereas a woman with blood type AB may have the genotype AB. A or B alleles from the mother and a B or O allele from the father would be passed down to the child.The genotype is homozygous recessive, and the blood type is O when both inherited alleles are O. The genotype is heterozygous, and the blood type is AB when one of the inherited alleles is A and the other is B.
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ar is the signal in prostate development and prostate cancer that has attracted the most investigation. ar is known to serve as a nuclear receptor and belongs to the steroid hormone receptor superfamily. however, it can only reach the nucleus to initiate a signaling cascade once it has been bound to androgen ligands, at which point it may perform its role as a transcription factor
The progression of prostate cancer to androgen castration levels is made possible by AR overexpression. CRPC can develop in prostate cancer cells that have AR amplification when androgen deprivation therapy is used.
An androgen receptor belongs to what class of receptors?The androgen receptor (AR), also known as NR3C4 (nuclear receptor subfamily 3, group C, member 4), is a specific kind of nuclear receptor that is activated by binding to androgenic hormones such as testosterone and dihydrotestosterone in the cytoplasm and then translocating into the nucleus.
Why does AR signaling occur?Castration-resistant prostate cancer (CRPC), a deadly, drug-resistant type of the illness that develops when androgen restriction therapy fails, is caused by the androgen receptor (AR) signaling axis (ADT).
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What makes prokaryotes differ from eukaryotes?
Prokaryotes are always single-celled organisms, whereas eukaryotes can have several cells. Additionally, eukaryotic cells are 100 to 10,000 times more complex and vastly larger than bacterial cells.
Why are prokaryotes different from eukaryotes?The absence of any membrane-bound organelles, such as a nucleus, distinguishes prokaryotic cells from eukaryotic cells. Prokaryotic cells only have ribosomes, an exterior plasma membrane, and a DNA nucleoid structure.
What distinguishes prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells most significantly?Organelles that are attached to membranes, like the nucleus, are present in eukaryotic cells but not in prokaryotic ones. The presence of mitochondria and chloroplasts, the cell wall, and the makeup of chromosomal DNA are all differences between prokaryotes and eukaryotes' cellular structures.
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The hypothalamus and core thermoreceptors notice if body temp too low. The hypothalamus signals smooth muscle in blood vessels to vasoconstrict and skeletal muscle to shiver. This activity causes body temp to rise, which is again noticed by hypothalamus & core thermoreceptors, so the hypothalamus turns off these heat gain mechanisms. In this scenario, which of the following state-ments is correct?
A. The scenario describes positive feedback in action.
B. The core thermoreceptors are the effector organs.
C. The hypothalamus is the control centre.
D. Skeletal muscle is the efferent pathway to the effector organ.
Answer is C: The hypothalamus interprets the sensory input and determines the response. Choice A is wrong as this is negative feedback. The effector organs are the skeletal muscles (which are not a "pathway").
The control center is the hypothalamus. When body temperature is too low, the hypothalamus and core thermoreceptors detect it.
Which of the following describes a body's negative feedback reaction to hyperthermia?The body has a negative feedback system that regulates body temperature. Shivering or sweating in reaction to an increase or decrease in body temperature will undo the effect of the change.
How does feedback fit into thermoregulation?A prime example of negative feedback is thermoregulation. The thermostatic master switch that controls the body's core temperature is located in the brain's hypothalamus. The hypothalamus can start a number of actions to reduce the temperature if it is too high.
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ap biology adapted from l. miriello by s. sharp compare and contrast asexual and sexual reproduction
Offspring produced by asexual reproduction are genetically identical to either of their parents.
Two parents contribute genetic material during sexual reproduction to create unique offspring. There are benefits and drawbacks to both sexual and asexual reproduction, which is why some creatures use both.
Sexual reproduction requires both a male and a female organism, as opposed to asexual reproduction, which only involves one organism. Asexual reproduction is used by several unicellular organisms and plants. Fish and most other animals reproduce sexually.
Some creatures, like corals and komodo dragons, have sexual and asexual modes of reproduction. However, as they do not benefit from the genetic variety brought about by sexual reproduction over the long term (over several generations), their capacity to adapt to their environment is compromised.
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envrionmental influences can determingwether a gene is expressed for some people that will be decisive in whether they develope a psychological disorder. this best illustrates the need for
The environmental influences on gene expression best illustrates the need for research on epigenetics.
Genes have very prominent role in diseases which are affected by environmental factors. People suffer from anxiety and depression due to gene mutation, however such conditions are rare. Scientists are researching on the potential conditions which affect gene. Epigenetics is the field of scientific research which correlates the the behaviors and the environmental conditions which prominently describes the gene expression. However, epigenetic changes are reversible in nature and they do not change the DNA sequence in the body as it occurs during mutations due to radio waves which encounters the body. Epigenetic changes are modifications to DNA that regulate whether genes are turned on or off.
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MPF is a dimer consisting of _____.A) a growth factor and mitotic factorB) ATP synthetase and a proteaseC) cyclin and tubulinD) cyclin and a cyclin-dependent kinase
MPF is a dimer consisting of growth factor A and mitotic factor B ATP from BIOL 101 at Fraser University growth factor and mitotic factor synthetase.
What about a cyclin and cyclin tubulin protease and a cyclin-dependent kinase? blakemicah2855 is waiting for your help. MPF stands for Maturation Promoting Factor. It is a protein complex that activates the targets necessary to push the cell through the cell cycle. What are the three parts of the maturation promoting factor? During mitosis, the MPF is turned off. During anaphase, active MPF activates another APC protein complex. APC causes the M cyclins to be destroyed, which inactivates MPF and allows the new daughter cells to exit mitosis towards G1.
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24. Location of RNA translation. Golgi apparatus or nucleus Rough ER or cytoplasm Mitochondria or nucleus Golgi apparatus or cytoplasm Plasma membrane or Smooth ER
Answer:
nucleus Rough ER
Explanation:
translation can occur either in the cytoplasm or on the rough ER
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Gregor Mendel crossed homozygous tall plants (TT) with homozygous short plants (tt). All the resulting offspring were tall. From these results, what conclusion did Mendel draw?
Tallness is a dominant trait.
Gregor Mendel crossed homozygous tall plants (TT) with the homozygous short plants (tt). All the resulting offspring were tall where Tallness is a dominant trait.
A gene region where there are two identical alleles present. Two alleles with the same variation or two alleles that are normal can both be present in a homozygous genotype.a gene region where there are two distinct alleles present. One normal allele and one mutated allele, or two distinct mutated alleles, can make up a heterozygous genotype.As a result of having one "T" allele, each progeny is a tall plant. This is so that a plant with one "t" allele and one "T" allele will only exhibit the properties of the "T" allele, which in this case is a tall pea plant, since the "T" allele is dominant over the "t" allele.
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The spinal cord extends inferiorly from the brain through the foramen magnum and ends at thelevel of the __________ vertebra.L1L5S1S5
Through the foramen magnum, this spinal cord travels inferiorly from of the brain and terminates at the position of the cervical vertebra.
The cord therefore extends through 20 bony vertebrae. It ends in a kid at the top L3 border. A dermatome is innervated by each of these segments. The spinal cord runs from the initial lumbar vertebra level to the foramen magnum just at base of the skull. At the foramen magnum, the cord continues into the medulla oblongata. The spinal cord is encased in bone, meninges, & cerebrospinal fluid, just like the brain. The central nervous system, that includes the spinal cord, is extended by the spinal cord. The spinal cord starts in the medulla oblongata, which is located at the base of the brain stem, and ends inside the lower back, where it tapers to create a cone known as the conus medullaris.
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which of the following is not a symptom? Meningitis, Swelling, Headache, Cough
Meningitis is not a symptom, rather it is a disease, hence option A should be the right answer.
Meningitis is an inflammation of the protective membranes which cover the brain and spinal cord. It is caused due to infected bacteria. When bacteria enters the bloodstream and travels to the brain and spinal cord, it causes bacterial meningitis. Some common symptoms of meningitis are high temperature, cold hands and feet (chills), vomiting, confusion and breathing quickly. Swelling, headache and cough are common symptoms which are seen in most of the bacterial, fungal or viral diseases. It occurs in response to the foreign particles which are acted upon by the white blood cells.
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T/F: For Metabolic Syndrome, the increase in insulin resistance happens simultaneously with both the increase in secretion of insulin and the elevation of fasting plasma glucose.
The statement is False, For Metabolic Syndrome, the increase in insulin resistance happens simultaneously with both the increase in secretion of insulin and the elevation of fasting plasma glucose.
A group of risk factors that are particularly related to cardiovascular disease are referred to as the "metabolic syndrome." The chance of getting diabetes, heart disease, stroke, or any combination of the three is significantly increased by metabolic syndrome. The National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute (NHLBI) believes the following metabolic variables are at play:
• Abdominal fat accumulation. To be eligible, a person's waist circumference must be greater than 40 inches for men and 35 inches for women. The type of obesity with a higher waist circumference is the one that is most closely associated with metabolic syndrome..
• Having a value of 130/80 mm Hg or higher for high blood pressure. The top number, or systolic blood pressure, must be under 120 mm Hg, and the bottom number, or diastolic blood pressure, must be under 80 mm Hg (the bottom number). Blood pressure issues and obesity are directly associated. It's common in people with insulin resistance.
• Lower fasting blood sugar levels. A value of at least 100 mg/dL is indicated by this.
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What Is the Primacy Effect?
The primacy effect is the tendency to remember the first piece of information we encounter better than information presented later on.
The primacy effect can occur in a variety of ways. For example, when an individual tries to remember something from a long list of words, they will remember words listed at the beginning, instead of the middle. The primacy effect aids an individual in recalling information they first see better than information presented later.
To cater to this cognitive bias, companies often use television, radio, internet, and print advertising to present us with the first impression of their product or service, even before it is available. Additionally, this technique is used in news stories about upcoming phone releases or movie previews. There is often an incentive to make sure the first news you hear about a product is positive.
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Why do nerve cells not undergo mitosis?; Does nerve cell undergo mitosis?; Which cells in the human body rarely undergo cell division?; Do neurons in adults do not undergo mitosis?
Because neurons—also known as nerve cells—are highly specialized in their function, they do not undergo cell division. This is similar to cardiac muscle cells.
Are nerves capable of mitosis?Neurons. By transmitting nerve impulses, neurons, also known as nerve cells, perform the duties of the nervous system. They are really skilled and amitic. Because neurons can not undergo mitosis, once a neuron is destroyed, it cannot be replaced.
Why do nerve cells undergo mitosis?The creation, reproduction, and eventual demise of a biological cell are all represented by the neuronal cell cycle. Mitosis is the name given to the process by which cells divide into two daughter cells. Once created, these cells move into the G1 phase, where many of the proteins required for DNA replication are produced.
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An ACTH injection would cause an increase in the secretion of
thyroxin (T4)
antidiuretic hormone
ACTH
glucocorticoids
An ACTH injection would cause an increase in the secretion of ACTH. The correct answer is option 3.
What is antidiuretic hormone ?It helps in the constriction of blood vessels and the kidneys regulation to maintain the water balance out in the body.
Thyroxin (T4) is made up of thyroid gland and it regulates the iodine level and the deficiency of iodine causes goitre. Thyroxine plays a role in controlling the rate of chemical reactions taking place in the cell.
Glucocorticoids are derived from steroids and play a role in anti- inflammation and controls metabolism in the muscles, liver, bones and fats.
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a group of immunologists are developing a human monoclonal antibody for the treatment of b-cell lymphoma. a requirement is that the antibody facilitate destruction of tumor cells by antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (adcc). for which of the following reasons are they not interested in igg2 antibodies?
The reasons are they not interested in igG2 antibodies is because IgG2 does not bind efficiently to FcyRIIIA
What are antibodies?
The body defends itself against foreign toxins via proteins referred to as antibodies. a protein that plasma cells, a kind of white blood cell, generate in response to an antigen (a substance that causes the body to make a specific immune response). All that a single antibody can bind to is one specific antigen.
Because of their extremely poor binding to FcRIIIa, IgG2 allotypes do not stimulate NK cell-mediated ADCC activity. Since these subclasses bind with reduced affinity, IgG2 antibodies are favored when Fc-mediated effector actions are not required or desired.
Therefore the reasons are they not interested in igG2 antibodies is because IgG2 does not bind efficiently to FcyRIIIA
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identify whether cd4 t cells, cd8 t cells, and/or b cells are responsible for autoimmune disease.
All the CD4+ T cells, CD8+ T cells, and B cells are responsible for autoimmune diseases.
Autoimmune disorders are the diseases wherein the body's defense system attacks its own normal cells due to the inability to distinguish between the natural cells and foreign particles that enter inside the body. In general, all persistent autoimmunity is due to the breach in T helper cells tolerance because these cells aid in CD8 (MHC Class I) activation and antibody/B cell activation. Myasthenia gravis, Addison disease and Hashimoto thyroiditis are some examples of autoimmune diseases. CD8+ T cells play a regulatory role in autoimmune disease. CD4+ T cells are the memory cells which play a pivotal role in defending the body against pathogens.
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like any scientific theory, the theory of evolution is subject to revision or even to being discarded if future observations do not agree with its predictions. which of the following hypothetical observations (none of which are real) would force us to reconsider the theory of evolution?
the discovery of fossils of monkeys resembling humans that predate the earliest dinosaurs would force us to reconsider the theory of evolution.
According to the idea of evolution, qualities that help a person survive in a changing environment will likewise eventually alter or evolve. Natural selection was so effective at explaining how life evolved that it was accepted as a scientific theory. Evolution is the process through which all forms of life evolve over successive generations, and evolutionary biology is the study of this process. Genetic changes that correlate to modifications in an organism's visible features drive the evolution of biological populations. The term "theory of evolution by natural selection," which was first out by Charles Darwin, is reduced to "the theory of evolution."
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explain how the data supports your hypothesis if needed you can change your poison selection
The alternative hypothesis states that there is a relationship between the two variables being studied (one variable has an effect on the other).
Does the evidence back up the claim?Data and observations are always packed with hypotheses or theories. Without a hypothesis theory, data is meaningless.
What should you do if the evidence contradicts your hypothesis?If your hypothesis is not confirmed by the experiment's findings, you should re-examine the data to see why your findings contradicted your hypothesis. In order for the outcomes to support your hypothesis, you shouldn't change the observations or experiment. You will perform better on tests if you sleep for at least 6 hours than if you don't. A dropped ball will move in the direction of the ground.
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The human body is constantly generating new skin (somatic) cells ...
Through a process called mitosis.
What is mitosis?
Mitosis is a type of cell division that results in the production of two identical daughter cells containing the same genetic material as the parent cell. It is an important process for the growth and repair of cells in the body, as well as in the production of gametes during sexual reproduction. During mitosis, the cell's chromosomes are replicated, and then divided in two, so that each daughter cell receives one complete set of chromosomes. This occurs in a series of four distinct phases: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. After mitosis, the cell is considered to have undergone a full cell cycle, and is ready to begin the process of mitosis again.
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Genetics says that children receive genes from each of their parents independently. Each child of a particular pair of parents has a probability 0.25 of having type O blood. Suppose these parents have five children. Let X be the number of children with type O blood. a. Is this experiment a binomial setting? explain b. Find the probability that exactly four of the children have type O blood. c. Find the probability that at least one child has type O blood. d. Find the expected value (the mean) and the standard deviation of random variable x.
This experiment is a binomial setting, Genetics says that children receive genes from each of their parents independently. Each child of a particular pair of parents has a probability 0.25 of having type O blood.
Your chromosomes store your genes, which are the building blocks of your body. This blueprint is present in nearly every cell in the human body and is typically kept in the nucleus, an unique sac located inside the cell. Long strands of a substance called deoxyribonucleic acid make up chromosomes (DNA). A ladder with twists is how a DNA strand looks. Genes resemble a string of letters that has been stretched out on either side. These letters serve as a kind of roadmap. Each gene's letter arrangement contains instructions for making particular chemicals. Even though each gene is present in each cell in two copies, just a portion of these genes need to be active for each cell to perform its particular functions. Genes that are not required are disabled. Sometimes a gene's instructions are thrown off by a change in the gene. Gene alterations can occur naturally or through inheritance (with no known cause). Modifications to the coding that enables a gene to function can cause a variety of diseases.
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What is the correct order of the following events in Eukaryotic gene expression? 1. translation 2. mRNA processing 3. transcription3,1,21,2,33, 2,12,1,3
Answer is 3,2,1 .Information travels from DNA to RNA to protein during the expression of a protein-coding gene. The Eukaryotic gene is undergoes transcription and then mRNA processing and then it translated.
A Eukaryotic gene expression results in the production of the appropriate protein, and this complex process comprises two main phases. Transcription is the process by which the data in DNA is converted into a messenger RNA (mRNA) molecule in the initial phase. An enzyme called RNA polymerase II catalyzes the synthesis of a pre-mRNA molecule during transcription by acting as a template for complementary base-pairing. Mature mRNA is subsequently produced by processing the pre-mRNA, which is done through the process of transcription. A single-stranded copy of the Eukaryotic gene is produced as mRNA, which must then be translated into a protein molecule.
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T/F consider a natural convection heat transfer on a horizontal flat plate and fluid is above it. which condition satisfies the figure?
(Gr / Re2) >> 1 Condition satisfies the natural convection heat transfer on a horizontal plate.
Due to its numerous engineering uses, such as geothermal systems, underground pollution spread, nuclear waste storage, solidification of casting, thermal insulation, electronic cooling, modeling of petroleum reservoirs, burying of drums containing heat-generating chemicals in the ground, design of chemical catalytic reactors, and powder
According to Cheng, the majority of early theoretical studies relied on Darcy's law and the assumption of a uniform porosity medium.
Based on this concept, it has been discovered that the Rayleigh number of the media alone determines the Nusselt number for natural convection that extends to heated surfaces in an infinite medium. The Nusselt number for natural convection in an enclosed porous medium is demonstrated numerically to be a function of the media Rayleigh number and the enclosure aspect ratio.
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when a typical restriction enzyme cuts a dna molecule, the cuts are staggered so that the dna fragments have single-stranded ends. this is important in recombinant dna work because .
The DNA cuts are important in recombinant DNA work because the fragments will bond to other fragments with complementary single stranded ends.
DNA Recombination is a process by which the pieces of DNA are broken or separated and then recombined to produce new combinations of alleles. If the process is not controlled properly by the enzymes, the fragments will bind to other fragments with complementary ends. The staggered ends of DNA fragments are known as sticky ends. This process is an important aspect of biotechnology where DNA fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis, studied and them combined with some other pair to get the desired output. It can be done to produce unique genome pairs, vaccines or identify important DNA segments.
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which of below objects was not discovered by galileo? group of answer choices rings of saturn satellites (moons) of jupiter spots on the sun
The planet Neptune was not a discovery that was made by Galileo using the telescope.
He was the first to record telescopic sightings of the moon's highlands, Jupiter's moons, Venus's phases, and Saturn's rings. He is renowned for his discoveries. Galileo, therefore, discovered everything listed above, with the exception of the two mars moons, which were found by Asaph Hall in August 1877. Venus's phases, Jupiter's moons, and Saturn's rings were all found by Galileo. Johann Gottfried Galle made the discovery of this planet. He used the mathematical calculations of Urbain Verrier and John Adams to discover this planet. Neptune can only be observed through a telescope. Galileo is supposed to have discovered neptune but missed classifying it as a planet when he initially used this instrument to view the celestial bodies in 1609.
The complete question is:
Which of the following was not a discovery made by Galileo using the telescope?
A. the rings of Saturn
B.sunspots
C.the planet Neptune
D. the moons of Jupiter
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a client is taking selfie ssulfisoxazole for a urinary tract infection and complain of nausea and gastric upset.
Infections can be treated or prevented in many different parts of the body with the help of sulfasalazine. It is a member of the sulfonamide antibiotics class of drugs. By limiting the development of bacteria, it functions.
An antibacterial sulfonamide with a dimethyl-isoxazole substituent is sulfasalazine (INN, also known as sulfasalazine). It has antibiotic properties that can kill both Gram-positive and Gram-negative organisms. It is occasionally administered along with erythromycin or phenazopyridine (see erythromycin/Sulfafurazole). Locally, it is applied as an ointment or 4% solution. Sulfisoxazole is an oxazole-substituted sulfonamide antibacterial. It is antibiotic against a variety of gram-positive and gram-negative organisms. It functions as a drug allergen as well as an antibacterial. It is an isoxazole and a sulfonamide.
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