Under the HHS and FDA regulations, what is the Institutional Review Board (IRB) charged with:
Protect the rights and welfare of human subjects. Assure that researchers follow all applicable institutional policies and federal regulations related to research with human subjects. Review subject recruitment materials and strategies.Institutional Review Board, also known as Independent Ethic Committee, is a committee that applies research ethics by reviewing methods proposed for research to ensure that they are ethical. Their primary function is to review and monitor any biomedical research that involves human subjects. According to FDA regulations, IRB has the authority to approve, require modification, or disapprove research.
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a patient has a platelet count of 15,000/mm3. which medication should the nurse anticipate being prescribed for this patient?
The medication that the nurse should anticipate being prescribed for this patient is Oprelvekin (Neumega). Option 4 is correct.
Oprelvekin is a thrombopoietic growth factor that enhances the proliferation of hematopoietic stem cells and megakaryocyte progenitor cells and induces megakaryocyte maturation, resulting in enhanced platelet production. It is sold under the brand name Neumega.
Naturally occurring interleukin-11 is created by bone marrow cells in the body and aids in the formation of platelets, which are required for normal blood clotting. Oprelvekin is used to assist avoid decreased platelet counts induced by cancer therapy. Oprelvekin's principal hematological action is the stimulation of megakaryocytopoiesis and thrombopoiesis.
The complete question is:
A patient has a platelet count of 15,000/mm3. Which medication should the nurse anticipate being prescribed for this patient?
Pegfilgrastim (Neulasta)Filgrastim (NeupogenErythropoietin (Epogen)Oprelvekin (Neumega)To learn more about Oprelvekin, here
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cancerous cells can travel from one part of the body to another. this process is called______
Cancerous cells can move around the body, from one area to another. This process is called metastasis.
A cancer cell's ability to spread to other locations inside the body after originally forming in one area of the body. In metastasis, cancer cells separate from the main tumor and move through the blood or lymphatic system to develop a new tumor in various body organs or tissues.
The main tumor's malignancy has spread to a new, metastatic tumor. For instance, if breast cancer spreads to the lung, the cancer cells there are those of the breast, not the lung. Treatment for metastatic malignancies can delay the cancer's growth and lessen symptoms, but it cannot cure the disease.
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the nurse is assessing a client who recently immigrated to the united states. the client is experiencing a high level of stress and reports that nobody in the workplace is willing to work with or talk to the client. what is the most likely cause of stress in the client?
The most likely cause of stress for these clients is a low sense of belonging.
A sense of belonging refers to the human emotional need to be affiliated with and accepted by members of a group.
Depression and anxiety are common mental health conditions that are often the result of a lack of belonging. People with this condition may have difficulty relating to other people, which can create problems in their life. This can create a cycle of events that makes it even more difficult for people to feel connected to others.
When someone feels that no one at work wants to work with or talk to it is a low sense of belonging.
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Significant correlations have been found between attachment style and
is Psychology class.
Answer:
Explanation:
Yes, significant correlations have been found between attachment style and various psychological factors in the field of psychology. Attachment style refers to the way individuals relate to others in close relationships and can have a significant impact on their thoughts, feelings, and behaviors.
Research has shown that there are correlations between attachment style and various psychological factors such as self-esteem, trust, intimacy, and relationship satisfaction. For example, individuals with secure attachment styles tend to have higher self-esteem and greater relationship satisfaction, while those with insecure attachment styles may experience lower levels of trust and intimacy.
In addition, attachment style can also be related to mental health outcomes, with secure attachment being associated with better mental health and less anxiety and depression, and insecure attachment being linked to greater levels of these and other mental health issues.
The study of attachment style and its relationship with various psychological factors is an active area of research in psychology and has important implications for our understanding of close relationships and their impact on mental health and well-being.
How can transmission-based precautions negatively affect the client? A. client may feel dirty and untouchable 8. family and friends may limit their visits the nurse might spend less time with the client all of the above
All of the above are correct options. Therefore, option (D) is correct.
What are transmission-based precautions?Transmission-based precautions are infection control measures that are implemented to prevent the spread of infectious agents between clients, healthcare workers, and visitors. These precautions are necessary to protect the client from getting infected or transmitting an infection to others.
However, transmission-based precautions can negatively affect the client in several ways, including:
A. The client may feel dirty and untouchable.
B. Family and friends may limit their visits.
C. The nurse might spend less time with the client.
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Your question is incomplete, but most probably your full question was,
How can transmission-based precautions negatively affect the client?
A. client may feel dirty and untouchable
B. family and friends may limit their visits
C. the nurse might spend less time with the client
D. all of the above
a client returns from the postanesthesia care unit after a rotator cuff repair. which action would the nurse take? monitor for a pulse deficit. obtain hourly blood pressure readings. assess for capillary refill in the nail beds. put the shoulder through range-of-motion exercises.
The action that the nurse will take on the client after the rotator cuff repair is put the shoulder through range-of-motion exercises.
What is a rotator cuff?The rotator cuff is a group of muscles and tendons that surround the shoulder joint. The existence of this muscle can make us lift our arms and move them in all directions. However, because this muscle is often used, the rotator cuff muscles can be injured and cause pain.Usually rotator cuff pain occurs in the dominant shoulder but can also occur on both sides.
Injury and damage to the muscles on one side of the shoulder can increase the risk of the same occurring on the opposite side. What can be done after repairing the rotator cuff is put the shoulder through range-of-motion exercises.
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the nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric tube. to determine the length of the tube needed to be inserted, how should the nurse measure the tube?
Place the tube at the tip of the nose and stretch it to the earlobe, then down to the xiphoid process.
Nasogastric intubation is a medical procedure in which a plastic tube is inserted via the nose, down the oesophagus, and into the stomach. Orogastric intubation is a similar procedure in which a plastic tube (orogastric tube) is inserted via the mouth.
A nasogastric tube is used to feed and distribute medications as well as other oral treatments such as activated charcoal. A syringe is used to inject medications and small amounts of liquid into the tube. A gravity-based system is used for continuous feeding, with the solution placed higher than the patient's stomach. If the feeding requires continual supervision, the tube is frequently attached to an electronic pump that can regulate and measure the patient's intake as well as alert any disruption in the feeding.
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When I am presenting something in class, I can't help to shake really badly and feel light-headed for no reason. Like I could feel so confident and prepared but still have really bad anxiety. How do I control my nerves when presenting??
this is something that will never completely go away. however, there are things you can do to help keep nerves under control.
try and focus on your material, instead of the audience. the audience is there to hear about your material, and their job is not to critique you. make sure you can't see the audience.
speak slowly. if you feel yourself starting to speak quickly, try to slow down and think clearly about word pronunciation.
another thing to try is to practice going over your material. this will make it easier to seem natural when presenting.
Answer:
There are several things you can do to control your nerves when presenting:
Practice: Practicing your presentation in front of a mirror or friends can help you become more comfortable and confident with the material.
Deep breathing: Take deep breaths before you begin to calm your nerves and slow your heart rate.
Visualization: Visualize yourself giving a successful presentation, and imagine yourself feeling confident and in control.
Positive self-talk: Remind yourself of your strengths and that you are well prepared.
Relaxation techniques: Try progressive muscle relaxation or other relaxation techniques to reduce physical symptoms of anxiety.
Stay hydrated and well-fed: Dehydration and low blood sugar levels can make you feel light-headed and anxious.
Focus on your audience: Remember that your audience wants you to succeed and is there to hear what you have to say.
Get enough sleep: Adequate sleep can help reduce anxiety levels.
Explanation:
Remember, everyone gets nervous at some point, but it's important to focus on your strengths and the message you want to convey, rather than your anxiety.
ALLEN
when assessing hydration in an adult patient, the nurse will: a. pinch a fold of skin just below the midpoint of one of the clavicles and allow the skin to recoil to normal. b. pinch a fold of skin on the abdomen and observe for recoil to normal. c. pinch a fold of skin on the calf and observe for recoil normal. d. pinch a fold of skin on the forehead and allow for the skin to recoil in children.
Pinching your skin lightly, typically on your arm or abdomen, is the primary method of determining your skin's turgor. Dehydration can be the cause if the skin recovers more slowly than usual. This approach isn't very accurate, though. Your skin becomes less elastic as you age, which results in inadequate skin turgor.
As a result, even if they are not dehydrated, an older person's skin may take 20 seconds to recover to normal. Additionally, a 2015 review discovered that skin turgor wasn't a highly reliable indicator of dehydration in adults over 65 on its own. Rehydrating is all that's usually needed in cases of inadequate skin turgor. Drinking some water usually helps you recover from mild dehydration. But more serious conditions can call for intravenous infusions. Some kids find it to be simpler.
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A first aider does not have to understand how the human body works in order to
effectively provide care.
True
False
Answer:
The answer to the question is false
during the assessment of a 15-year-old female, the nurse notes a new body piercing in the navel. which statements by the nurse would be appropriate in regard to this new piercing? select all that apply.
You have a fresh piercing, I see. In order to prevent an infection, be prepared to wipe it twice a day. A naval piercing infection may actually take to a year to resolve.
Which four forms of infections are there?Bacteria and viruses can be brought on by viral, bacterial, parasitic, fungal, or fungal infections. Additionally, there is a subset of infectious disorders called transmissible spongiform encephalopathies that is uncommon (TSEs).
How is an illness spread?Direct transmission of bacteria, viruses, or other microorganisms from one people to another is the most common way that infectious illnesses are conveyed. If someone who is unaffected touches, kisses, laughs, coughing or sneezing, or carries the virus or bacterium on them, this might happen.
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A nurse is planning care for a newborn who is small for gestational age (SGA). Which of the following is the priority intervention the nurse should include in the newborn’s plan of care?a) monitor axillary temperatureb) monitor blood glucose levelsc) monitor I&Od) monitor weight
A nurse is planning care for a newborn who is small for gestational age (SGA) therefore the following which is the priority intervention the nurse should include in the newborn’s plan of care is to monitor blood glucose levels which is therefore denoted as option B.
What is Small for gestational age (SGA)?This is defined as a birth weight of less than 10th percentile for gestational age and it is common in underdeveloped countries.
Blood glucose instability is usually a major cause which should be included in the newborn’s plan of care so as to enable the optimal functioning of the organs present as energy is needed for various activities.
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you have just intubated a cardiac arrest patient. you hear sounds over the epigastrium and very faint sounds in the lung fields bilaterally. capnogram looks abnormal. you have most likely
Tympany is typically audible over fluid-filled organs including the stomach, bladder, and bowels when performing percussion. A drum-like sound is produced when air and liquids are combined.
What is to hear sounds over the epigastrium?Tympany over a mass suggests that it is filled with gas. As there is rarely enough gas in any other mass to generate tympany, this typically indicates that the mass in the belly is a dilated intestine.
However, due to the increased density if a client has fat tissue or muscles over the belly, the sound may be more flat or dull.
Auscultation of the epigastrium is advantageous since it can be used to confirm incorrect tube positioning or issues with the tube's cuff seal.
Therefore, You just intubated a patient who was having a cardiac arrest. Over the epigastrium and in the bilateral lung fields, you can faintly hear sounds. The capnogram appears strange. You have probably audible over filled with fluid.
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the nurse is infusing 0.9% ns to a hypovolemic client s/p an mva. the nurse is ordered to infuse 1,000 ml of fluid over 1 hour. the tube has a drop factor of 5 drops/ml. what is the drip rate of the infusion?
The drip rate of the infusion is 83.33 drops/minute.
To calculate the drip rate of the infusion, we can use the following formula:
Drip rate = (Volume to be infused x Drop factor) / Time for infusion in minutes
First, we need to convert the infusion time from hours to minutes:
1 hour = 60 minutes
Next, we can plug in the given values and solve for the drip rate:
Volume to be infused = 1,000 ml
Drop factor = 5 drops/ml
Time for infusion in minutes = 60 minutes
Drip rate = (1,000 ml x 5 drops/ml) / 60 minutes
Drip rate = 83.33 drops/minute
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the nurse is evaluating the medical records of several clients and note some are receiving both fluoroquinolone and corticosteroid therapy. the nurse concludes which client is at the greatest risk for tendonitis?
Clints age greater than 60 years receiving both fluroquinolone and corticosteroid therapy have greatest risk of tendonitis
Patients treated with fluoroquinolone exhibited a substantially increases risk of developing tendon disorder. In a WHO survey in Australia of tendon disorder associated with fluroquinolone use ,ciprofloxacin was found to the casual agent in 90 percent of cases.
Corticosteroid decrease cellular proliferation, alter collagen and extracellular matrix composition, impede inflammatory pathway, decrease cellular viability, increase apoptosis. These changes can be seen as early as 24 hours. these changes can result tendonitis.
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What is the Baltimore classification of retroviruses?
In Baltimore classifications, we categorized viruses into bacterial, archaeal, and eukaryotic viruses using a straightforward categorization scheme based on the host domain data. Retroviruses are viruses with RNA as their genetic blueprint.
The Baltimore classification divides viruses into seven types, including double-stranded DNA, single-stranded DNA, double-stranded RNA, positive single-stranded RNA, negative single-stranded RNA, positive single-stranded RNA with DNA intermediates, also known as retroviruses, and double-stranded DNA retroviruses.
A cell transforms a retrovirus's RNA into DNA, which is then inserted into the DNA of the infected cell's host. More retroviruses are subsequently produced by the cell and infect additional cells. AIDS and certain cancers are just two of the illnesses that have been linked to retroviruses.
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the largest deflection from the isoelectric line in the ecg is found in the:______.
The largest deflection from the isoelectric line in the ecg is found in the:
QRS complex.
The largest deflection from the isoelectric line in an electrocardiogram (ECG) can be either positive or negative, depending on the direction of the heart's electrical activity during that specific period of the cardiac cycle.
The QRS complex, which signals ventricular depolarization, is generally the largest deflection from the isoelectric line in a conventional 12-lead ECG. The QRS complex is made up of three waves: the Q, the R, and the S.The R wave, which depicts the rapid depolarization of the ventricles, is often the biggest and most noticeable wave in the QRS complex.
In rare situations, the ST section may also deviate significantly from the isoelectric line. Any departure from the isoelectric line might suggest ischemia, damage, or other pathological changes in the heart.
It's important to note that the biggest deflection in an ECG might vary based on the lead utilised for measurement and the patient's individual cardiac condition. As a result, a thorough interpretation of an ECG necessitates a careful examination of all leads as well as the clinical context.
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consuming reasonable amounts of food while obtaining enough nutrients from food is defined as dietary . multiple choice question.
Answer:Moderation
Explanation:
Consuming reasonable amounts of food while obtaining enough nutrients from food is defined as a balanced diet.
Option (D) is correct.
A balanced diet refers to a way of eating that includes a variety of foods from different food groups in appropriate portions. It ensures that the body receives essential nutrients, such as carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, and minerals, in the right proportions to support optimal health and function.
A balanced diet typically includes a combination of fruits, vegetables, whole grains, lean proteins, and healthy fats. It aims to provide the body with a diverse range of nutrients necessary for growth, development, energy production, and overall well-being. By maintaining a balanced diet, individuals can meet their nutritional needs, prevent deficiencies or excesses, and support proper functioning of bodily systems.
Achieving a balanced diet involves making informed food choices, considering individual dietary requirements, and following recommended guidelines, such as those provided by national dietary guidelines or healthcare professionals. It promotes good health, reduces the risk of chronic diseases, and supports overall nutritional well-being.
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The complete question is:
What is consuming reasonable amounts of food while obtaining enough nutrients from food defined as?
A) Dieting
B) Malnutrition
C) Starvation
D) Balanced diet
A client has lived independently prior to being admitted to an inpatient unit. The client will be unable to return home following discharge. Which environment would be most appropriate for the client?1.Most restrictive2.Least restrictive3.Nursing home4.Transitional care unit
For a client that has lived independently prior to being admitted to an inpatient unit, the most appropriate environment would be the least restrictive environment. Therefore, the correct answer is the option 2.
An inpatient unit is a section of a hospital or medical facility where patients are admitted for treatment and stay overnight or for longer periods of time. For a client that has lived independently prior to being admitted to an inpatient unit, they would likely benefit from an environment that allows them to maintain as much independence and autonomy as possible.
A nursing home (option 3) or a transitional care unit (option 4) may be more restrictive than necessary for this client. It is always best to provide care in the least restrictive environment that is appropriate for the client's needs.
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6. Explain why a person would use accessory muscles when breathing and describe four types of
retractions.
There are several types of retractions that may occur when using accessory muscles for breathing, such as intercostal retractions, suprasternal retractions, subcostal retractions, and clavicular retractions.
What are breathing issues?Intercostal retractions occur when the muscles between the ribs (intercostal muscles) are used to help lift the ribcage, making more room for air to enter the lungs, and suprasternal retractions occur when the muscles above the sternum are used to help lift the upper chest and expand the lungs. Subcostal retractions occur when the muscles below the ribcage (subcostal muscles) are used to help lift the abdomen and create more space for the diaphragm to move, and clavicular retractions occur when the muscles in the neck and shoulders (clavicular muscles) are used to help lift the shoulders and expand the upper chest.
Hence, there are several types of retractions that may occur when using accessory muscles for breathing, such as intercostal retractions, suprasternal retractions, subcostal retractions, and clavicular retractions.
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a male nurse is meeting with a group of high school boys to discuss various health topics. after the session on testicular self-exam, the nurse determines the session is successful when one of the students responds with which comment?
The nurse may determine that the session on testicular self-exam is successful when one of the students responds with "I am almost 15 now, so that means I could possibly get this disease."
Testicular cancer is the growth of cancer that starts in the testicles, the male organ that functions to make testosterone hormones and sperm, This organ is located in the scrotum, the bag of skin that is located beneath the pe.nis. Cancer can appear in either testicle. It is most common at the age of 15 to 40.
The symptoms of testicular cancer are:
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true or false: preterm infants tend to have low stores of vitamin e because this nutrient is transferred from the mother to the fetus near the end of gestation. true false question. true false
The statement preterm infants tend to have low stores of vitamin e because this nutrient is transferred from the mother to the fetus near the end of gestation is True.
How is vitamin E absorbed by the human body?The does vitamin E is absorbed by the human body in the sense of liposoluble vitamins which means that the body needs fats (lipids) in order to dissolve this type of micronutrient.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that vitamin E is absorbed by the human body as a liposoluble vitamin micronutrient.
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the nurse is caring for a client with a peripherally inserted central catheter (picc) in the right arm. which assessment finding would require immediate follow-up by the nurse?
Immediate follow up by the nurse is necessary if the client experiences any signs of infection such as redness, swelling, pain or tenderness around the PICC site.
This may indicate an infection, If the client temperature is elevated. also, any signs of bleeding, inordinate drainage, or oohing around the PICC point should be reported to the nanny incontinently. The nanny should also be notified of any changes in the client vital signs, particularly if they come tachycardic or hypotensive. Incipiently,
f the client behaviour any impassiveness, chinking, or burning around the PICC point, this should be reported to the nanny right down. All of these signs and symptoms may indicate that the PICC isn't performing duly and should be estimated incontinently.
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you delegate taking vital signs to an experienced nursing assistant. the patient has been diagnosed with osteomyelitis. which vital sign do you want the nursing assistant to report immediately?
An infection of the bone called osteomyelitis. Germs from the surrounding tissues can all make bones more prone to infection. A bacterial infection that spreads throughout the body and affects the bones can cause osteomyelitis bacteremia. Thus, option A is correct.
What is the diagnosis of a patient with osteomyelitis?An osteomyelitis positive bacterial culture from a bone sample in the presence of bone necrosis is the primary diagnostic indicator.
When it comes to diagnosing osteomyelitis, magnetic resonance imaging is both more sensitive and specific than bone scintigraphy.
Leukocytosis and elevated levels of acute phase reactants (ESR and CRP) are two laboratory findings in osteomyelitis. Every suspected patient should have blood cultures done.
A reliable procedure is bone probing and direct sample, particularly for diabetic ulcers that are flora-contaminated.
Therefore, Temperature 99.90 F is the vital sign do you want the nursing assistant to report immediately.
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The given question is incomplete. The complete question is given below:
You delegate taking vital signs to an experienced nursing assistant. The patient has been diagnosed with osteomyelitis. Which vital sign do you want the nursing assistant to report immediately?
A. Temperature 99.90 F
B. Blood pressure 136/80
C. Heart rate 96/minute
D. Respiratory rate 24/minute
Michael is a 5-year-old boy who presents for his well-child visit prior to entering kindergarten. His past medical history is unremarkable except for an anaphylactic reaction to amoxicillin 4 days ago when he was being treated for a tooth abscess. He was seen in the emergency room and given prednisone 40 mg daily for 5 days and azithromycin for 5 days. Although he was up-to-date on his childhood immunization at age 36 months, he now presents for routine immunizations prior to entering school. Which of the following strategies is recommended to accomplish administration all needed vaccines as soon as possible?
A. Administer DTaP, MMR, IPV today
B. Administer DTaP, IPV today, and postpone MMR until he has been off prednisone for 3 months
C. Administer no immunizations until he has been off prednisone for 3 months
D. Administer DTaP and IPV today and postpone MMR until he has been off antibiotics for 2 weeks
Based on the medical history of Michael, it is recommended that option B is correct strategies for immunization that is Administer DTaP, IPV today, and postpone MMR until he has been off prednisone for 3 months
The reason for this is that children who have recently received high-dose systemic corticosteroids, such as prednisone, may have a reduced immune response to live vaccines containing live viruses, such as MMR. Because Michael had an anaphylactic reaction to amoxicillin four days ago and was given prednisone 40 mg daily for five days, his immune system may be compromised and his immune response to the MMR vaccine may be inadequate.
To ensure an adequate immune response, the MMR vaccine should be delayed until Michael has been off prednisone for at least 3 months. The DTaP and IPV vaccines, which are not live vaccines, can be administered without fear of a reduced immune response.
No immunisations are recommended until Michael has been off prednisone for three months, as suggested in option C, because this leaves Michael vulnerable to vaccine-preventable diseases. Due to the need to postpone the MMR vaccine, administering DTaP, MMR, and IPV today, as suggested in option A, is not recommended. Finally, as antibiotics have no effect on the immune response to vaccines, administering DTaP and IPV today and deferring MMR until he has been off antibiotics for two weeks, as suggested in option D, is unnecessary.
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T/F. A nurse is caring for a postmenopausal client prescribed the aromatase inhibitor, anastrozole for the treatment of breast cancer.
True. Aromatase inhibitors, such as anastrozole, are used to treat breast cancer in postmenopausal women.
This drug inhibits the synthesis of oestrogen, a hormone that can promote the development of some subtypes of breast cancer cells. Additionally, anastrozole functions by preventing the activity of the aromatase enzyme, which aids in the conversion of androgens into oestrogen.
Anastrozole works by inhibiting this enzyme, which helps the body produce less oestrogen, which in turn helps some types of breast cancer cells develop more slowly.
The nurse caring for a postmenopausal patient administered anastrozole will need to keep track of the patient's response to the drug as well as any side effects or adverse responses to the medication.
The client will also require information and assistance from the nurse on the medicine, any possible adverse effects, and any necessary lifestyle changes.
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Assignment 5 family as client: public health clinic
Community health and public health go much beyond immunizations and education. In a public health clinic, the goals of a family as a client are to apply the public health nursing method to families.
Analyze from an ethical standpoint the effects of health inequities on health, the obstacles to receiving proper health care, as well as the community resources for enhancing health, to assess community health and public health nursing strategies grounded in research that address health disparities in a specific group, and placing special emphasis on the roles of advocate and collaborator.
It incorporates the nursing process for public health into communities, and families and brainstorming sessions and to form concepts or put resources to use to support the patient's success, to achieve its goals.
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The complete question is:
Assignment 5 Family as Client: Public Health Clinic. How did the inter-professional conference use collaboration to achieve community health and public health goals?
which of the following is the best example of a teratogen effect causing a birth defect? group of answer choices maternal ingestion of alcohol during pregnancy maternal ingestion of vitamin supplements during pregnancy maternal history of diabetes and heart disease the baby's uncle and sibling having the same effect
The known teratogens include alcohol, tobacco, and recreational substances. The central nervous system of the foetus is impacted by alcohol. Fetal alcohol syndrome risk is increased in pregnant women who drink alcohol.
Fetal alcohol syndrome is a condition that can result in physical and behavioural impairments as well as atypical facial characteristics, a tiny head and brain, and other physical defects. There is no alcohol consumption level that is deemed safe during pregnancy. Smoking cigarettes is linked to miscarriage, early birth, and foetal development restriction. Smoking also has an impact on the developing fetus's delicate brain and lungs. No matter where in the pregnancy you are, exposure to teratogens is dangerous. The first eight weeks of pregnancy are when the risk is slightly higher. This is due to the fact that numerous systems and organs are developing, making the foetus more susceptible to the negative effects of teratogens.
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3. a nurse is caring for a teenager immediately following surgical correction of severe scoliosis. which interventions should the nurse expect to be part of the care plan? select all that apply.
A teenager who has undergone urgent surgical treatment for severe scoliosis is being cared after by a nurse and the interventions in the care plan are options A, B, and D,
It is appropriate to administer pain medication continuously since the nurse can anticipate that the kid would feel post-operative discomfort after surgical treatment, and pain medication needs to be administered on a schedule to both prevent and cure pain.
The recommendation to periodically test circulation, sensation, and movement in the extremities is accurate since it is necessary to do so in order to identify any potential neurological side effects following spine surgery, monitor urinary catheter output because the child will have one in place, and avoid the complication of urine retention.
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The complete question is:
A nurse is caring for a teenager immediately following surgical correction of severe scoliosis. Which interventions should the nurse expect to be part of the care plan? Select all that apply.
A. Monitor urinary catheter output.
B. Check circulation, sensation, and movement (CSM) frequently in extremities.
C. Assist the child to the chair once per shift.
D. Administer pain medication around the clock.
E. Assess bowel sounds daily.
a client is receiving a secondary infusion of a new antibiotic through a peripherally inserted central line (picc) suddenly reports itching and flushing. which action should the nurse prioiritize for this client?
The nurse should prioritize assessing the client's airway, breathing, and circulation. Itching and flushing can be signs of an allergic reaction, which can be potentially life-threatening.
What is life-threatening?Life-threatening refers to any situation or condition that poses a risk of death or serious injury to a person. It can include physical harm, such as a serious injury or illness, extreme emotional distress, or a dangerous situation that could lead to death or serious injury.
The nurse should assess the client's airway to make sure it is patent and their breathing to make sure they are not having difficulty. The nurse should also assess the client's circulation to make sure there is no evidence of shock. If the client is found to be in an unstable condition, the nurse should initiate emergency care, such as administering epinephrine and/or oxygen, and calling for medical assistance.
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