The leading cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which includes emphysema and chronic bronchitis, is smoking. Your risk of rises as a result.
What happens if someone with COPD continues to smoke?
Even after acquiring COPD, smoking worsens the condition and may even cause flare-ups or exacerbations. Exacerbations are a sudden exacerbation of symptoms, which typically manifest as extremely uncomfortable breathing. These episodes have the potential to be fatal and can make the condition worse.
When do most smokers develop COPD?
What is the average age that COPD first manifests? The National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute states that COPD most frequently affects smokers or those who have smoked in the past who are over 40.
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if hershey and chase had found radioactive sulfur, 35s, in the produced phages, what would that have meant for their conclusions?
Hershey and Chase concluded that deoxyribonuclease( also known as DNase), an enzyme that breaks down DNA, didn't introduce any 32P into a result containing the tagged bacteriophages.
What is Hershey and Chase experiment?Hershey and Chase added the radioactive factors to separate media in which bacteria were allowed to grow for 4 hours prior to the preface of the bacteriophages. The radioactive isotopes were present in the structures of the seed when the bacteriophages infected the bacterium. This made it possible to watch and examine each one singly. Radioactive phosphorus- 32 was employed to identify the DNA present in the T2 phage since phosphorus is present in DNA but not amino acids. Since DNA doesn't contain sulphur, radioactive sulfur- 35 was employed to mark the T2 phage's protein portions.
Since amino acids aren't set up in DNA but phosphorus is, radioactive phosphorus- 32 was employed to identify the DNA in the T2 phage. Nuclear- powered sulfur- 35 was used.
The DNA from the phage is integrated into the bacteria soon after the contagion binds to its host, according to Hershey and Chase's substantiation. After adsorption, they were suitable to remove the bacteriophages from the bacterial cells by blending them at a fast speed. The bacteriophage DNA was transported into the bacterial cell, as substantiated by the absence of 32P- labeled DNA in the result after the bacteriophages had been allowed to adsorb to the bacteria. The protein subcaste that shields the DNA previous to adsorption was still present, as substantiated by the presence of nearly all the radioactive 35S in the result.
They discovered that although a bacteriophage's defensive protein fleece formed, its inside DNA was what gave it the capacity to induce seed inside a bacterium. This made it possible to watch and examine each one singly. Radioactive phosphorus- 32 was employed to identify the DNA present in the T2 phage since phosphorus is present in DNA but not amino acids.
Hershey and Chase demonstrated that deoxyribonuclease( also known as DNase), an enzyme that breaks down DNA, didn't introduce any 32P into a result containing the tagged bacteriophages
.
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Mendelian inheritance does not apply to the inheritance of alleles that result in incomplete dominance and codominance. Explain why this is so.
Mendelian inheritance does not apply to the inheritance of alleles that result in incomplete dominance and codominance because the phenotypic ratio in mendelian inheritance corresponds to cases of complete dominance.
What is the genetic phenomenon of complete dominance?The genetic phenomenon of complete dominance makes reference to the process in which only one allele or gene variant is expressed in some loci for heterozygous individuals, thereby masking the expression of another allele called the recessive allele.
Mendel described the phenomenon of complete dominance in pea plants because they produce a proportion of 3:1 ratio in a hybrid cross for a single locus.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the genetic phenomenon of complete dominance is described by Mendel in his experiments, while other genetic phenomena of allelic interaction such as in the case of incomplete dominance or codominance were not investigated by him.
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Explain what happens to the cell cycle if both alleles of the gene encoding p53 are mutated.
The tumour suppressor gene p53 serves as a crucial cell cycle regulator. It is a recessive gene. If only one p53 allele is altered, the p53 gene will continue to operate and, if there are sufficient gene changes in the cell, apoptosis (programmed cell death) will occur.
Even with large mutations, cancer will develop if two p53 alleles are mutated because the cell will not get the signal to apoptose.The result is apoptosis, in which the cell kills itself. Multicellular organisms can undergo the programmed cell death process known as apoptosis. It is a tightly managed and regulated process that benefits an organism at different stages of its life cycle.An essential regulator of apoptosis, or programmed cell death, is the protein p53. To ensure that every cell in our body has healthy DNA, p53 aids in the death of damaged or cells with damaged DNA.Because p53 is a strong regulator of the cell cycle, p53 mutations lead to the development of cancer.By activating p21, which in turn inhibits G1 cyclin CDK and prevents the cell from entering the S phase or synthesis phase, p53 kills the injured cells.
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Order the entence from top to bottom to how how onar can be ued to locate object underwater
Sonar can be used to locate objects underwater. These are the correct order of the sequences of how the sonar works:
The sonar system sends bursts of U/S waves that travel through water.When sound waves strike an object on the ocean floor, the waves reflect backward.The sonar device detects the reflected waves.The farther the wave travels, the longer it takes to return to the system.A computer will measure the time it takes for the sound to go out and return, then multiply by the speed of sound in water and is divided by 2.What is a sonar system?Sonar, which stands for sonic navigation and ranging, is a technique to measure and locate underwater objects using sound propagation. It has been used for commercial fishing to submarine and mine detection.
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Which variable should be changed in an experiment to test the best conditions for bacteria to grow? the type of bacteria used the length of time that the bacteria are left alone the size of the original colony of bacteria the material that the bacteria feed upon
An experiment to test the best conditions for bacteria to grow is the material that the bacteria feed upon. Option D.
Antibacterial hand soap with different concentrations. Dependent variable bacterial growth as measured by the diameter of the zone of inhibition. Exposing Petri dishes to different temperatures can skew the level of bacterial growth they inhabit. Plant height is the dependent variable that responds to changes in the independent variable.
Sunlight is the controlling variable because each plant is exposed to the same amount of sunlight. It is the dependent variable because it measures the amount of plant growth. The dependent variable depends on the independent variable. How much plants grow depends on how much sun they receive. A continuous increase in temperature from a minimum value increases the rate of bacterial growth because the rate of metabolic reactions increases with increasing temperature.
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Suppose that a certain gene functions to enforce a checkpoint on the cell cycle. A mutation causing the loss of this gene’s function would cause a person to?.
A higher chance of developing cancer at some point in their lives.
Which mutant type is most likely to be lethal?Be aware that any chromosome mutation that causes a sizable loss of genetic material (Deletion) is almost certainly fatal. Despite the fact that many chromosome mutations do not cause the loss of genetic material, the location of a gene on a chromosome can have an impact on how it is expressed.
How do mutations impact genetic diversity in a population?Random DNA mutations and the introduction of new alleles into the population as a result of intermarriage between members of various populations are two ways to promote genetic diversity. indicates a higher prevalence of hereditary illness. When members of an original population start a new population, it happens.
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In the light-dependent reactions, the transfer of energy through electrons produces a hydrogen ion concentration gradient. Many more hydrogen ions are in the thylakoid space than in the stroma. The process that occurs when these hydrogen ions pass back to the stroma through a specialized channel
Select one:
a.is called chemiosmosis and requires ATP
b.is an electron transport chain and creates NADPH
c.is an electron transport chain and uses NADPH
d.is called chemiosmosis and produces ATP
Answer: c
Explanation:
In light dependent reactions the process in which the hydrogen ions pass back to the stroma via a specialized channel: (d) is called chemiosmosis, which produces ATP.
Light-dependent reactions are the initial stage of photosynthesis in plants, algae, and some bacteria. They take place in the thylakoid membranes of chloroplasts and require light energy to occur. These reactions capture and convert light energy into chemical energy which are essential for the subsequent dark reactions that produce glucose.
ATP, which stands for adenosine triphosphate, is a molecule that serves as the primary energy carrier in cells. ATP plays a fundamental role in various processes like muscle contraction, active transport of molecules across cell membranes, DNA replication, protein synthesis, and many others.
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What type of mutation has occurred in the following example?
A.) deletion mutation
B.) germ-cell mutation
C.) insertion mutation
Use the screenshot to answer this question. Which letter choice is correct? A, B, or C?
The type of mutation that has occurred in the example is insertion mutation. So the correct option is C.
What is a insertion mutation?This type of mutation is one that will involve the addition of nucleotides in a segment of DNA, they can be either one or a complete part of a chromosome. In the image it can be seen that there is an insertion of "A" in the mutated sequence, which gives us an indication that the mutation that was generated is the insertion one.
This mutation can be dangerous since it can change the encoding of some type of amino acid, thus affecting the formation of a certain protein, which can make it abnormal or useless for its purpose. And if we are lucky, the mutation will not occur in an exon, which will not alter the coding of amino acids.
Therefore, we can confirm that the correct option is C. insertion mutation.
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in oxidative phosphorylation, atp production is coupled to the events in the electron-transport chain. what is accomplished in the final electron transfer event in the electron-transport chain?
In oxidative phosphorylation, atp production is coupled to the events in the electron-transport chain chemiosmotic coupling.
Oxidative phosphorylation is the system by using which ATP synthesis is coupled to the movement of electrons thru the mitochondrial electron transport chain and the related consumption of oxygen.
Inside the mitochondrion, what the proton gradient does is facilitate the production of ATP from ADP and Pi. This technique is known as oxidative phosphorylation, because the phosphorylation of ADP to ATP is dependent on the oxidative reactions going on inside the mitochondria.
Oxidative phosphorylation is the terminal oxidation of cardio respiratory. it's miles the method in which ATP is fashioned with the help of electron transferred from the electron transport chain. F1 particle is the web site of oxidative phosphorylation. It includes ATP synthase enzyme.
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Which component of a homeostatic system perceives changes in some parameter of the environment?.
At which of the cell-cycle checkpoints do external forces have the greatest influence?.
The one that would be most influenced by the cell cycle checkpoints The G-1 checkpoint would be the outside forces.
The primary decision point at which a cell must decide whether or not to divide is the G 1 start subscript, 1, end subscript checkpoint. Once the cell reaches the S phase and passes the G 1 start subscript, 1, end subscript checkpoint, it is irrevocably committed to dividing.Different cell cycle checkpoints have developed to stop damaged DNA from replicating, to delay premature entry into or exit from mitosis, and to give DNA time to repair itself if damage is encountered. The G1/S checkpoint, the intra-S checkpoint, and the G2/M checkpoint are the three major cell cycle checkpoints.
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From what you learned in the diffusion handbook, what is causing the patient's low arterial oxygen?.
Low oxygen tension inside the arterial blood (PaO2) is because of the incapacity of the lungs to properly oxygenate the blood. causes consist of hypoventilation, impaired alveolar diffusion, and pulmonary shunting. it's miles because of pump failure (coronary heart is unable to pump sufficient blood, and arterial oxygen shipping is impaired).
Hypoxemia is a beneath-ordinary degree of oxygen on your blood, in particular inside the arteries. Hypoxemia is a sign of a problem related to respiratory or circulate, and can result in various signs, inclusive of shortness of breath.
The current devices use two wavelengths and degree the absorption within the pulsatile detail of the blood glide, for that reason producing a degree of the oxygen saturation of arterial blood cut loose the non-pulsatile venous blood.
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Which describes a scenario that would most likely use an inhibitor? during activity, sugar is converted to energy. when at rest, the body stores sugar. after a meal, protein digestion occurs in the stomach. before a meal, digestive juices are preparing for food.
Digestive juices start to get ready for food before a meal.
Why is it important to obtain activation energy?All chemical reactions, even exothermic ones, require activation energy to begin. Reactants need activation energy in order to move together, overcome repelling forces, and begin forming bonds.
Is activation energy ever required?A chemical reaction can only occur when two molecules collide with a minimum amount of energy (called the activation energy, or vEa). Plots of a system's potential energy against the reaction coordinate reveal an energy hurdle that needs to be cleared for the reaction to take place.
Enzymes that accomplish digestion are only activated during digestion; they are blocked by inhibitors before and after to prevent gastritis and even stomach perforations.
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Answer:
b. when at rest, the body stores sugar.
Explanation:
Which describes a scenario that would most likely use an inhibitor?
When at rest, the body stores sugar.
the mammary glands secrete milk in response to circulating oxytocin. a suckling baby feeding on this milk stimulates additional oxytocin release. these related events are an example of .
More suckling produces increased prolactin, which leads to more lactation. This is a positive feedback system as the product (milk) produces more suckling and hormone.
What is the feedback mechanism?A physiological control system in a living organism that works to return the body to its normal internal condition, also known as homeostasis, is called a feedback mechanism. In the natural world, feedback mechanisms can be discovered in a wide range of ecosystems and different kinds of animals.
A positive feedback mechanism is responsible for controlling the production and secretion of oxytocin. In this mechanism, the release of the hormone induces an action that stimulates more of the hormone's own release. Oxytocin is released, for instance, when the contractions of the uterus begin during labor and delivery of a baby.
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A gene is the basic unit of heredity. What is the function of genes?
Genes code for specific traits.
Genes determine the DNA sequence.
Genes create chromosomes.
Genes help with replication.
The correct function of genes is it creates chromosomes. Chromosomes are structures within cells that contains hundreds to thousands of genes.
What is a gene? What are the function of genes?
A gene is the basic physical and fundamental unit of heredity which contains instructions to produce molecules called proteins.
Functions of genes:
Genes control the functions of DNA and RNAGenes control the protein synthesis which is responsible for all activities carried on by the body.Genes control the proper folding, transportation, activity and eventual destruction of proteins.Let us discuss the other options:
DNA codes for specific traits by first translating or copying into a molecule of messenger RNA.DNA sequencing is the technique in determining the exact sequence of nucleotides in a DNA molecule.DNA helps in replication by which a double stranded DNA molecule is copied to produce two identical DNA molecules.Hence Genes are the structures that are present within the chromosomes which contain proteins that help DNA exist in the proper form. Genes are the bulding blocks of life and contain information for making specific molecules and proteins.
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(7.2) why does the rate of evolution appear rapid when studied in the short term but agonizingly slow when studied in the fossil record?
Evolution only happens gradually and slowly. Evolution is a slow process, thus humans cannot change it. Only in tiny populations do mutations wander.
How does the fossil record show that there has been evolution?The earliest rocks contain the fossils of the simplest species, whereas the most recent rocks include the fossils of more complex organisms. This is consistent with Darwin's theory of evolution, according to which more complex life forms gradually developed from simpler ones. Fossils provide proof of early life forms.
What kind of fossil evidence is there supporting evolution?Using recovered fossils, paleontologists have recreated instances of significant evolutionary changes in form and function. For instance, reptiles have several lower jaw bones, whereas mammals only have one. The reptile's jaw's additional teeth were plainly seen.
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each sequence of three nitrogen-containing bases of rna that codifies one amino acid is called ... group of answer choices anticodon units codon base
Sequence of three nitrogen-containing bases of RNA that codifies one amino acid is called codon .
Bases in mRNA are grouped into sets of three called codons. A codon is a sequence of three DNA or RNA nucleotides that corresponds with a specific amino acid or stop signal in the process of protein synthesis.
The three letter nature of codons means that the four nucleotides found in mRNA A, U, G, and C that can produce a total of 64 different combinations. These codons will match complementary to an anticodon which will have an amino acid attached.
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which option is a light wavelength that chlorophyll does not absorb?(1 point) responses violet violet yellow yellow red red green green
The wavelengths of green and yellow are not absorbed by chlorophyll.
Where does chlorophyll absorb the least light?Chlorophyll a and b pigment absorption spectra in the visible light spectrum, as measured in a solvent. Almost no green light is absorbed by any type. The most powerful light-absorbers for chlorophyll A are violet and orange. Mostly blue and yellow light is absorbed by chlorophyll b.
Which wavelength does chlorophyll absorb best?All photosynthetic organisms include chlorophyll a, which absorbs both red and blue light with wavelengths of 662 nm and 430 nm, respectively. It reflects green light, giving the plants it is found in a green appearance. Chlorophyll an is found in plants in greater abundance than other pigments.
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Which two properties of glucokinase explain why it is an ideal glucose sensor capable of stimulating insulin release from the pancreas?.
Two properties of glucokinase are its functions as the beta cell's glucose sensor by controlling the rate of glucose entry into the glycolytic pathway and subsequent metabolism.
It is well capable of insulin stimulation release from the pancreas. Particularly in the postprandial phase, glucose kinase is crucial for the liver's ability to store glucose as glycogen. High glucokinase activity is essential for postprandial glucose phosphorylation, metabolic signal synthesis in glucose-induced insulin secretion in beta cells, and the storage of glucose as glycogen in the liver.
Glucokinase is referred to as the "glucose sensor of the beta-cell" due to its strict control over the release of insulin. As a result, early in the disease, hyperinsulinemia may be brought on by excessive glycolysis, which can be reduced to restore the normal stimulus-secretion coupling.
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What causes low enzyme activity?.
Answer:
sub-optimal conditions
Explanation:
Enzyme activity can be affected by a variety of factors, such as temperature, pH, and concentration. Enzymes work best within specific temperature and pH ranges, and sub-optimal conditions can cause an enzyme to lose its ability to bind to a substrate.
What do you know about an organism's parents if it is heterozygous for a certain trait?.
If an organism's parents if it is heterozygous for a certain trait the parents supplied different alleles.
Any offspring's genotype is determined by the equal contribution of alleles from both parents. As a result, even when an organism is heterozygous, it is clear that the allele pair expressing the trait (due to the heterozygous pair) is formed by the equal contribution of both parents, which means that one allele is given by one parent and the other allele is given by the other parent.
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Which organelle is responsible for breaking down carbohydrates into useable energy.
Answer:
Mitochondria
Explanation:
Mitochondria are known as the powerhouses of the cell. They are organelles that act like a digestive system which takes in nutrients, breaks them down, and creates energy rich molecules for the cell.
a specific type of point mutation called a(n) mutation is a base substitution that changes a single amino acid in a polypeptide sequence.
Missense mutation is specific type of point mutation called a(n) mutation is a base substitution that changes a single amino acid in a polypeptide sequence.
A missense mutation is a DNA change that end up at different amino acids being encoded at a particular position in the resulting protein.
When a genetic alteration occurs in single base pair it substitute and alters the genetic code in a way that produces an amino acid that is different from the usual amino acid at that position. This alteration in mutation is termed as missense mutation .
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this is about punnett squares!! the question is below in the picture. please help me fill out the graph also. thank you so much!! having to redo this because the image didnt attach.
Answer:
a. Child with blue eyes = 25% chance
b. Child with brown eyes = 75% chance
Explanation:
parental phenotype: brown eyes 》brown eyes
parental genotype: Bb 》 Bb
gametes: (B) (b) 》 (B) (b)
random fertilization: (punnet square)
B b
B BB Bb
b Bb bb
f1 generation phenotype: Brown eyes 》Blue eyes
f1 generation genotype: BB, Bb, Bb, 》bb
ratio: 3 : 1
percentage: 75% 》25%
( the symbols " 》" was used as a divider that means brown eyes versus blue eyes etc. so you can see more clearly the comparison between both genes)
after the treatment of proteins described in the lab manual, all proteins used in this lab should carry an overall charge.
After the treatment of proteins described in the lab manual, all proteins used in this lab should carry an overall charge Negative .
Proteins, are not negatively charged in lab when protein is separated using gel electrophoresis, they must first mix the proteins with a detergent called sodium dodecyl sulfate. Net charge of a protein decreases linearly with molecular weight, with small proteins being mostly positively charged and large proteins negatively charged.
Proteins can be positively charged or negatively charged based on pH conditions. When positive and negative charges on the protein are equal, the net charge is zero.
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Choose the combination of factors that creates snow. Record the description of the factors in the Student Guide. Relative Humidity low Air Temperature' cold Air Pressure low
Warm temperatures, high pressure, and high humidity. Reason: I hope this was helpful!
Is 80% humidity too high?The recommended indoor humidity range, according to experts, for comfort and avoiding negative health impacts is between 35 or 60 percent. It's more likely that you'll develop certain health problems if you spend time in a house or workplace where the humidity is more than 60%.
What humidity level is uncomfortable?Dry and pleasant conditions are less than and equal to 55. getting "sticky" with humid evenings between the ages of 55 and 65. higher than that or equivalent to 65: The air is humid and starting to feel oppressive.
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why would a farmer plow this type of plant roots back into the soil and what would be the benefit of turning over the soil and leaving the old plant roots?
The benefit of turning over the soil would be that the nitrogen content of the soil would increase.
Roots may draw atmospheric nitrogen and convert it into nitrates, which plants can use. The amount of nitrogen in the soil would rise if these roots were ploughed into the ground. The airflow can be improved by loosening the soil. The plant may be held securely by the roots since they can grow deeper into the earth. Plowing improves the soil's ability to retain water. In addition to uprooting weeds from the field, ploughing promotes the development of beneficial microbes.
Also, in the absence of plowing, the roots can start to decay. Numerous essential soil animals and microorganisms will also perish.
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Why are the cells in your skin different from the cells in your heart?.
These cells are different because they use the same set of genes differently. So even though each of our cells has the same 20,000 or so genes, each cell can select which ones it wants to “turn on” and which ones it wants to keep “turned off”
why is glycolysis considered to be one of the first metabolic pathways to have evolved? why is glycolysis considered to be one of the first metabolic pathways to have evolved? it requires the presence of membrane-enclosed cell organelles found only in eukaryotic cells. it does not involve organelles or specialized structures, does not require oxygen, and is present in most organisms. it is found in prokaryotic cells but not in eukaryotic cells. it produces much less atp than does oxidative phosphorylation. request answer
Glycolysis is one of the earliest metabolic routes because practically all species employ it. The anaerobic process uses no oxygen. Therefore, option (B) is correct.
Why is glycolysis considered the first type of respiration?Glycolysis requires no oxygen. It is a sort of anaerobic respiration that is carried out by all cells, including anaerobic cells that cannot survive in the presence of oxygen. Because of these factors, glycolysis is thought to be one of the earliest forms of cellular respiration and an extremely old process that dates back billions of years.
The first step in the process of cellular respiration that involves the oxidation of glucose molecules is called glycolysis. As a result, it does not involve any organelles or other specialized structures, does not call for the presence of oxygen, and can be found in virtually all organisms.
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Which organelles are present in animal cells? Select all that apply.
nucleus
cell wall
chloroplast
cytoplasm
cell membrane
The organelles among the options present in animal cells include the nucleus, cytoplasm, and cell membrane. Options 1, 4, and 5.
Organelles of the animal cellThe animal cell is a type of eukaryotic cell. It is an advanced cell with a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles. It differs from the other eukaryotic cell, the plant cell, in that the latter has a chloroplast and cell wall.
The organelles that are found in the animal cell include:
The cell membrane which delimits the cell and acts as a differentially permeable structure to substances.The cytoplasm which is the liquid portion in the inner part of the cell.The nucleus which is located centrally in the cell and controls the cell's activities.The ribosome which is the site for the synthesis of proteins.The mitochondrion which generates energy for the cell.Other organelles found in the animal cell include the Golgi apparatus, the endoplasmic reticulum, the lysosome, and so on.
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