What was the Keppel and Underwood 1962 study and what did it show about short term memory?

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Answer 1

In a study that is similar to Peterson's, Keppel and Underwood (1962) investigated the impact of proactive interference on long-term memory.

According to their findings, proactive interference may have taken place because the similarity of the information provided and the transfer of previous sounds to long-term memory interfered with the memory for new consonants.

According to Keppel and Underwood (1962), more previously acquired associations lead to higher PI since the amount of PI is directly correlated with the number of possible interfering connections. Underwood offered support for a further mechanism—unlearning—in 1959. He demonstrated how as new learning progressed, the prior learning actually became inaccessible for recall. However, more research indicated that proactive behaviour was the more potent factor causing forgetting.

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Related Questions

Tabletop equipment on legs requires a clearance of.

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Tabletop equipment on legs typically requires a clearance of at least 6 inches to allow for proper airflow and ventilation. This clearance allows for efficient cooling of the equipment and helps prevent overheating, which can cause damage or even lead to a fire hazard.

It is important to always check the manufacturer's specifications for recommended clearance and to ensure that the area around the equipment is free from obstructions. Additionally, it is important to regularly clean and maintain the equipment to ensure optimal performance and prevent any potential safety issues. In summary, proper clearance for tabletop equipment on legs is essential for safe and efficient operation.
Tabletop equipment on legs typically requires a clearance to ensure proper ventilation, accessibility, and sanitation. The clearance refers to the space between the bottom of the equipment and the surface it is placed on. The required clearance for such equipment may vary depending on the manufacturer's recommendations and local regulations. Generally, a clearance of 4-6 inches (10-15 cm) is considered adequate for most tabletop equipment on legs. Always consult the equipment's manual or check with the local authorities for specific clearance requirements.

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A 30-yr-old patient has a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes. When should the nurse
recommend the patient schedule a dilated eye examination?
a. Every 2 years
b. Every 6 months
c. As soon as available
d. At the age of 39 years

Answers

As a nurse, it is important to understand the recommended frequency of monitoring for patients with type 2 diabetes. In terms of monitoring blood glucose levels, the ADA recommends that patients with type 2 diabetes should have their A1C levels checked every three months until their blood glucose is well controlled, and then every six months thereafter. So, the correct option is b. Every 6 months.

According to the American Diabetes Association (ADA), patients with type 2 diabetes should have an initial assessment of their diabetes self-management skills, nutritional status, physical activity, and psychosocial factors at the time of diagnosis. This assessment should be followed by ongoing monitoring and follow-up visits with healthcare providers.

The A1C test provides an average of a patient's blood glucose levels over the previous two to three months. It is valuable tool for assessing a patient's overall diabetes management and determining if changes need to be made to their treatment plan.

In addition to A1C monitoring, patients with type 2 diabetes should have their blood pressure, lipid levels, kidney function, and eye health checked on an annual basis. The ADA also recommends that patients receive vaccinations for influenza and pneumococcal disease, as they are at an increased risk for these infections.

In summary, the nurse should monitor a 30-yr-old patient with a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes every three months until their blood glucose is well controlled, and then every six months thereafter. Annual assessments of blood pressure, lipid levels, kidney function, and eye health should also be conducted, along with vaccinations for influenza and pneumococcal disease. Early and regular monitoring and intervention can help prevent or delay complications associated with diabetes. So, the correct option is b. Every 6 months.

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-PPD skin test, predominance of what cell types?

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The PPD skin test is a useful tool for diagnosing TB infection and monitoring the immune response to the disease.

The PPD (Purified Protein Derivative) skin test is used to diagnose tuberculosis (TB) infection. The test involves injecting a small amount of the PPD solution into the skin of the forearm and observing the site for a reaction after a certain amount of time.

The PPD solution contains antigens derived from the Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria, which stimulate an immune response in the body. This immune response is predominantly mediated by T-cells, specifically CD4+ T-cells, which are responsible for recognizing and responding to the antigens.

Upon recognition of the antigens, CD4+ T-cells release cytokines, which attract other immune cells such as macrophages and monocytes to the site of infection. These cells work together to contain and destroy the bacteria.

In addition to CD4+ T-cells, other cell types involved in the immune response to TB include CD8+ T-cells, natural killer (NK) cells, and B-cells. However, CD4+ T-cells are the predominant cell type involved in the PPD skin test response.

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Migratory thrombophlebitis associated with pancreatic/lung cancer: syndrome?

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Migratory thrombophlebitis associated with pancreatic / lung cancer : Trousseau syndrome.

Migratory thrombophlebitis associated with pancreatic/lung cancer is a syndrome known as Trousseau syndrome or Trousseau's sign of malignancy. It is a rare but serious condition characterized by recurrent or migratory blood clots (thrombophlebitis) in the deep veins of the extremities, which can lead to pulmonary embolism or stroke. This syndrome is often associated with advanced stages of cancer and is thought to be caused by tumor-related procoagulant factors that stimulate the production of blood clots. It can be a sign of an undiagnosed cancer or can occur in patients with a known cancer.

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The purpose of a thorough scene assessment by EMTs is to ensure their own​ well-being as well as the​ well-being of patients​ and:A.property. B.criminals. C.bystanders.D.law enforcement.

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The purpose of a thorough scene assessment by EMTs is crucial in ensuring the safety and well-being of both the patients and the EMTs themselves. This assessment includes a range of factors, such as assessing any hazards or dangers in the surrounding environment, checking for potential hazards such as broken glass or sharp objects, and identifying any potential sources of harm to the EMTs.

By conducting a thorough scene assessment, EMTs can ensure that they are taking all necessary precautions to minimize the risk of injury or harm to themselves or others, and can also identify any potential issues that may impact the care of the patient. This assessment also helps to identify any bystanders who may be present and require assistance, and can also alert law enforcement to any criminal activity or other potential threats.

Overall, a thorough scene assessment is a critical part of the EMTs' role in providing safe and effective care to their patients.

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Possible sites of ulnar nerve compression?

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Ulnar nerve entrapment generally occurs in the cubital tunnel at the level of the elbow or in the ulnar tunnel at the level of the wrist. The exact location of the compression will affect the presentation. The location of where the nerve is compressed makes a big difference in how it shows up. When your ulnar nerve gets trapped, it usually happens in the cubital tunnel.

sports nutrition experts recommend that endurance athletes consume what percentage of their energy from fat.

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Sports nutrition experts recommend that endurance athletes consume 30% of their energy from fat.

Repeated isotonic contractions of big skeletal muscle groups are what make endurance sports so intense. Examples from the past include winter sports like cross-country skiing or speed skating, as well as summer sports like jogging, swimming, and cycling.

It's advised to consume 30-60g of carbohydrates per hour or more for endurance competitions. By regularly consuming sodium-rich beverages while exercise and/or by drinking enough water before it begins, it is necessary to prevent a dehydration of >2% of body mass. Proper rehydration and glycogen resynthesis support recovery following exercise.

The average body fat percentage for male athletes is 6–13%, whereas the average body fat percentage for female athletes is 14–20%. Find out how to determine body fat percentage in this post, as well as what the average body fat percentages are for various athletes.

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Based on your assessment of Susan (3 cm dilated, 80% effaced, fetus at zero station) and your interpretation of her data, you determine that she is now in which stage of labor?

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Assessment of Susan, who is 3 cm dilated, 80% effaced, with the fetus at zero station, I interpret her data as indicating that she is now in the active stage of labor. The active stage of labor typically starts when the cervix dilates to 3-4 cm and is characterized by stronger and more frequent contractions, as well as a more rapid cervical dilation rate.

This is in contrast to the earlier latent phase, which is characterized by mild contractions and slower cervical dilation. Given Susan's cervical dilation and effacement measurements, it appears that she has progressed beyond the latent phase and into the active phase of labor. This interpretation is supported by the fact that Susan is experiencing stronger and more frequent contractions, which suggests that her labor is progressing and that she is moving closer to delivering her baby. In order to confirm this interpretation, it would be important to continue monitoring Susan's progress, including cervical dilation, fetal heart rate, and contractions, to ensure that she is progressing smoothly and safely through the active stage of labor.

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What is considered to be the main indicator of alveolar ventilation?

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The main indicator of alveolar ventilation is the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2) in arterial blood.

Alveolar ventilation refers to the exchange of gases between the lungs and the environment, and the primary gas exchanged is carbon dioxide. Therefore, the level of PaCO2 in arterial blood reflects the effectiveness of alveolar ventilation. When alveolar ventilation is inadequate, carbon dioxide accumulates in the body and PaCO2 levels rise.

Conversely, when alveolar ventilation is excessive, carbon dioxide is eliminated too rapidly, and PaCO2 levels fall. Clinicians use the measurement of PaCO2 to assess respiratory function and the effectiveness of ventilation. In cases of respiratory failure, measuring and monitoring PaCO2 levels is critical to ensuring proper ventilation and preventing complications such as respiratory acidosis. Thus, PaCO2 is considered the most significant indicator of alveolar ventilation.

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Right paraduodenal hernia goes through the:

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Right paraduodenal hernia is a type of internal hernia in which a portion of the small intestine protrudes through a defect in the mesentery and enters the right paraduodenal fossa.

The right paraduodenal fossa is a peritoneal recess located on the right side of the abdominal cavity, behind the ascending mesocolon and in front of the right ureter. The herniation can occur due to a congenital defect or be acquired as a result of adhesions or other abdominal surgeries.

Right paraduodenal hernia is a rare condition, accounting for only 0.3-0.5% of all internal hernias, but can cause significant morbidity if left untreated, including bowel obstruction, ischemia, and perforation. Surgery is usually required to repair the hernia and prevent further complications.

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Why so many women in middle age are on antidepressants.

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Hi there!

One of the many reasons for this is that, unlike men, women tend to seek help for their mental health. Men are less likely to request treatment for the condition than women "because of the stigma associated with poor mental health.”

Hope this helps

How do beta-agonsists work? Why is this effective in acute asthma exacerbations?

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Beta-agonists work by binding to and activating beta-2 adrenergic receptors in the airway smooth muscle, causing relaxation and bronchodilation. This allows the airways to open up and reduces airway resistance, making it easier for the patient to breathe.

In acute asthma exacerbations, there is constriction of the airway smooth muscle and inflammation in the airways, leading to difficulty breathing. Beta-agonists are effective in treating acute asthma exacerbations because they specifically target the airway smooth muscle, which is the primary site of obstruction in asthma.

By relaxing the airway smooth muscle, beta-agonists rapidly relieve bronchoconstriction and improve airflow, thereby reducing the symptoms of asthma. Beta-agonists are typically administered via inhalation, allowing for rapid and targeted delivery to the airway smooth muscle.

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People with Down Syndrome are at an increased risk to develop what type of cancer?

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People with Down syndrome are at an increased risk of developing leukemia, specifically acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) and acute myeloid leukemia (AML).

Leukemia is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow, leading to an abnormal increase in white blood cells. The reason why people with Down syndrome are at a higher risk of developing leukemia is still not fully understood, but it is believed to be related to genetic factors. People with Down syndrome have an extra copy of chromosome 21, which contains a gene that may be linked to the development of leukemia.

According to research, people with Down syndrome are 10 to 20 times more likely to develop leukemia than people without Down syndrome. They are also at an increased risk of developing other types of cancer, such as brain tumors, lymphoma, and testicular cancer, although the risk is not as high as that of leukemia.

It is important for people with Down syndrome to have regular check-ups and cancer screenings to detect any signs of cancer early.

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What was the Gathercole & Baddeley 1990 study and what results did it show?

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Gathercole & Baddeley (1990) conducted a study to investigate the role of phonological memory in language acquisition. Results showed that children's phonological memory capacity was strongly correlated with their ability to learn new words and repeat sentences accurately.

In the study, 72 children aged 5-7 were given tests to assess their phonological memory and language abilities. The researchers found that children with better phonological memory performed significantly better on tests of vocabulary and sentence repetition than those with poorer phonological memory. These findings supported the hypothesis that phonological memory plays a critical role in language acquisition.

The study also showed that the phonological loop, a component of the working memory system, is important for storing and processing phonological information in language learning. This finding has important implications for understanding language acquisition and the development of interventions for children with language difficulties.

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Ca brain mets from the lungC71.9, C34.90C71.9, C79.31C79.31, C71.9C79.31, C34.90

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The terms in the question refer to a medical condition called brain metastases, which occurs when cancer cells spread from the primary tumor in one part of the body to the brain. In this case, the cancer has originated from the lungs and has spread to the brain (C71.9) and other areas such as the lung (C34.90) and other unspecified sites (C79.31).

Brain metastases are a serious complication of cancer and can cause symptoms such as headaches, seizures, confusion, and difficulty speaking or moving. Treatment options include radiation therapy, chemotherapy, and surgery to remove the tumors. The choice of treatment depends on factors such as the number and location of the brain metastases, the patient's overall health, and the type and stage of the primary cancer.

Managing brain metastases from lung cancer can be challenging, but with proper treatment and care, many patients can experience improved quality of life and survival rates. It is important for patients with lung cancer to receive regular screenings and follow-up care to monitor for the development of brain metastases and other potential complications.

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Decarease NE effect, decrease Phenylephrine effect, what drug is it?

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The drug that can decrease the effect of both NE (norepinephrine) and Phenylephrine is Phentolamine, which is a non-selective alpha-adrenergic blocker.

It acts by blocking the alpha-1 and alpha-2 adrenergic receptors, which are responsible for the effects of NE and Phenylephrine. By blocking these receptors, Phentolamine can cause vasodilation and a decrease in blood pressure. Phentolamine is used in various clinical settings such as hypertensive emergencies, pheochromocytoma, and during surgical procedures to prevent or treat hypertension caused by sympathetic nervous system activation.

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(T/F) In a lateral cep, the frankfort plane is parallel to the IR.

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True. In a lateral cephalogram, the Frankfort plane is parallel to the image receptor (IR). The Frankfort plane is an imaginary line connecting the orbital rim and the ear canal.

It is used as a reference line in cephalometric analysis to determine the relationship between the maxilla and the mandible as well as the position of the jaws in relation to the cranial base. The Frankfort plane should be parallel to the IR to avoid any distortion in the image and to get accurate measurements.

The Frankfort plane is an imaginary line that connects the porion (the highest point of the external auditory meatus) to the orbitale (the lowest point on the margin of the orbit). It is used as a reference line in cephalometric analysis to establish the true horizontal plane for analysis of the skull and dentofacial structures. The Frankfort plane is important because it establishes a reliable and fixed reference point for assessing the relationship between the upper and lower jaw, as well as the positioning of the teeth in relation to the skull.

When taking a cephalometric radiograph, it is important to ensure that the Frankfort plane is parallel to the image receptor to avoid distortion of the image. If the Frankfort plane is not parallel to the image receptor, the resulting image may be distorted, making it difficult to accurately assess the relationship between the jaws and other craniofacial structures. To ensure that the Frankfort plane is parallel to the image receptor, the patient's head must be positioned correctly and stabilized during the imaging process.

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recent review of many studies concludes that , no matter how it is measured, is higher among girls with anorexia than girls without anorexia, and that it remains high even after successful treatment for anorexia. T/F ?

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According to a recent assessment of several research, is greater in girls with anorexia than girls without anorexia regardless of how it is evaluated, and it stays high even after effective anorexia treatment. True.

The catastrophic psychiatric condition anorexia nervosa (AN) is characterised by severe dietary restriction and low body weight, both of which are linked to serious physical and mental morbidity. The clinical severity of AN has encouraged research into behavioural and pharmaceutical therapies in an effort to develop empirically supported strategies to lessen the burden of the illness.

A first-line behavioural treatment for teenagers is family-based therapy. In order to further enhance results, research is still being done to determine the effectiveness of family-based treatment and the factors that influence treatment response.

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A random sample of patients who received a hip transplant operation at Hershey Medical Center during 2004 to 2014 will be followed for 10 years after their operation to determine success (or failure) of the transplant. This is an example of

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This is an example of a longitudinal study, specifically a cohort study. A cohort study follows a group of individuals who share a common characteristic or exposure, in this case, patients who received a hip transplant at Hershey Medical Center during 2004 to 2014, and tracks their outcomes over time.

The study is prospective, meaning that data is collected after the hip transplant operation and patients are followed for 10 years to determine the success or failure of the transplant.

This type of study design allows for the examination of the relationship between exposure and outcome over a long period of time and can provide important insights into the effectiveness of hip transplant surgery in the long term. Cohort studies are often used to study the natural history of diseases and the long-term effects of treatments.

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What is the Intolerance of Uncertainty Theory for GAD?

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The Intolerance of Uncertainty Theory is a cognitive-behavioral model that explains Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD). It proposes that individuals with GAD have a low tolerance for uncertainty, which leads to excessive worry and anxiety. These individuals perceive uncertainty as threatening, leading to a cycle of worry and avoidance behaviors.

According to this theory, individuals with GAD engage in cognitive and behavioral strategies to reduce uncertainty and anxiety, such as seeking reassurance, avoiding uncertainty, and overpreparing for situations. However, these strategies can become maladaptive and maintain anxiety symptoms.

Treatment based on this theory focuses on increasing tolerance for uncertainty by helping individuals develop more adaptive coping strategies, such as mindfulness, acceptance, and problem-solving. This approach aims to reduce excessive worry and avoidance behaviors and improve overall functioning.

Research supports the role of intolerance of uncertainty in GAD, and interventions based on this theory have shown promising results in reducing anxiety symptoms.

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What dose of whole body exposure leads to Acute Radiation Syndrome?Survival unlikely at what dose?

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Acute Radiation Syndrome (ARS) is a medical condition that occurs when a person is exposed to high levels of ionizing radiation within a short period of time. The severity of ARS symptoms depends on the amount of radiation the person is exposed to.

The threshold dose for developing ARS varies depending on several factors, such as the duration of exposure, the type of radiation, and individual susceptibility.

The minimum dose of whole-body radiation that can cause ARS is estimated to be 500 millisieverts (mSv), although some people may develop symptoms with doses as low as 200 mSv. The severity of ARS increases with the dose, and a dose of 1,000 mSv or more is considered to be potentially lethal. In general, survival is unlikely at doses greater than 4,000 mSv, and death can occur within days to weeks after exposure.

It is important to note that the symptoms of ARS can vary widely among individuals and can be influenced by several factors such as age, gender, general health status, and other co-existing medical conditions. Therefore, it is important to seek immediate medical attention if you suspect that you have been exposed to ionizing radiation at a high dose.

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Costway installation-free ultra-thin folding treadmill exercise fitness machine w/5-layer.

Answers

Because it's small and likely to get lost, keep your remote control in a secure location. Without it, the machine won't work. You must activate both the power switch on your remote control and the power switch at the treadmill's base in order to start it.

Abnormal power input, error code E7. Solution: Ensure that the treadmill is wired into an external power source and that the appropriate voltage is available so that it may be powered.

Turn off and disconnect your treadmill entirely after making sure it is connected to the power source and receiving the proper voltage. Walmart.com offers the Superfit 3.75HP Electric Folding Treadmill with Auto Incline and 12 Programme APP Control.

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-What is most useless tendon that can be used to fix others?

Answers

It is not appropriate or beneficial to consider any tendon as "useless." Each tendon in the human body serves a unique function and plays a crucial role in maintaining the body's stability and movement.

It is important to note that all tendons in the human body serve important functions and have specific roles in maintaining the body's stability and movement. Tendons are tough connective tissues that attach muscles to bones, allowing for the transmission of force between them.

If a tendon is damaged, there are various ways to treat it, including physical therapy, medication, and in severe cases, surgery. However, it is not ethical or appropriate to use a "useless" tendon to repair another.

All body parts and tissues, including tendons, should be respected and treated with care and consideration for their function and importance to the body's overall health and well-being.

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Symptomatic elongation of the styloid process >3 cm or calcification of the stylohyoid ligament: syndrome?

Answers

Symptomatic elongation of the styloid process >3 cm or calcification of the stylohyoid ligament can result in a condition known as Eagle Syndrome.

This rare condition can cause chronic pain in the head and neck area, difficulty swallowing, and a feeling of something stuck in the throat. The elongated styloid process or calcified stylohyoid ligament can irritate or compress nearby nerves, muscles, or blood vessels, leading to these symptoms.

Eagle Syndrome can be diagnosed through a combination of patient history, physical examination, and radiological imaging. Treatment options include conservative measures such as pain management and physical therapy, but in severe cases, surgical removal of the elongated styloid process may be necessary.

It's important to note that not all patients with elongated styloid processes or calcified stylohyoid ligaments will experience symptoms, and not all cases of chronic head and neck pain are caused by Eagle Syndrome. Therefore, it's essential to consult with a healthcare professional for an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan.

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A man has an abscess draining via the sinuses containing fluid with
yellow "sulfur granules." Is the organism part of the normal oral flora?

Answers

No, the organism associated with sulfur granules, Actinomyces israelii, is not part of the normal oral flora and is usually associated with infections in the cervicofacial region.

Actinomyces is a type of bacteria that is part of the normal oral flora. However, it can sometimes cause infections in the head and neck area, leading to the formation of abscesses. These abscesses are often associated with the presence of yellow "sulfur granules," which are clusters of bacteria and cellular debris. The sulfur granules are a characteristic feature of Actinomyces infections and are formed as a result of the organism's ability to break down proteins and other organic compounds. While Actinomyces is normally a harmless member of the oral flora, it can cause disease in individuals with weakened immune systems or in those who have suffered trauma to the oral tissues.

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What was the new model created by Baddeley & HItch in 1974?

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Baddeley and Hitch proposed the multicomponent working memory model in 1974, which suggests that working memory consists of distinct parts that handle specific types of information processing, such as the phonological loop, visuospatial sketchpad, and central executive.

The unitary model of short-term memory was questioned when Baddeley and Hitch's multicomponent working memory model was put out in 1974. According to this new theory, working memory is made up of a number of distinct parts that cooperate to store and process information. These parts, which each handle a particular kind of information processing, are the phonological loop, the visuospatial sketchpad, and the central executive. For instance, the visuospatial sketchpad processes visual and spatial information, whereas the phonological loop processes verbal and auditory information. Controlling attention and coordinating information processing among the other components are tasks that fall within the purview of the central executive.

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What is the characteristic cardiac finding on auscultation of ventricular septal defect?

Answers

A comprehensive cardiac evaluation is necessary to accurately diagnose and manage VSD.

The characteristic cardiac finding on auscultation of ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a loud, harsh holosystolic murmur.

The holosystolic murmur of VSD begins with the first heart sound (S1) and continues throughout systole until the second heart sound (S2). The murmur is typically heard best at the lower left sternal border, although it may be heard over a wider area of the chest depending on the size and location of the defect.

The loudness and intensity of the murmur depend on the size of the VSD and the amount of blood flow through the defect. Large VSDs typically produce louder murmurs than smaller defects, and the intensity of the murmur may increase with increased activity or when the patient is in a supine position.

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What is LD50 in 60 minutes (LD50/60) for radiation exposure?

Answers

LD50/60 is a term used to describe the lethal dose of radiation that can cause death in 50% of the exposed population within 60 minutes. This measurement is used to determine the effectiveness of radiation protection measures and to set safety guidelines for workers in nuclear industries.

The LD50/60 for radiation exposure varies depending on the type of radiation, the dose rate, and the duration of exposure. For example, the LD50/60 for gamma radiation is estimated to be around 4-5 Gy (Gray) in humans, while the LD50/60 for neutron radiation can be as low as 1.5 Gy.

It is important to note that radiation exposure is cumulative, meaning that repeated exposures can increase the risk of adverse effects. Therefore, it is essential to follow safety protocols and limit exposure to radiation as much as possible.

Overall, understanding the LD50/60 for radiation exposure is crucial in ensuring the safety of workers and the public in nuclear industries and in developing effective emergency response plans in case of accidental exposure.

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Which eating disorder involves overeating to the point of physical pain and then throwing up?

osteoporosis

bulimia nervosa

hypoglycemia

Binge Eating Disorder

Answers

Answer:

Bulimia

Explanation:

What are the changes from the Baddeley & Hitch 1974 model to the new Baddeley 2000 Working Memory Model?

Answers

Baddeley's 2000 Working Memory Model added a fourth component, the episodic buffer, to the original 1974 model of phonological loop, visuospatial sketchpad, and central executive.

Baddeley's 1974 model of working memory proposed that working memory consists of three components: the phonological loop, the visuospatial sketchpad, and the central executive. However, this model had limitations in explaining certain aspects of working memory, such as how information from different modalities is integrated. In 2000, Baddeley updated his model by adding a fourth component, the episodic buffer, which serves as a temporary store for multimodal information, allowing for the integration of information from different modalities. The episodic buffer also provides a bridge between working memory and long-term memory by binding information from the other components and sending it to long-term memory. The addition of the episodic buffer expanded the model's explanatory power and accounted for more complex working memory tasks.

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if the initial concentration of nh3 is 0.350 m and the concentration at equilibrium is 0.325 m, what is in the study examining the effect of beetles on goldenrod abundance, which of the following best describes the outcome in the presence of insecticide? market-oriented environmental tools for firms to take the social costs of pollution into account and in reacting to these incentives.T/F zero-coupon bonds: multiple choice offer a return in the form of a deep discount off the face value. result in zero interest revenue for the investor. result in zero interest expense for the issuer. are reported as shareholders' equity by the issuer. What is the Authentication Mechanisms compatible with Local, Active Directory, and LDAP identity stores: three bears manufacturing produces an auto-quartz watch movement called om362. three bears expects to sell 10,000 units of om362 and to have an ending finished inventory of 7,000 units. currently, it has a beginning finished inventory of 1,200 units. each unit of om362 requires two labor operations, one labor hour of assembling and one labor hour of polishing. the direct labor rate for assembling is $13 per assembling hour, and the direct labor rate for polishing is $16.50 per polishing hour. the expected cost of direct labor for om362 is: A deuterium atom is a hydrogen atom with a neutron added to its nucleus.Approximate the binding energy of this nucleus, given that the mass of the deuterium atom is 2.014102 u and the masses of a hydrogen atom and a neutron are 1.007825 u and 1.008665 u, respectively.A)2 ke VB)2 Me VC)2 Ge VD)2 e V a(n) is a mental framework that can be maladaptive or adaptive, according to cognitive therapists. group of answer choices Which hotel in singapore is home to the worlds largest rooftop pool?. the weight of water displaced by a person floating in the water is 686 N. what is the persons mass? Hilary conducts all of her day-to-day activities as if in a hazy dream. She sometimes feels as if she is a completely different person and is not sure why her other self is making the choices that she is.. How are the creature's first words similar to the typical first words of human babies? A clerk entering salary data into a company spreadsheet accidentally put an extra "0" in the boss's salary, listing it as $1,400,000 instead of $140,000. Explain how this error will affect these summary statistics for the company payroll. a) measures of center (median and mean)b) measures of spread (range, IQR, and standard deviation) This object-oriented programming language is used for app development. HTML PHP Block-based Java attempts average no score out of 1/ 1 5. the discount rate the discount rate is the interest rate the fed charges on loans of reserves to banks. the federal funds rate is the interest rate banks charge for overnight loans of reserves to other banks. which of the following statements about the discount rate and the federal funds rate are true? check all that apply. if the fed wants to expand the money supply, it can raise the discount rate. usually, banks borrow from the federal funds market rather than the discount window. the federal funds rate is a primary barometer of fed policy reported in the media. a higher discount rate discourages banks from borrowing reserves and making loans. which communication contrast is accurate? multiple choice only 10% of native-born americans speak a second language; 56% of european union citizens speak a second language. most native-born americans speak a second language, while few european union citizens speak a second language. less than 1% of native-born americans speak a second language; 76% of european union citizens speak a second language. at least half of native-born americans speak a second language, while about one-fourth of european union citizens speak a second language. almost all native-born americans speak a second language, while only a few european union citizens speak a second language. What is Krakauer's message by using the details of the moose hunter's trip to the bus? gold rush was the greatest mass migration in american history and one of the most important events in the first half of the nineteenth century. the infusion of gold into the u.s. economy contributed to the financial support of the Which of these is NOT a benefit of meditation?- Improved Memory- Increased Energy- Wasted Time- Reduced Stress Linux is freely developed and considered open source software. It is covered under this public license.