The patient who needs nutrition support for 2 to 4 weeks a person who has fluid restrictions is 5% Dextrose.
What is dextrose?The term dextrose has been primarily used as a carbohydrate for nutrition and as a source of fluid. Whereas Sodium chloride is primarily used as a source of fluid and electrolytes.
Nutrition is very important for every age group and these nutrients has been required as these are the important for the growth and development of the body and due to this balanced diet is required which contain all the nutrients.
Therefore, The patient who needs nutrition support for 2 to 4 weeks a person who has fluid restrictions is 5% Dextrose.
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which information should the nurse include in a postoperative teaching plan for a client with a laryngectomy? reassure the client that normal eating will be possible after healing has occurred. instruct the client to avoid coughing until the sutures are removed. tell the client to speak by covering the stoma with a sterile gauze pad. instruct the client to control oral secretions by swabbing them with tissues or by expectorating into an emesis basin.
The nurse should advise a client who has had a laryngectomy to limit their daily fluid intake in the postoperatively education program.
Can you talk after a laryngectomy?Since you won't have sound if your larynx has been removed completely (total laryngectomy), you won't be able to speak normally. You can regain communication in a variety of methods, albeit it may take months or weeks to master them.
Can you eat with a laryngectomy tube?If the patient consumes food orally, it is advised that suction the tracheostomy tube first. This frequently eliminates the need for suctioning, which can cause diarrhea and severe coughing during or after meals.
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what data would be significant to obtain when performing a focused genitourinary history of a patient?
The gathering of subjective information regarding the patient's food and exercise regimen is part of a focused gastrointestinal and genitourinary assessment.
Which one is more accurate, focused or both?Useful hints. While more prevalent in the UK and Australia, its spelling focused is far more frequent in the US. The spelling focused is described as irregular in the Oxford English Dictionary. Focused is a commonly used spelling in the UK, but prestige media tend to use focused more frequently (focuses, focusing).
How would one who is focused be described?People that are truly focused always have a plan in place. They know exactly where they're heading and have a solid plan for get there. Create a well-defined path to achieve your goal. It doesn't need to be complex.
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which client likely has the highest risk of developing an acquired hypocoagulation disorder and vitamin k deficiency?
The question isn't complete, as there are no options that we can choose from. That being said, generally, a client that likely has the highest risk of developing an acquired hypercoagulation disorder and vitamin K deficiency is a client that has a liver failure diagnosis secondary to alcohol abuse.
Hypercoagulation disorder, also called hypercoagulability, is a condition where the body is more likely to make blood clots than normal. Normally, coagulation is important to stop bleeding and start the healing process. However, too much clotting can be dangerous. People with hypercoagulation disorder have a higher risk for:
StrokeHeart attackSevere leg painLoss of limbsThis disorder is usually inherited from parents or acquired from trauma, surgery, medication, or medical conditions.
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diagnostic evaluation the client is scheduled for a complete blood count (cbc), rheumatoid factor (rf), erythrocyte sedimentation rate (esr), joint x-rays, and a bone scan. additional diagnostic tests, which may be performed to help diagnose rheumatoid arthritis, include a mri, synovial fluid analysis, or a synovial biopsy. 1. which nursing intervention related to the scheduled bone scan is most important to implement?
A condition in which the kidneys stop working and are not able to remove waste and extra water from the blood or keep body chemicals in balance. Acute or severe renal failure happens suddenly (for example, after an injury) and may be treated and cured.
What is Acute renal failure means?
Acute kidney injury (AKI), also known as acute renal failure (ARF), can be a sudden episode of kidney failure or injury that occurs within hours to days. AKI causes waste products to accumulate in the blood, making it difficult for the kidneys to maintain the proper water balance in the body.
Therefore, A condition in which the kidneys stop working and are not able to remove waste and extra water from the blood or keep body chemicals in balance. Acute or severe renal failure happens suddenly (for example, after an injury) and may be treated and cured.
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nurses are occasionally asked to witness a testator's (person who makes the will) signing of a will. which guideline is true regarding a nurse's role in witnessing a testator's signature?
Nurses are occasionally asked to witness a testator's (person who makes the will) signing of a will and the guideline which is true regarding a nurse's role in witnessing a testator's signature is Witnesses to a signature do not need to read the will.
Witnesses to the signature on a can don't got to scan it, however they ought to take care the document being signed could be a can and not another document. Witnesses ought to watch the someone sign the need, and that they ought to register the presence of every alternative. A beneficiary to a can isn't allowed to act as a witness in most states. 2 or 3 witnesses are most typically needed on a will.
The question is incomplete, here is the complete question
Nurses are occasionally asked to witness a testator's (person who makes the will) signing of his or her will. Which of the following guidelines is true regarding a nurse's role is witnessing a testator's signature?
a) Witnesses do not need to observe the signing of the will and can sign it at a later time.
b) A beneficiary to a will is allowed to act as a witness.
c) A single witness is sufficient for a will.
d) Witnesses to a signature do not need to read the will.
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a patient is on a ventilator and is sedated. what care may the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (uap)?
A client is on a ventilator and is sedated, then the nurse must delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel to : assess pain and sedation needs, and also monitor the patient’s blood pressure every 2 to 4 hours.
What should be the care of a client on a ventilator?When UAP enters the patient's room, the/she should take vital signs, check oxygen saturation, listen to breath sounds, and note changes from previous findings. Also assessing the patient's pain and anxiety levels is very important. Make sure to read the patient's order and obtain information about the ventilator.
85% of intensive care unit (ICU) patients are given intravenous sedatives to help attenuate the anxiety, pain, and agitation associated with mechanical ventilation.
When the patient is on ventilator and sedated then review communications with the family members and also keep a check on ventilator settings and modes.
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you are a new sports dietitian in a college athletic department and are developing protocols for measuring weight and body composition for your athletes. based on the international olympic committees (ioc) medical commission recommendations, how would you recommend that coaches be involved in this process?
Based on the international olympic committees (ioc) medical commission recommendations, coaches can be involved in the process of developing protocols for measuring weight and body composition for your athletes by supervising and ensuring that the right meal are eaten.
Who is a Dietitian?This is referred to as a type of healthcare professional who specializes in the assessment, diagnosis and treatment of dietary and nutritional problems of an individual or a client.
In a scenario where the protocols needed for measuring weight and body composition are developed, it is best to include the coach so as to ensure that there is adequate supervision and tio ensure that they are followed for the best possible result which is therefore the correct choice.
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diagnostic radiology: x-ray of abdomen: radiological examination 1-view of abdomen reveals no abnormal soft tissue masses, gas shadows, or calcifications. liver and spleen not enlarged. visualized bones appear normal.
For an abdomen x-ray, the radiological examination 1-view shows no abnormal masses, gas shadows, or calcifications, while bones, liver, and spleen appear normal. The correct code for the examination is: 74018.
What is the radiological examination?The radiological examination is a procedure that uses radiation to find any abnormalities that are signs or symptoms of cancer in the patient’s body. We can examine this by using x-rays, CT, MRI, etc. Diagnostic radiology or diagnostic imaging has a wide range of codes, from 70010-76499. The code 74018 stands for a radiologic examination of the abdomen. This type of examination is used to detect signs of cancer in the abdomen area.
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a nurse assessing a client's respiratory status gets a weak signal from the pulse oximeter. the client's other vital signs are within reference ranges. what is the nurse's best action?
The nurse assessing a client's respiratory status gets a weak signal from the pulse oximeter. the client's other vital signs are within reference ranges. The nurse's best action should be Warm the client's hands and try again.
Give a brief idea about pulse oximetry.A non-invasive technique for checking someone's oxygen saturation is pulse oximetry. Values of peripheral oxygen saturation (SpO2) are normally within 2% accuracy (within 4% accuracy in 95% of instances) of readings of arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) from arterial blood gas analysis, which are more accurate (and intrusive). However, the correlation between the two is strong enough that the safe, practical, non-invasive, and affordable pulse oximetry approach is useful for determining oxygen saturation in clinical settings.
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the nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube drainage system and notes constant bubbling in the water seal chamber. which nursing action is appropriate?
Full Question :The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube drainage system. The nurse notes a fluctuating water level on inspiration and expiration in the submerged tube in the water seal chamber of the chest tube drainage system. Which nursing action is appropriate?
1.Suction the client.
2.Increase the suction.
3.Document the findings.
4.Encourage coughing and deep breathing
The nurse action 3.Document the findings
What is chest tube drainage system ?
A chest tube drainage system is a sterile, disposable device that has one or more chambers and a compartment system with a one-way valve to evacuate air or fluid from the patient and prevent it from entering the patient again.
A chest tube drainage system with three chambers, including a water seal, suction control, and drainage collection chamber, is a chest drain, also referred to as an under water sealed drain (UWSD).
A chest drainage system (CDS) is connected once a chest tube has been inserted. The four primary types of CDS are one-way Heimlich valves, analog three-container systems, digital or electronic CDS, and simple vacuum bottles.
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a client has buck's extension traction applied to the right leg. the nurse would plan which intervention to prevent complications of the device?
The nurse inspects the skin on the right leg at least once every 8 hours to prevent complications of the device.
Skin traction includes Buck's extension traction. At least once every eight hours, the nurse checks the skin of the leg in traction for irritation or inflammation. Lotion massage on the skin is not advised. When traction weights are applied, the nurse never removes them until the doctor specifically instructs her to. With skin traction, there are no pins to take care of.
For femoral fractures, lower back pain, as well as acetabular and hip fractures, Buck's skin traction is frequently employed in the lower limb. Skin traction lessens pain and maintains length in fractures, although it rarely reduces fractures.
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What is the difference between a secondary immune response occurring without a vaccine compared to the same response occurring after a vaccine?.
Without vaccination, the immune system can more quickly and effectively rid the body of the antigen that was met during the initial invasion during the secondary immune response. Vaccination makes use of this secondary response by exposing the body to the antigens of a specific pathogen and activating the immune system without actually producing disease.
The purpose of vaccinations is to prepare the body so that when a person is exposed to the disease-causing organism, their immune system will be able to respond quickly and with high activity, killing the pathogen before it causes sickness and lowering the chance of transmission to others.
This means that after vaccination, the immune system makes use of the secondary immune response by exposing the body to the antigens of a specific pathogen. Without the vaccine, the immune system can destroy the antigen during the secondary immune response.
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a hospice nurse has developed a care plan for a client with liver cancer. the care plan focuses on providing palliative care for this client. the goal of palliative care is best described as providing clients with life-threatening illnesses a dignified quality of life through which means?
Through aggressive management of symptoms, the goal of palliative care is best described as providing clients with life-threatening illnesses a dignified quality of life. Thus, the correct option is A.
What is Palliative care?Palliative care is the interdisciplinary medical caregiving approach which is aimed at optimizing the quality of life and mitigating the suffering among people with serious, complex, and often terminal illness.
The main goals of Palliative care are as follows:
1. Relieve pain and other symptoms.
2. Address emotional and spiritual concerns, and those of the caregivers.
3. Coordinate care of patient.
4. Improve the quality of life during illness.
Therefore. the correct option is A.
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Your question is incomplete, most probably the complete question is:
A hospice nurse has developed a care plan for a client with liver cancer. The care plan focuses on providing palliative care for this client. The goal of palliative care is best described as providing clients with life-threatening illnesses a dignified quality of life through which means?
A. aggressive management of symptoms
B. treatment of the disease process
C. eliminating all forms of medical and nursing care
D. providing counseling related to the stages of death and dying
he community health nurse is conducting an educational session with community members regarding the signs and symptoms associated with tuberculosis. the nurse informs the participants that tuberculosis is considered as a diagnosis if which signs and symptoms are present? select all that apply
The nurse explains to participants that because tuberculosis is thought to be a diagnosis, the signs & symptoms include dyspnea, night sweats, a bloody, productive cough & a cough that produces mucoid sputum.
What is tuberculosis?A bacterial infection with the potential to be dangerous that mainly affects the lungs The germs that cause TB are spread when a person with the illness coughs or sneezes. Most people who have the bacteria that cause tuberculosis don't have any symptoms. A fever, weight loss, night sweats, and a cough are frequently present symptoms when they do appear.. For those with no symptoms, treatment is not always necessary. A lengthy course of treatment involving numerous antibiotics will be necessary for patients who have active symptoms.
What happens if you get tuberculosis?Common symptoms of TB disease include fatigue, feelings of sickness or weakness, weight loss, fever, and night sweats. Aside from chest pain, other symptoms of TB lung disease include bloody coughing and coughing up debris. The location of the infection determines the symptoms of TB disease in other body parts.
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The correct question is :The community health nurse is conducting an educational session with community members regarding the signs and symptoms associated with tuberculosis. The nurse informs the participants that tuberculosis is considered as a diagnosis if which signs and symptoms are present? Select all that apply
1)Dyspnea
2)Headache
3)Night sweats
4)A bloody, productive cough
5)A cough with the expectoration of mucoid sputum
the team leader orders you to defibrillate the patient per acls guidelines. knowing that this is not the correct choice, how do you address the leader?
As defibrillating the patient per ACLS guidelines is not a correct choice, then, he/she should have a constructive intervention with the team leader.
Constructive interventions are grounded in mutual respect and take it one step further by requiring ACLS participants to take action or intervene for patient safety when they know something is up. that's not ok during coding. It does not matter what role the participant plays in the process; they must intervene if they know a mistake is being made.
This could mean that a new or junior team member begins to question or correct a team leader if they feel an impending action may be inappropriate or incorrect.
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next gen olivia jones is admitted with a diagnosis of preeclampsia at 36 weeks of gestation. which assessment finding(s) are consistent with a diagnosis of preeclampsia with severe features?
At 36 weeks of gestation, the assessment finding(s) which are consistent with a diagnosis of preeclampsia are high blood pressure and protein in your urine.
Preeclampsia is a doubtless dangerous physiological condition complication characterized by high blood pressure. It usually begins after 20 weeks of pregnancy and it will result in serious, even fatal, complications for each mother and baby. Some women with gestational hypertension may develop preeclampsia.
With preeclampsia, you not only have high blood pressure but also find protein in your urine (proteinuria) or alternative signs of kidney organ injury. Any quantity of protein in your urine over three hundred mg in in the future could indicate this condition.
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a client with acute asthma is prescribed short-term corticosteroid therapy. which is the expected outcome for the use of steroids in clients with asthma?
The expected outcome for the use of steroids in clients with asthma with acute asthma who is prescribed short-term corticosteroid therapy is to have an anti-inflammatory effect (Option c).
What is the relationship between steroids and asthma?The relationship between steroids and asthma is positive the sense that can avoid the progress of inflammatory response and cause an enhancement in the body parts of the patient who is experiencing this health problem.
Moreover, corticosteroids are a type of steroid lipid used to suppress immune responses including inflammatory immune responses.
Therefore, with this data, we can see the relationship between steroids and asthma is positive by avoiding the inflammation of the body part involved (in this case the airways), whereby the individual is able to breathe in normal conditions.
Complete question:
A client with acute asthma is prescribed short-term corticosteroid therapy. Which is the expected outcome for the use of steroids in clients with asthma?
a.) promote bronchodilation
b.) act as an expectorant
c.) have an anti-inflammatory effect
d.) prevent development of respiratory infections
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which of the following statements regarding penetrating injuries is correct? a.the depth of a penetrating injury should be thoroughly assessed by the emt. b.external bleeding might be minimal, but internal injuries can be extensive. c.the degree of internal injury can often be estimated by the external injury. d.it is important to distinguish between entrance and exit wounds in the field.
External bleeding may be minimal but internal injuries can be extensive is correct regarding penetrating injuries.
What are penetrating injuries?
Penetrating trauma is an injury caused by a foreign object piercing the skin, which damages the underlying tissues and results in an open wound. The most common causes of such trauma are gunshots, explosive devices, and stab wounds.
What is an example of a penetrating injury?
Penetrating injuries are caused when the body is pierced by an object and may be caused by injuries such as stabbings and gunshot wounds.
What causes penetrating injury?
Penetrating trauma is an injury caused by a foreign object piercing the skin, which damages the underlying tissues and results in an open wound. The most common causes of such trauma are gunshots, explosive devices, and stab wounds.
Thus, external bleeding may be minimal but internal injuries can be extensive is correct regarding penetrating injuries.
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the nurse is examining the laboratory results of a client with lactic acidosis whose ph is 7.35. which mechanism(s) has contributed to the ph being within normal range? select all that apply.
The normal range of pH during lactic acidosis can be maintained by: sufficient intake of fluids, hemodialysis with bicarbonate ions, adequate amounts of oxygen in the body, etc.
Lactic acidosis is the condition where the body wither produces excessive lactic acid or is not able to use the lactic acid efficiently. The causes for this condition can be different like over-exercise, kidney, heart or liver disorders, alcohol addiction, etc.
Hemodialysis is the artificial method of filtering blood using a machine called dialyzer. Dialyzer is said to be the artificial kidney. In lactic acidosis, bicarbonate ions are added to the purified blood because their level falls down during the condition.
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the nurse is taking care of a client who is scheduled for a mastectomy. the client tells the nurse that the client is apprehensive about the operation and asks the nurse to read a passage from the koran to help prepare the client for surgery. which action by the nurse is the most appropriate?
Read the Koran passage to the client is the action by the nurse is the most appropriate.
What types of tasks does a nurse perform?Registered nurses (RNs) administer and supervise patient care, educate the public about different health issues, and provide psychological support and counseling to patients' relatives. The majority of nurses work together along with physicians and other medical professionals in a wide range of settings.
How many years do nurses live?Individuals with access to formal health education as having a nurse or doctor in the relatives 10% less likely to survive beyond the age of 80, according study released in a journal article by the Institute of Economic Analysis.
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a nurse on a solid organ transplant unit is planning the care of a client who will soon be admitted upon immediate recovery following liver transplantation. what aspect of nursing care is the nurse's priority?
Answer:
Implementation of infection-control measures
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a 22-year-old daycare worker comes to the clinic for evaluation of fever as high as 103 that 5 degrees fahrenheit, headache, and neck pain. she has photophobia and neck stiffness. during the physical examination, you flex the patient's leg at both the hip and the knee and then straighten her knee to elicit meningeal irritation. the patient experiences severe pain. the name of this sign is
According to the given statement the patient experiences severe pain. the name of this sign is Kernig's sign.
How can I tell whether my headache ?Your headache is intense or explosive when it first begins. Even though you frequently experience headaches, this one is "the worst ever." You may also experience confusion, memory loss, loss of coordination, impaired vision, difficulties moving your wrists and ankles, and design defects in addition to your headache. Throughout the day, your headache gets worse.
How does a headache caused by Covid feel?Some of the distinctive characteristics of a COVID-19 headache, according to researchers, include: pulsating, pushing, or stabbing in nature. occurring on both sides (across the whole head) strong pressure that won't go away even taking common painkillers like acetaminophen and ibuprofen.
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which action would the nurse take for an older client with alzheimer disease who has intermittent episodes of
Answer:
Point out the behavior to the client.
2
Obtain incontinence pads for the client.
Correct3
*Take the client to the bathroom at regular intervals.
4
Encourage the client to call for help when there is an urge to urinate.
Answer: Other diseases can mimic Alzheimer's disease, so a comprehensive evaluation is essential to rule out other causes of dementia.
Explanation: Other disease can mimic Alzheimer's disease, so a comprehensive evaluation is essential to rule out other causes of dementia before the diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease is made. Alzheimer's disease is a form of dementia not delirium.
the nurse is preparing to administer warfarin. the patient's current lab values are: pt 12.9 inr 5.9 ptt 39 platelets 175,000 which action should the nurse implement?
The nurse implement is get ready to give aquamephyton.
What is the nursing process called implementation?The treatment plan is implemented when it is put into practice. Typically, any necessary medical interventions are first carried out by the medical staff. The patient then complies with the plan for a speedy recovery. You will be required to keep an eye on the patient's compliance as a nurse as you implement the plan.
What does nursing practise look like in practise?Giving IV fluids to a patient who is dehydrated is an example of a physiological nursing intervention. Actions that keep a patient safe and avoid harm are referred to as safety nursing interventions.
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a patient in the emergency department sustained a knife wound to the abdomen. the wound extended through the membranes surrounding the large intestine, into the layers of the large intestine, and into the lumen of the large intestine. discuss the membranes and layers that were penetrated, from superficial (outermost) to deep (innermost).
The membrane and sections that were pierced from the surface to the depths (innermost).
What's within the abdomen?The stomach, the jejunum and ileum of the small intestine, the colon of the large intestine, the liver, the brain, the liver, the thyroid, the uterus, the reproductive organs, the eggs, the kidneys, its vas deferens, the bladder, and numerous blood vessels are all located in the abdomen (arteries and veins).
What use does the abdomen serve?Breathing, digestion, posture, equilibrium, and movement are the main purposes of the abdomen. The abdomen contains all of the key organs involved in digesting. The auxiliary muscles of breathing rely heavily on the abdomen for breathing.
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what is the ultimate future state for a health care system called when an integrated approach to improve care, improve population health and lower health care costs have been achieved?
Triple Aim is the ultimate future state for a healthcare system when an integrated approach to improve care, improve population health and lower healthcare costs have been achieved.
How does integrated healthcare work?Integrating the physical, emotional, behavioral, and financial facets of healthcare, integrated healthcare is a collaborative approach to patient treatment. The objective is to offer comprehensive treatment and prevention for a variety of chronic illnesses.
The multidisciplinary nature of integrated healthcare systems necessitates close coordination and information exchange across all of the major participants in a patient's care as opposed to the compartmentalized approach of traditional healthcare. It contains health experts from a variety of disciplines, including physicians, nurses, behavioral psychologists, therapists, and even navigators for health insurance.
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a multiparous client gives birth to dizygotic twins at 37 weeks' gestation. the twin neonates require additional hospitalization after the client is discharged. what is the most appropriate goal to include in the plan of care for the parents while the twins are hospitalized?
Put warm blankets on any places where the newborn dizygotic twins will be put. Conduction is the process by which body heat is transferred from a baby to a colder solid object. It is required to cover surfaces with a warmed blanket or towel to reduce conduction heat loss.
Which of the following would be the best course of action if a newborn's cry was judged to be sporadic, weak, and extremely high pitched?Which course of action would be best after determining that a newborn's cry is sporadic, feeble, and extremely high pitched? Notify the primary care physician as soon as possible because a neurologic issue may be present.
What nursing procedures are required for the baby receiving phototherapy?Neonatal patients need constant observation of their temperature, hydration (measured by urine output), and feeding (weight gain).
Clinically, jaundice has improved.
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the client asked the nurse to describe stage c heart failure. what is the best explanation by the nurse?
Nurses describe stage C heart failure as heart failure that begins to cause symptoms due to a weakening of the heart's left ventricle.
What is Heart Failure? What are their stages?Heart failure is a chronic disease that gets worse over time. Heart failure has her four stages (stages A, B, C, and D).In Stage C, heart failure begins to cause symptoms due to weakness of the left ventricle. This is also the stage when symptoms such as fatigue and shortness of breath are common.In stage C, swelling of the extremities, especially legs and feet, may also occur.Is stage C heart failure curable and reversible?There is no cure for CHF, but early detection and treatment can help people live longer. Following a treatment plan that includes lifestyle changes can improve your quality of life. CHF is a chronic disease that worsens over time in many patients, but can sometimes be reversed with timely treatment and a healthy lifestyle. In general, heart disease is more likely to recover if detected early and treated promptlyTo learn more about heart failure visit:
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which clinical symptoms in a postoperative patient indicate early sepsis with an excellent recovery rate if treated?
Clinical symptoms in postoperative patients showing early sepsis are postoperative wounds that dry for a long time. Treatment of sepsis can be done by administering antibiotics which is one of the main therapies that must be given in cases of bacterial infections.
Surgical wound infection is an infection that occurs in surgical incision wounds. This condition generally appears within the first 30 days after surgery, with symptoms of pain, redness, smelly discharge, and a burning sensation on the scar. Surgical wound infections are generally caused by bacteria, such as Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, and Pseudomonas.
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If you want to check for consecutive myocardial infarction, which lab value is the most effective?.
A coronary heart assault, also called a myocardial infarction, takes place while a part of the heart muscle would not get sufficient blood. The more time that passes with out treatment to restore blood flow, the more the damage to the coronary heart muscle. Coronary artery sickness (CAD) is the primary purpose of coronary heart attack.
A heart attack (medically known as a myocardial infarction) is a lethal medical emergency in which your coronary heart muscle starts offevolved to die as it isn't always getting sufficient blood waft. A blockage in the arteries that deliver blood in your heart generally causes this.
Probabilities of survival depend on the severity of the myocardial infarction. in step with latest studies, large heart attack survival costs are low, but the survival price after coronary heart assaults in hospital care is between ninety% to ninety seven%.
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