which of the following is an example of cultural relativism while dr. gambler knows that his patient

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Answer 1

Cultural relativism promotes awareness of customs that are foreign to other cultures in an effort to combat ethnocentrism. For example, friends of the same gender frequently hold hands while out in public in India.

What is cultural relativism?

The idea of seeing a culture's ideas, values, and practices from the perspective of that culture itself is known as cultural relativism.

It claims that there are no universal truths and that each culture must be understood in its own particular words since they cannot be transformed into universally understood terms.

The principle is occasionally applied to prevent cultural bias in research and to prevent evaluating another culture according to the norms of one's own. Cultural relativism has thus been seen as an effort to steer clear of ethnocentrism.

Cultural relativism is the capacity to comprehend another culture on that culture's terms and, as a result, refrain from judging others based on the norms of one's own culture.

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Related Questions

A guest who has consumed several drinks asks for a food menu. When ordering, the guest has trouble focusing on the menu and forgets the order. Which sign of intoxication does this suggest?

A. Impaired judgment
B. Relaxed Inhibitions
C. slowed reaction time
D. Impaired motor coordination

Answers

A guest who has consumed several drinks asks for a food menu. When ordering, the guest has trouble focusing on the menu and forgets the order This guest is shows the signs of slowed reaction time.

this is one of the signs of alcohol intoxication. Other similar signs are talking or moving slowly, losing his train of thought, being sleepy and being unable to concentrate. Slowed reaction time is "Reaction time may be a good indicator of how well our central nervous system and other bodily systems are functioning. People who repeatedly take a while to react to new information may later have issues that enhance their risk of passing away too soon. In the future, we could be able to track survival and health using reaction times.

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Which statement is true regarding social influences on lifestyles behaviors?

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The statement that is true regarding social influences on lifestyle behaviors is your social environment is limited to just family and close friends. The correct option is c.

What is lifestyle behavior?

Lifestyle behaviors are routine actions that come from a person's values, knowledge, and norms that are influenced by a larger cultural and social context.

These behaviors, which are impacted by a range of social traits, have an impact on both body weight and general health.

Therefore, the correct option is C. Your social environment is limited to just family and close friends.

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The question is incomplete. Your most probably complete question is given below:

A. Peer pressure doesn’t impact lifestyle behaviors.

B. A negative social environment doesn’t influence mental and emotional health

C. Your social environment is limited to just family and close friends.

D. Societal views Can have positive and negative influences on lifestyle behaviors.

With respect to asthma, the hygiene hypothesis is supported by data showing all of the following EXCEPT _____. A. children born by cesarean delivery (very sterile) have more asthma, B. farm children have less asthma and other allergies, C. first-born children develop asthma more often than later-born children, D. city children have less asthma and fewer allergies

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With respect to asthma, the hygiene hypothesis is supported by data showing    D. city children have less asthma and fewer allergies

Infections including sinusitis, colds, and the flu are frequently asthma triggers. allergens such dust mites, mold, pet dander, and pollen. Strong perfume or cleaning product odors irritate people. a disorder when a person's airways narrow, swell, become irritated, and create excess mucus, making it difficult to breathe.  minor case of asthma could not even interfere with daily activities. It might occasionally result in a life-threatening assault. Breathing issues, chest pain, a cough, and wheezing can all be symptoms of asthma. On occasion, the symptoms could worsen. Salbutamol-based rescue inhalers and controller inhalers, which avoid symptoms, are typically used to manage asthma (steroids). Inhalants that are longer acting and keep the airways open, such as formoterol, salmeterol, and tiotropium, may be necessary in severe cases.

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a nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has stage 3 hiv. which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding?

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"HIV is transmitted through IV substance use." the following statements by the client indicates understanding

HIV: What is it? The immune system of the organism is attacked by the HIV (human immunodeficiency virus). HIV can cause AIDS if it is not treated (acquired immunodeficiency syndrome). Currently, there is no cure that works well. Once someone contracts HIV, they will always have it.How do you handle someone who has HIV?

Discuss your feelings with your support system, including your family, friends, and providers. Try to identify stress-relieving pursuits, such as exercise or a hobby. To help you feel rested, try to get enough sleep each night. Study relaxation techniques including yoga, meditation, and deep breathing.

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A college student comes to the student health center with a 4-day history of flu-like symptoms. The client reports feeling increasing fatigue, thirst, and nausea over the last 24 hours. Further assessment and lab work indicate that the client is experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The client is transferred to an acute care facility for treatment. The nurse notes that the client's breath has a fruity odor, they are exhibiting Kussmaul respirations.

Answers

Respirations are deep and quick to counteract metabolic acidosis. Through a series of deep, quick breaths known as Kussmaul respirations, lungs try to expel [tex]Co_{2}[/tex]  to counteract metabolic acidosis (ketoacidosis).

The potentially fatal condition known as diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) affects patients with diabetes. It happens when the body begins to break down fat at an excessively rapid rate. In those who have not yet been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes, DKA can occasionally be the initial symptom. It can also happen to someone who has already received a type 1 diabetes diagnosis. DKA in patients with type 1 diabetes can be brought on by trauma, illness, injury, missed insulin doses, surgery stress, or any of a number of other factors.

DKA can also occur in people with type 2 diabetes, but it is less common and less severe. It is typically brought on by extended periods of uncontrolled blood sugar, missed medication dosages, or a serious illness or infection.

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Which of the following is the primary distinguishing factor between uncomplicated and complicated urinary tract infections?

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Uncomplicated urinary tract infections happen to normally healthy persons with normal urinary tract structure. Complicated infections typically affect patients who use catheters.

Also those who have abnormalities or obstructions of the urinary tract, or have impaired immune systems. Less frequently seen in older women, pregnant women, and men, simple urinary tract infections mostly affect sexually active women. Despite the fact that the prevalence of urinary tract infections has not significantly altered over the past ten years, the diagnostic standards, bacterial resistance patterns, and suggested treatments have. Urinary tract infections are most frequently brought on by Escherichia coli, then Staphylococcus saprophyticus. The recommended treatment for urinary tract infections has always been trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, although E. The antibiotic resistance of E. coli is rising.

Numerous professionals endorse the use of ciprofloxacin as a substitute and, in some circumstances, as the preferred first-line agent. Others warn that ciprofloxacin's extensive use will lead to an increase in resistance.

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A client is admitted to a psychiatric unit for treatment of a psychotic disorder. The client is at the locked exit door & is shouting, "Let me out! There's nothing wrong with me! I don't belong here!" The nurse identifies this behavior as which?

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A patient is admitted to a mental health facility to receive treatment for a psychotic condition. The client is screaming at the closed exit door "Let me out! I'm not broken, I assure you! This is not my place." This reaction is described by the nurse as denial.

A variety of severe mental illnesses that impact the psyche include psychotic disorders. They impair a person's capacity for rational thought, sound judgment, emotional response, effective communication, comprehension of reality, and acceptable behavior.

When a person finds it difficult to accept or admit genuine facts or experiences, they turn to denial as a coping mechanism. It is a built-in safety feature intended to protect the subject from pain or misery. Denial is the conscious decision not to accept unpleasant things as true. Denying suppressed homosexuality or rage feelings, as well as mental health issues in their children, might help a person escape unacceptable ideas, feelings, or experiences.

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mandy is extremely depressed and is prescribed a drug to alleviate her depression. the drug would likely affect the neurotransmitter.

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Mandy is extremely depressed and is prescribed a drug to alleviate her depression. The drug would likely affect the neurotransmitter dopamine.

A sort of neurotransmitter and hormone is dopamine. It affects a variety of vital bodily processes, such as mobility, memory, rewarding pleasure, and motivation. Several neurological and mental health conditions are correlated with dopamine levels that are high or low.What effects does dopamine have on people?

What function does dopamine serve? You can experience pleasure, happiness, and motivation thanks to dopamine. Dopamine levels in the brain spike when you feel good about what you have accomplished.

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Drag the tiles to the boxes to form correct pairs.
•Dr. Jones schedules patient appointments
in a way that allows her to take the time to
listen to her patients and make sure that they
feel heard.
•Dr. Smith is always at the hospital on time,
helps his coworkers, and stays aware of
advancements to make sure he provides
quality care.
•Dr. Martin develops an app that helps his
department send reminders to patients about
appointments, which saves the support staff's time.

creativity
empathy
reliability

Answers

Careers in therapeutic services are those that support patients' long-term efforts to improve or maintain their health state. Careers in the diagnostic services pathway create a snapshot of the patient's health status at a certain moment in time by assisting in the diagnosis of a disease or condition.

Which healthcare worker is in charge of recording patient care?

Documentation from the attending doctor The attending physician serves as the main point of contact for all patient records documentation in the acute care inpatient setting.

What does the healthcare system's four-level model entail?

The Beveridge, Bismarck, National Health Insurance, and Out-of-Pocket models are the four main healthcare delivery systems, in basic terms.

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the initial clinical manifestations associated with acute spinal cord injury are all of the following except:

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The most typical signs of severe spinal cord injury are as follows: weakened muscles loss of chest, arm, or leg muscle voluntary movement breathing difficulties

Your spinal cord might be in shock immediately following a spinal cord injury. Feeling, muscle movement, and reflexes are lost or diminished as a result. However, depending on where the injury was sustained, other symptoms could develop when the swelling subsides. The severity of the symptoms typically increases with the level of spinal cord injury. For instance, a neck injury, a spinal column damage to C1, C2, or a mid-cervical injury to C3, C4, or C5 vertebrae impairs the respiratory muscles and breathing capacity. Injuries to the lumbar vertebrae at a lower level.

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what is your favorite sport?

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Answer:

Not related to the subject you chose but my favorite sport is football

Explanation:

My favorite team is the KC Chiefs

My favorite sport is soccer

What is hyper mammary development?

Answers

Excessively large mammary glands is hyper mammary development.

The mammary gland is an exocrine organ that secretes milk to sustain the young in humans and other mammals. Mammals get their name from the Latin word mamma, which meaning "breast." The mammary glands are found in the breast of primates (including humans and chimpanzees), the udder of ruminants (such as cows, goats, sheep, and deer), and the dugs of other animals (for example, dogs and cats).

The mammary glans provide advantage to mammals to nourish their young ones and helped in making mammals most successful groups in the world in term of colonization of natural resources.

Cats with mammary hyperplasia have many mammary glands that rapidly and dramatically expand. It mainly occurs in young, cycling females but is also occasionally observed in men and spayed females.

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which of the following is classified as the most common primary mineral salt composition of kidney stones?patho exam

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Mineral types that can cause kidney stones include: calcium and oxalate, which make up the majority of kidney stones.

What is kidney stones?Hard mineral and acid salt deposits called kidney stones bind together in concentrated urine. Although travelling through the urinary tract can be uncomfortable, they often don't result in long-term harm. The most prevalent symptom is severe pain, which is typically in the side of the abdomen and frequently accompanied by nausea.In order to help the stone pass, treatment options include painkillers and drinking lots of water. Larger stones may need to be removed or broken apart using medical techniques.Although passing kidney stones can be extremely painful, if they are caught early enough, they typically don't result in permanent harm. You might only need to take painkillers and drink a lot of water to clear a kidney stone, depending on your circumstances. Surgery might be required in other situations, such as when stones become trapped in the urinary tract, are linked to an infection, or result in problems.

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Which of the following is classified as acute injuries?A Bursitis B. Osteoarthritis C. Stress Fracture D. Strain

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Strain (D) is classified as acute injury.

A strain is a muscle, tendon, or both of these soft tissue injuries that can be either acute or chronic. The analogous injury to a ligament is a sprain. Generally, the muscle or tendon overstretches and partially tears, under more physical stress than it can handle, frequently from a rapid increase in duration, intensity, or frequency of an activity. Usually, strains affect the foot, leg, or back. Immediate therapy often includes five measures abbreviated as P.R.I.C.E.: protection, rest, ice, compression, elevation.

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The nurse recognizes health promotion efforts to decrease the risk for ischemic stroke involve encouraging a healthy lifestyle, including which of the following?A low-fat, low-cholesterol diet, and increasing exercise

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The goal of health promotion is to lower the risk of ischemic stroke by promoting a healthy lifestyle that includes increased physical activity and a low-fat, low-cholesterol diet.

What is an ischemic stroke?

When the blood flow to a portion of the brain is blocked or diminished, brain tissue cannot receive oxygen and nutrients, which results in an ischemic stroke. In minutes, brain cells start to degenerate. A stroke is a medical emergency, therefore getting help quickly is essential. Early intervention can lessen problems and brain damage.

According to recent research, women with thrombotic strokes are less likely to consume fish two or more times per week.

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list and describe three health-promoting strategies that are essential elements of a training program.

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Three health promoting strategies that are essential elements of a training program. The small circle stands for the three basic strategies for health promotion, “enabling, mediating, and advocacy”.

Public health advocacy is frequently defined as the process of boosting political support for a particular objective or program and is considered by some to be an essential population health strategy. The majority of advocacy organizations have overarching objectives that each of their campaigns strives to achieve. For instance, an advocacy group for environmental conservation may be focused on promoting awareness of issues like climate change and pollution more broadly while also being concerned with a few key pieces of legislation. In the medical field, health advocacy refers to activities that involve ensuring access to care, navigating the system, mobilizing resources, addressing health inequities, influencing health policy, and enacting system change.

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When you are performing a ___, a small incision is made in the patient's forearm, and the blood is blotted at 30-second intervals.

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When you are performing a Bleeding time, a small incision is made in the patient's forearm, and the blood is blotted at 30-second intervals.

A medical test called bleeding time gauges how quickly tiny blood vessels in the skin stop bleeding. Using the bleeding time test, one can assess how well one's blood clots. The test measures how long it takes for platelets in the blood to seal off the hole and for the cut arteries to contract.How long does bleeding typically last?

Bleeding time is generally interpreted as follows: 1 to 9 minutes: Regular. Disfunction of the platelets, 9–15 minutes. 15 minutes or more: Critical; test must be stopped, and pressure must be administered.

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a solution-focused group practitioner is less likely to ask members about times when their problems were not present or when the problems were less severe.

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False, solution-focused group practitioner confirms about times when their problems were not present or were less severe.

What is solution-focused practice?

It is a practice that concentrates on helping people in creating existing skills, strategies, and ideas rather than solving concerns.

The therapist have to see a person more than their problem, and to identify and amplify existing strengths and resources.

Key concepts of solution-focused therapy:

Basic assumptionsThe miracle questionException questionsScaling questionsPresupposing change

The solution-focus would build a second order change like finding a way to work differently. It encourages people to set SMART goals like Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, Time-measured.

Solution focused brief therapy (SFBT) is a future-oriented, goal-directed approach in solving human problems. It is based on solution-building rathe than problem-solving.

Hence, the above statement is false. Solution-focused group focus on even the less severe problems of the people.

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Select the correct explanation for the fact that a carrier of a recessive genetic disorder does not have the disorder.
The dominant allele for the gene determining the disorder represses protein production from the recessive allele.
In a recessive disorder, only one copy of the dominant allele is required for a non disease phenotype.
Affected individuals have recessive mutations, but a carrier has a dominant mutation.

Answers

the accurate explanation for why a recessive genetic condition carrier does not also have the disorder. Only one functional allele is required to provide a healthy phenotype in a recessive disease.

Genes, genetic diversity, and heredity in living things are the subject of genetics. Because heredity is essential to the evolution of organisms, it is a crucial area of biology. The first person to systematically investigate genetics was Gregor Mendel, a Moravian Augustinian friar who lived and worked in Brno in the 19th century. Mendel researched the patterns of "trait inheritance," or the transmission of qualities from one generation to the next. He noticed that distinct "units of inheritance" are how organisms (like pea plants) pass on features. This phrase, which is still in use today, provides a slightly vague explanation of what is meant by a gene.

The fundamental concepts of genetics are still trait inheritance and molecular inheritance mechanisms of genes in the twenty-first century, however, modern genetics has expanded to examine the function.

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Sleep researchers have established that people vary in their morningness and eveningness. These preferences change with age due to

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growth. Researchers studying sleep have shown that people's morning and evening tendencies vary. These tastes alter with age as a result of growth hormones.

The adaptive theory of sleep, a branch of evolutionary science, contends that intervals of activity and inactivity evolved as a way of preserving energy. This hypothesis states that all species have evolved to sleep when being awake would be most dangerous hormonal

Children in this age range may: Begin to develop stronger, more intricate interactions with their peers. Having friends, especially ones of the same sex, takes on greater emotional significance. more intense peer pressure

Protecting sleep.

Sleep aids in healing.

Sleep is where memories are created.

Sleep fosters original thought.

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Which of the following correctly describes NIMS?

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A systematic approach to incident management best describes NIMS.

The acronym for the National Incident Management System is NIMS. It is a comprehensive, national strategy for handling diverse incidents. This strategy is relevant at all levels of jurisdiction. Regardless of the causes, scope, complexity, or location of the incident, this system offers a uniform nationwide structure and method to encourage all levels of government, NGOs, and the private sector to collaborate and prepare to prevent, respond to, and recover from, the effects of the incidents.

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The complete question is

Which of the following correctly describes NIMS?

A. A static system used during large-scale incidents.

B. A communications plan.

C. A systematic approach to incident management.

D. A response plan.

in comparing the health of emerging adults with the health of adolescents, which of the following statements are true regarding emerging adults?

Answers

1)They have fewer colds

2)They have a higher mortality rate

3)They are more likely to engage in substance abuse, in comparing the health of emerging adults with the health of adolescents.

The age-standardized death rate is a weighted average of the age-specific mortality rate per 100,000 people, with the weights being the percentages of people in each age group in the WHO standard population. the proportional frequency of deaths in a given population over a given period of time, sometimes expressed as the proportion of human fatalities during a public health emergency or as the number of wildlife fatalities brought on by environmental hazards: The last flu season saw the greatest fatality rate among patients over the age of 80.

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One motor task that a 2-year-old can usually do, but that a 1-year-old probably cannot do, is:

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One motor task that a 2-year-old can usually do, but that a 1-year-old probably cannot do is turning the pages of a book, one at a time

What is meant by motor task ?

A motor skill is a function that uses particular muscle movements to carry out a specified activity. These activities could involve biking, running, or walking. The neurological system, muscles, and brain of the body must all cooperate to achieve this talent.

Everyday muscular movements demand motor skills. With these, we may perform all activities, including running, walking, and brushing our teeth.

A fine motor activity is any action that uses the body's small muscles, such as the fingers and eyes. Drawing a picture or inserting pegs into a pegboard are two examples.

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The condition is known as ___________ is a rapidly progressive neurological disease that attacks the nerve cells responsible for controlling voluntary muscles.

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The condition is known as Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is a rapidly progressive neurological disease that attacks the nerve cells responsible for controlling voluntary muscles.

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is a rare neurological problem that first affects the nerve cells (neurons) responsible for controlling voluntary muscle movement (those muscles we choose to move). Researchers still do not know the reasons of ALS and why some people develop the disorder but others do not. The formation of ALS and the destruction of neurones, however, appear to be affected both by genetics and environment, as per the scientific information.Difficulty speaking, neuromuscular twitching, and limbs weakness are typical obvious indicators of ALS. Damaged muscles ultimately make it extremely difficult to walk, talk, eat, or breathe. This psychosomatic disorder has no treatment available.

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in health care, briefings: need to take place as soon after an event as possible, to maximize learning for the entire group. are a type of structured communication. involve only doctors and nurses. t/f

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The given statement is false about the type of structured communication involve only doctors and nurses.

The phrase "structured communication" refers to frameworks for human or computer interaction in a number of areas. Despite the fact that the main goal of these frameworks is to eliminate ambiguity, enhanced effectiveness is sometimes mentioned as a side benefit. Since it was shown to be a useful technique for resolving disputes between married couples in 1971, the idea has at least been around. Following a 2006 agreement between employees and employers, a structured communication programme was started among healthcare professionals in British Columbia, Canada. An investigation conducted in 2007 explored the use of structured communication in the context of the End-Point Projection theory, which may enable the creation of online services that may adjust to unidentified participants and/or channels.

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A young pregnant adolescent is diagnosed as having bacterial vaginosis. What further complications related to bacterial vaginosis may occur during pregnancy? Select all that apply.
1.Neonatal sepsis
2.Cervical dysplasia
3.Preterm labor and birth
4.Intraamniotic infection
5.Postpartum endometritis

Answers

A young pregnant adolescent is diagnosed as having bacterial vaginosis the options which may occur during pregnancy are 3. Preterm labor and birth, 4. Intraamniotic infection, 5. Postpartum endometritis

Because bacteria that enters the cervix irritates the uterus and causes contractions, preterm delivery and labour may occur. A greater incidence of intraamniotic infection and postpartum endometritis is linked to bacterial vaginosis. The mismatch of "healthy" and "bad" microorganisms in the vagina results to  bacterial vaginosis (BV). The natural equilibrium of vaginal bacteria can be altered by douching, not using condoms, having new or multiple sex partners, and other factors, which increases your risk of contracting BV.

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Which medication decreases serum levels but increases urine levels of uric acid?

Answers

Answer:

Examples of medicines that increase uric acid levels

Diuretics (see below)Aspirin low dose (less than 300 mg daily)Nicotinic acid.Levodopa.Ciclosporin.Tacrolimus.

Zyloprim ( allopurinol)

What is the term used for the gradual process of shifting an infant from breastfeeding or bottle-feeding to drinking from a cup and eating solid food?

Answers

Weaning refers to the process of gradually transitioning a baby from breast- or bottle-feeding to drinking from a cup and eating solid meals.

One of two prominences on a primate's torso's upper ventral region is the breast. The same embryological tissues give rise to the breasts in both men and women.

It functions as the mammary gland in females, producing and secreting milk to feed infants. Subcutaneous fat surrounds and envelops a network of ducts that converge on the nipple, and these tissues give the breast its size and structure. In response to hormonal cues, milk is made and stored in lobules, which are collections of alveoli, at the ends of the ducts. The breast reacts to a complicated interplay of estrogens, progesterone, and prolactin throughout pregnancy, which mediates the conclusion of its development, including lobuloalveolar maturation, in preparation for lactation and breastfeeding.

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which statements about improving the safety of the public would the nurse make to describe the impact of an external technological disaster such as the terrorist attack event on the world trade center on september 11, 2001, on the emergency medical services (ems)? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.

Answers

"They may be managed by a hospital utilizing local resources," the nurse said in reference to mass casualty crisis occurrences.

Which incidents have caused a large number of casualties?MCEs can be natural disasters like weather, chemical emergencies, diseases, and mass shootings.The four stages of disaster recovery are: (1) mitigation; (2) readiness; (3) response; and (4) response. The model offers a framework for discussing concerns of disaster readiness as well as post-disaster economic and business recovery.While a disaster by definition exceeds response capacity, a mass casualty incident (MCI) is more frequent and is described as a circumstance that puts a considerable demand on medical resources and personnel2.      

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76 yo man 30mins severe substernal chest pain while arguing with brother. 3 sublingal nitroglycerin no relieve. 5y h/o ischemic heart disease. P110, R20, BP120/80. Cardiac exam normal. EKG ST elevation at leads I, aVl, and V4-V9. What happened during argument with brother?
Coronary vasospasm due to alpha 1 stimulation

Answers

Alpha 1 stimulation causes coronary vasospasm. People who smoke, have high cholesterol, or have high blood pressure are more likely to experience coronary artery spasm.

It might be brought on by: Alcohol withdrawal, or it could happen for no apparent reason. burden on the soul. In the big coronaries, alpha 1 and alpha 2 receptors are both present. There are several impacts of adrenergic receptor activation on cardiac action potentials. The influence on phase 4 depolarization, whose slope may rise, increasing automaticity, or fall, suppressing automaticity, is perhaps the most fascinating. However, lethal consequences including sudden death, ventricular arrhythmia, and myocardial infarction can occasionally be brought on by coronary vasospasm.

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Ras can exist in two different conformations or states, inactive and active. Which of the following correctly describe(s) the stably active state of Ras?A. Ras is bound to GTP.B. Switch 1 and switch 2 regions are in an active conformation.C. Ras is bound to GDP.D. Ras is bound to Ras-GAP assign an oxidation state to each atom in each element, ion, or compound. drag the appropriate items to their respective bins. 4. Discuss the different theories of IR such as; modernism theory theory? Triangle ABC is dilated. The image is A'B'C'Find the value of x. Which of the following would be defined as the ability to lead and manage yourself by establishing a sense for who you are, what you stand for and how you should behave?A. ProactiveB. Emotional intelligenceC. EmpatheticD. Sense of purpose Which of the following statement about opportunity cost are true? I. The opportunity cost of a given action is equal to the value foregone of all feasible alternative actions.II. Opportunity costs only measure direct out-of-pocket expenditures.III. To calculate accurately the opportunity cost of an action, we need to first identify the next best alternative to that action.a) III onlyb) I and III onlyc) II onlyd) None of the statements is true. as part of its strategic planning, a fast food corporation considers the societal effects of using poultry treated with high levels of antibiotics in its supply chain. the board of directors ultimately instructs the officers to continue using the corporation's current poultry suppliers since the levels of antibiotics they use, while high, comply with the law and are very cheap. according to stakeholder theory, did the corporation fulfill its duty? no, because the company is prioritizing profits over other social responsibilities. yes, because the corporation has a social contract to fulfill and must consider the impact of its actions on public health. yes, because the corporation is not violating any laws. no, because the officers of the corporation are failing to fulfill their fiduciary duty to the board and the corporate shareholders. 40 times 3453 divided by 24= which of the following are examples of an insider attack? select two. a. a competing company steals a list of products from the research and design department to gain a competitive advantage. b. ruben accesses a company's private network by stealing the passwords of an employee. c. realizing he will be fired soon, jake copies his company's patent plans to a flash drive and takes them home so that he can submit the plans himself, d. after being passed over for a promotion, isabel logs on to her organization's server and intentionally deletes files A series of budgets for varying rates of activity is termed a(n) a. flexible budget b. variable budget c. master budget d. activity budget Solve the inequality. Graph your solution. $$ - 5.3 x > 21 | Bones grow in length due to activity in the ________. a. epiphyseal plate b. perichondrium c. periosteum d. medullary cavity the inducible operon regulates pathways and repressible operon regulates pathways. a) glycolysis.......krebs cycle b) substrate level......oxidative phosphorylation c) anabolic.....catabolic d) catabolic....anabolic e) endergonic....exergonic Consider the mood that is established in Stave IV and how it differs from the mood that is established in Stave III. What does this shift in mood suggest might happen in Stave IV? Make a prediction about what Scrooge will learn from the Ghost of Christmas Yet to Come. Support your prediction with evidence from the text. What are the 5 properties of rhombus and rectangle? translate the description as an algebraic expression: half the difference of 2 and b Solve |2 +1| = 10x{-9/2, 9/2}{-11/2, 9/2}{9/2, 11/2} please answer this , it's very important A ________ is a performance in front of an audience prior to the "official" opening of the play, when the director and the performers discover which parts of the play are successful and which are not Look at the following program segment:struct Product{string description;int partNum;double cost;};Product discountItems[8];Which of the following statements would display the cost member of the first Product structure in the discountItems array? Group of answer choicesA) ) cout