Which of the following is NOT a concern for children on a well-planned vegan diet?
potential allergens
long-term effects on adult weight and height
low fat intake
fiber intake

Answers

Answer 1

The concern that is NOT associated with children on a well-planned vegan diet is "potential allergens."

While potential allergens can be a concern for some individuals, it is not specific to a well-planned vegan diet. However, other concerns such as long-term effects on adult weight and height, low fat intake, and fiber intake are important considerations when planning a vegan diet for children. It is essential to ensure that children receive adequate nutrition, including essential nutrients like protein, iron, calcium, vitamin B12, and omega-3 fatty acids, which may require careful planning and monitoring. Consulting with a healthcare professional or registered dietitian can help ensure that a child's nutritional needs are met on a vegan diet.

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Related Questions

with some exceptions, adolescent boys use _____ drugs, and use them _____ often, than girls do.

Answers

With some exceptions, adolescent boys use illicit drugs, and use them more often, than girls do. This trend has been consistent for many years and is supported by various studies and surveys conducted in different countries.

The reasons for this difference are complex and multifaceted, but some possible explanations include social and cultural norms, peer pressure, gender roles and expectations, and hormonal influences. Boys may feel more pressure to take risks, rebel against authority, and assert their masculinity through drug use, while girls may be more likely to seek social connections, emotional support, and conformity through other means.

However, it is important to note that gender differences in drug use are not absolute and can vary depending on factors such as age, race/ethnicity, socioeconomic status, and sexual orientation. Additionally, substance abuse can have serious and lasting consequences for both boys and girls, and prevention efforts should focus on addressing the underlying factors and promoting healthy behaviors and choices for all adolescents.

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an ast that is more than twice the level of alt is suggestive of:

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An AST (aspartate aminotransferase) level that is more than twice the level of ALT (alanine aminotransferase) can be suggestive of liver damage or disease.

AST and ALT are both enzymes that are primarily found in liver cells, but they are also present in other organs. When the liver is damaged, these enzymes are released into the bloodstream, causing their levels to rise. AST is generally considered a less specific marker of liver damage than ALT, but a significantly elevated AST level relative to ALT can indicate more severe liver injury. Additional tests and evaluations are needed to determine the specific cause of the liver damage and appropriate treatment options.


An AST (aspartate aminotransferase) level that is more than twice the level of ALT (alanine aminotransferase) is suggestive of alcoholic liver disease. Both AST and ALT are enzymes present in the liver, and their levels in the blood are monitored to assess liver function. While elevated levels of both enzymes can indicate liver damage, a ratio of AST to ALT greater than 2:1 is commonly associated with alcoholic liver disease. It is important to consult a healthcare professional for further evaluation and appropriate treatment if such a scenario arises.

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An approach which addresses the supply side of the drug problem includes which of the following?
a. Culturally-sensitive drug treatment programs
b. Prevention programs aimed at reducing isolation
c. Law enforcement programs
d. School-based drug prevention programs

Answers

These programs focus on isolation and enforcement by targeting drug suppliers and producers, disrupting supply chains, and preventing the availability of illegal drugs in the community. So, correct answer is c. Law enforcement programs

This approach focuses on reducing the supply of drugs by enforcing laws and regulations related to drug production, distribution, and sale. It aims to isolate drug dealers and producers from the rest of society through arrest and imprisonment. However, it is important to note that this approach alone is not sufficient to address the complex issue of drug abuse and addiction, and should be complemented with prevention and treatment programs.
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the b vitamins act as ________, helping numerous enzymes produce reactions in your cells.

Answers

The b vitamins act as coenzymes, helping numerous enzymes produce reactions in your cells.

What are b vitamins?

The b vitamins are a group of water-soluble vitamins that include;

thiamin (b1)riboflavin (b2)niacin (b3)pantothenic acid (b5)pyridoxine (b6)biotin (b7)folic acid (b9) and cobalamin (b12)

These vitamins are essential for various metabolic functions in the body and are necessary for maintaining good health.

Thus, the b vitamins act as coenzymes, which are essential helpers that assist numerous enzymes in facilitating various biochemical reactions in your cells.

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Final answer:

B vitamins function as coenzymes, organic molecules that assist enzymes in catalyzing reactions in cells. These vitamins are crucial for aiding metabolism and converting food into energy.

Explanation:

The B vitamins act as coenzymes, helping numerous enzymes produce reactions in your cells. Coenzymes are organic helper molecules that are required for enzyme action. They are not consumed in the chemical reactions they help catalyze, therefore they are reusable.

Vitamins, including the B vitamins, are often the source of these coenzymes. For instance, an important step in the breakdown of glucose to produce energy involves an enzyme complex called pyruvate dehydrogenase. This complex requires one cofactor and five different organic coenzymes, most of which are supplied primarily by our diet, showcasing the crucial role B vitamins play in metabolism.

In simpler terms, B vitamins play a key role in helping our bodies convert the food we eat into energy and are essential for maintaining good health.

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Which of the following compounds found in tomatoes may reduce the risk of prostate cancer?
A/ lycopene
B. anthocyanins
C. beta-glucan
D. probiotics

Answers

A). The compound found in tomatoes that may reduce the risk of prostate cancer is lycopene. Lycopene is a carotenoid, a type of pigment that gives tomatoes their red color.

It is a potent antioxidant that helps to protect cells from damage caused by free radicals. Studies have suggested that diets high in lycopene may lower the risk of prostate cancer, as well as other types of cancer and cardiovascular disease. Lycopene is most commonly found in cooked or processed tomato products, such as tomato sauce, tomato paste, and ketchup, as the cooking process helps to release the lycopene from the tomato cell walls. While anthocyanins, beta-glucan, and probiotics have other health benefits, they have not been found to have a significant impact on prostate cancer risk.


The compound found in tomatoes that may reduce the risk of prostate cancer is A/ lycopene. Lycopene is a powerful antioxidant, which can help protect cells from damage caused by free radicals. Studies have suggested that a diet rich in lycopene may be associated with a lower risk of prostate cancer, as well as other types of cancer.

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your text argues that the proper procedure for measuring the accuracy of flashbulb memories is

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Flashbulb memories are vivid and emotionally significant memories of an individual's personal experience during a highly consequential and emotionally arousing event. These memories are believed to be highly accurate and resistant to forgetting over time.

To measure the accuracy of flashbulb memories, the proper procedure is to compare the details of an individual's flashbulb memory to the actual facts of the event. This can be done through a variety of methods, such as interviews, surveys, or even brain imaging. It is important to note that accuracy should be defined in terms of factual correctness, rather than the emotional intensity or personal significance of the memory.

In conclusion, measuring the accuracy of flashbulb memories requires a careful and systematic approach that involves comparing the details of the memory to the actual facts of the event. This can be done through various methods and should be assessed at multiple time points to track changes in accuracy over time.

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in the united states, the leading cause of disability in people older than 15 is

Answers

According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), the leading cause of disability in people older than 15 in the United States is a mental health condition, specifically major depression and anxiety disorders.

In the United States, the leading cause of disability in people older than 15 is arthritis. Arthritis affects the joints, causing pain and difficulty in movement, and can significantly impact an individual's quality of life.Chronic diseases are the primary cause of impairment in Americans over the age of 15 nowadays. This covers ailments such as respiratory illnesses, musculoskeletal difficulties, mental health issues, neurological issues, and cardiovascular diseases. An individual's capacity to operate and engage in daily activities can be greatly impacted by chronic conditions. Although the relative importance of each of these factors may differ, they all work together to raise the rates of impairment. The prevalence of impairment in this age range can also be attributed to additional variables like accidents, injuries, and substance abuse. Addressing and controlling chronic diseases is essential for lowering the rate of disability and raising general health outcomes.

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According to Stokely Carmichael in Document 2, the so-called black power movement's intent is to
a. express the common experience and needs of the people who live in America's urban ghettoes and advocate for black self-reliance and economic self-sufficiency.
b. open communication with the most powerful white politicians and business leaders in America, so as to learn from them the best ways to approach getting America to change.
c. make clear that if blacks are to survive and thrive in America, they need to understand and work with the current power structure.
d. communicate a sense of a common cause shared between blacks and whites across America.

Answers

Stokely Carmichael, a leader of the Black Power movement, believed that the movement was about expressing the common experience and needs of people who live in America's urban ghettoes and advocating for black self-reliance and economic self-sufficiency. Option A is the correct answer.

He argued that black people needed to take control of their own communities and work together to build their own institutions and businesses. He also believed that the movement should reject the idea of integration with white society and instead focus on developing a strong sense of black pride and identity. This approach was seen as more radical than the civil rights movement's emphasis on integration and nonviolence.

Option A is the correct answer.

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which injuries would likely be given a green tag after a disaster? select all that apply.

Answers

In the triage system used during disaster response, the injuries that would likely be given a green tag include:

Minor injuries: These are injuries that are not life-threatening and require minimal medical intervention. Examples may include minor cuts, bruises, sprains, or superficial burns. These injuries can typically be managed with basic first aid and do not require immediate or extensive medical attention.Walking wounded: These are individuals who have sustained injuries but are still able to walk and move independently. They may have moderate injuries that can be treated at a later stage when more critical cases have been attended to. Examples may include stable fractures or non-life-threatening wounds.

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Which of the following B-vitamins is especially important as a coenzyme in fatty acid biosynthesis?
A) Thiamin
B) Riboflavin
C) Niacin
D) Vitamin B-12

Answers

Answer:

C. Niacin.

Explanation:

Niacin is especially important as a coenzyme in fatty acid biosynthesis.

Do you think the filter on the cigarette can stop cancer?why or why not

Answers

Answer: Do cigarette filters prevent cancer?

Well with filtered cigarettes, rates of the most common type of lung cancer caused by filterless smoking decreased. But rates of another type of lung cancer — adenocarcinoma are increased.

Explanation: i dont know if that helps but i hope it dose

Answer:A filter on a cigarette cannot stop cancer

explanation: A filter on a cigarette will make you have lung cancer and have a possibility that you might die or be hospitalised

what characteristic best describes holistic health methods?

Answers

The characteristic that best describes holistic health methods is that they take into account the whole person, including their physical, mental, emotional, and spiritual well-being.

Holistic health methods focus on treating the person as a whole rather than just treating the specific symptoms or disease. This approach recognizes that a person's health and well-being are influenced by various factors, such as their lifestyle, environment, and beliefs. By addressing all aspects of a person's life, holistic health methods aim to promote optimal health and prevent disease.

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what alcohol withdrawal symptom is linked to a mortality rate as high as 15 percent?

Answers

Delirium tremens (DTs) is the alcohol withdrawal symptom that is linked to a mortality rate as high as 15 percent. DTs is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can cause confusion, hallucinations, seizures, and cardiovascular instability.


An explanation of why DTs is so dangerous is that it can lead to serious complications such as dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and respiratory failure.

Additionally, the mortality rate is high because DTs can cause life-threatening medical emergencies such as heart attacks, strokes, and infections.



In summary, delirium tremens is the alcohol withdrawal symptom that has a mortality rate as high as 15 percent due to its potential to cause severe complications and medical emergencies. It is important for individuals with alcohol use disorder to seek medical treatment for alcohol withdrawal to prevent the risk of developing DTs.

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What is the ICD code for hand, foot, and mouth disease?

Answers

The ICD-10 code for hand, foot, and mouth disease is B08.4. Hand, foot, and mouth disease (HFMD) is a common viral infection that primarily affects infants and young children.

It is characterized by the presence of small, painful sores or blisters in the mouth, on the palms of the hands, and on the soles of the feet. The B08.4 code specifically denotes "Enteroviral vesicular stomatitis with exanthem," which includes hand, foot, and mouth disease among other similar conditions caused by enteroviruses. Please note that the ICD codes are subject to updates and revisions, so it's always important to consult the latest version of the ICD coding system for accurate coding and documentation.

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in research with two-month-old infants, you would probably find they prefer

Answers

In research with two-month-old infants, you would probably find that they prefer faces over non-face stimuli.

Studies have shown that even very young infants have a preference for looking at faces.

This is likely due to the fact that faces are biologically important stimuli for humans, as they convey important social information such as emotions and intentions.

Research with two-month-old infants has found that they will spend more time looking at images of faces than at other types of visual stimuli, such as geometric shapes or patterns.


Summary: Two-month-old infants are likely to show a preference for faces over non-face stimuli in research studies, as faces are biologically important stimuli that convey important social information.

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The average adult needs about 3000 calories a day to meet individual energy needs.
True or False

Answers

True. The average adult needs 2,500-3,000 calories a day for energy.

all of the following are health claims approved by the food and drug administration except:

Answers

The health claim not approved by the FDA is "This product can cure cancer." The correct option tot this question is D

The FDA regulates health claims made on food and dietary supplements to ensure they are accurate and not misleading.

The agency has specific criteria that must be met before a health claim can be approved.

These criteria include having scientific evidence to support the claim and ensuring that the claim is not misleading to consumers. Any health claim that suggests a product can cure or treat a disease, such as cancer, is not approved by the FDA.
It is important to be aware of false health claims and always check with a healthcare professional before using a product for medical purposes. The FDA plays an important role in regulating health claims to protect consumers from misleading information.

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Complete question : All of the following are health claims approved by the food and drug administration except:

A. Calorie-free. Less than 5 calories.

B. Fat-free or sugar-free.

C. Gluten-free, no gluten, free of gluten or without gluten.

D. This product can cure cancer.

where is long-term care offered quizlet

Answers

Long-term care is offered in various settings such as nursing homes, assisted living facilities, adult day care centers, and in-home care.

Nursing homes provide 24-hour care and medical assistance for seniors who require extensive assistance with daily activities. Assisted living facilities offer a more independent living environment for seniors who need help with some tasks but can still manage to do certain things on their own.

Adult day care centers provide care during the day for seniors who need supervision and socialization but do not require 24-hour care. In-home care provides assistance and support for seniors who want to age in place and receive care in the comfort of their own homes.

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regardless of sex, homicide usually involves an offender and a victim who are _____ to each other.

Answers

Regardless of sex, homicide usually involves an offender and a victim who are not related to each other.

In most cases, the offender and victim are not known to each other, and the homicide is a result of random violence, robbery, or other criminal activity. However, in some cases, the offender and victim may be known to each other, such as in cases of domestic violence or personal disputes. The motive for homicide can vary widely and can include anger, jealousy, revenge, or financial gain. Regardless of the motive, homicide is a serious crime that can have devastating consequences for both the victim's family and the offender's future. It is important for law enforcement officials to thoroughly investigate each case of homicide and bring offenders to justice, while also providing support and resources to the victim's family.

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A nurse is planning care for a client who is pregnant and has HIV. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care? A. Instruct the client to stop taking the antiretroviral medication at 32 weeks of gestation. B. Use a fetal scalp electrode during labor and delivery. C. Administer a pneumococcal immunization to the newborn within 4 hrs. following birth. D. Bathe the newborn before initiating skin-to-skin contact

Answers

As a nurse caring for a pregnant client with HIV, the nurse should take appropriate measures to promote the health of the mother and her unborn child.

One of the most important interventions is ensuring that the client is taking antiretroviral medication as prescribed throughout pregnancy.

This medication can significantly reduce the risk of transmitting HIV to the baby during pregnancy, labor, and delivery.

Therefore, the nurse should not instruct the client to stop taking the medication at 32 weeks of gestation (option A).

The use of a fetal scalp electrode during labor and delivery (option B) is not directly related to the care of a client with HIV.

Fetal scalp electrodes are typically used to monitor the baby's heart rate during labor, but they do not have any bearing on the transmission of HIV.

Administering a pneumococcal immunization to the newborn within 4 hours following birth (option C) is a recommended intervention for all infants, including those born to mothers with HIV.

This can help prevent serious infections in the newborn, which can be particularly dangerous in the context of HIV.

Initiating skin-to-skin contact between the mother and newborn is also an important intervention, as it can promote bonding and improve outcomes for both mother and baby.

However, the newborn should be bathed before skin-to-skin contact to reduce the risk of transmission of HIV (option D).

This allows for skin-to-skin contact while reducing the risk of transmission.

In summary,

the nurse should include in the plan of care to ensure that the client is taking antiretroviral medication as prescribed throughout pregnancy, administer a pneumococcal immunization to the newborn within 4 hours following birth, and bathe the newborn before initiating skin-to-skin contact.

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Outcomes, one of the dimensions of quality, may be defined as which of the following? options: a. Set of services provided b. The right care for the right patient at the right time c. Facilities and health care professionals providing care d. End results that people experience and care about

Answers

Outcomes, one of the dimensions of quality, may be defined as d: "the end results that people experience and care about".

This includes factors such as improvement in health status, relief of symptoms, and patient satisfaction. While options A, B, and C may all contribute to quality care, outcomes are the ultimate measure of whether the care provided was effective in achieving the desired results. Outcomes can be both objective, such as reduction in blood pressure, and subjective, such as how the patient feels about their care experience. Healthcare providers must take into account both types of outcomes when evaluating the success of their interventions.

Option d is the correct answer.

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inflammation of the inner lining of the heart, usually caused by bacteria, is called

Answers

Endocarditis is the answer

the most efficient way to identify the appropriately sized equipment for a pediatric patient is to:

Answers

The most efficient way to identify the appropriately sized equipment for a pediatric patient is to use a pediatric equipment tape measure.

Pediatric equipment tape measures are specifically designed for pediatric patients and allow healthcare professionals to accurately measure the appropriate equipment size, including blood pressure cuffs, endotracheal tubes, and chest tubes. Using the correct equipment size for pediatric patients is important to ensure accurate readings and proper care.

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A area or space with specific human meaning and specific physical attributes

Answers

Area or space you are referring to is known as a "place". A place is a specific location that has physical attributes, such as its geography, climate, and topography, as well as human meaning, such as its cultural significance or personal attachment to individuals.


An explanation of a place would be that it is more than just a physical location, but it also has a social and cultural context that gives it meaning and significance.

A place can be defined by its natural features, such as a mountain range or coastline, or by its built environment, such as a cityscape or architecture. However, what makes a place truly unique is the human interaction and connection that occurs within it.

In summary, a place is an area or space with specific physical attributes and human meaning, shaped by the natural and built environment, as well as the social and cultural interactions that occur within it.

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20. What are the main steps of an autopsy?

Answers

Answer:

An autopsy, also known as a postmortem examination, is a medical procedure that is performed on a dead body to determine the cause of death. Autopsies are typically performed by a forensic pathologist, who is a doctor who specializes in the investigation of sudden, unexpected, or violent deaths.

The main steps of an autopsy are as follows:

External examination: The pathologist begins by conducting an external examination of the body. This involves looking for any injuries or other abnormalities on the body. The pathologist will also measure the body and weigh it.

Internal examination: The pathologist then makes an incision in the body and examines the internal organs. This involves looking for any injuries, diseases, or other abnormalities. The pathologist will also take samples of tissue and fluids for further testing.

Toxicology testing: The pathologist may also order toxicology testing to determine if the deceased had any drugs or poisons in their system.

Microscopy: The pathologist may also perform microscopic examination of tissue samples to look for further evidence of disease or injury.

Report writing: The pathologist will then write a report that summarizes the findings of the autopsy. This report will be used by law enforcement, medical examiners, and other professionals to determine the cause of death.

Autopsies are an important tool for determining the cause of death. They can also be used to identify the deceased, to investigate crimes, and to improve public health.

Explanation:

Answer: To find the cause of death, sometimes if it was a natural death or not , and to find out info for death records

Explanation:

which of the following pose the most significant health risks among school-aged children?

Answers

Among school-aged children, the most significant health risks include obesity, mental health issues, and infectious diseases. Obesity is a growing concern as it can lead to chronic health problems like diabetes, heart disease, and high blood pressure.

Encouraging regular physical activity and promoting healthy eating habits can help mitigate this risk.Mental health issues, such as anxiety and depression, are also prevalent in school-aged children. Addressing these concerns early on is crucial, as they can impact academic performance, social skills, and overall well-being. Open communication, providing support, and seeking professional help when necessary are essential steps in tackling mental health challenges.


Lastly, infectious diseases, like the common cold and flu, can spread quickly among school-aged children due to close contact in classrooms and shared facilities. Practicing good hygiene, such as regular hand-washing, and staying up-to-date with vaccinations can help reduce the risk of infection.

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Which of the following have been used as "anorexiants" in OTC diet aids?
A. antihistamines
B. analgesics
C. sympathomimetics D. antitussives

Answers

Among the options provided, sympathomimetics have been used as anorexiants in over-the-counter (OTC) diet aids. The correct option to this question is C.

Sympathomimetics are substances that mimic the effects of the sympathetic nervous system, which includes suppressing appetite.

Some common examples of sympathomimetics found in OTC diet aids are phenylephrine and pseudoephedrine. These substances can help individuals feel less hungry, which may assist in weight loss efforts.
The correct answer to your question is that sympathomimetics have been used as anorexiants in OTC diet aids. Other options like antihistamines, analgesics, and antitussives do not serve this purpose.

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chapter 10 cell growth and division concept map

Answers

A concept map summarizing key concepts related to cell growth and division in Chapter 10 includes cell cycle, mitosis, etc

Cell Growth and Division

- Cell Cycle

 - Interphase

   - G1 Phase

   - S Phase (DNA Replication)

   - G2 Phase

 - Mitosis (Nuclear Division)

   - Prophase

   - Prometaphase

   - Metaphase

   - Anaphase

   - Telophase

 - Cytokinesis (Cytoplasmic Division)

- Regulation of Cell Cycle

 - Checkpoints

   - G1 Checkpoint

   - G2 Checkpoint

   - M Checkpoint

 - Cyclins and Cyclin-Dependent Kinases (CDKs)

 - Tumor Suppressor Genes

   - p53

   - Rb

- Cell Growth and Differentiation

 - Cell Growth Factors

 - Cell Signaling Pathways

 - Stem Cells

   - Embryonic Stem Cells

   - Adult Stem Cells

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Which of the statements below are correct regarding %Daily Value on a food label?
a. A product with 10% DV of calcium per serving is considered an "excellent source" of calcium.
b. Daily Values can show consumers that a product is high or low in a particular nutrient.
c. The footnote for %DV changes from product to product.
d. The footnote for %DV shows how recommendations differ between a 2000 kcal diet and a 2500 kcal diet.
e. The new Nutrition Facts panel displays both the quantity and %DV for most nutrients.

Answers

Daily Values can show consumers that a product is high or low in a particular nutrient is the correct statement regarding Daily Value on a food label.

Statement a is incorrect. A product with 10% Daily Value (DV) of calcium per serving is considered a "good source" of calcium, not an "excellent source." The term "excellent source" is used when a product provides 20% or more of the DV for a particular nutrient.

Statement b is correct. Daily Values on a food label are intended to provide consumers with information about the nutrient content of a product. They help consumers determine whether a food is high or low in a specific nutrient by comparing the amount present in the food to the reference values provided by the DVs.

Statement c is incorrect. The footnote for %DV remains the same on food labels. It provides general guidance on the meaning of the Daily Values and how they relate to a 2,000-calorie diet.

Statement d is correct. The footnote for %DV on food labels shows how the recommendations for nutrients may differ between a 2,000-calorie diet and a 2,500-calorie diet. It provides a reference for consumers to adjust the Daily Values based on their individual calorie needs.

Statement e is correct. The new Nutrition Facts panel displays both the quantity (in grams, milligrams, etc.) and the %DV for most nutrients. This provides consumers with information about the absolute amount of a nutrient present in the food as well as its relative contribution to their daily recommended intake. Thus, b. is the answer.

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A woman may insert a diaphragm as long as ____ prior to intercourse and have it still be effective. a. one-half hour b. one hour c. three hours d. six hours.

Answers

Answer:

d. Six hours

Explanation:

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