The production of lipids, steroids, and carbohydrates, as well as the metabolism of foreign compounds like medications or poisons, are its primary functions.
What role does a smooth endoplasmic reticulum play in the body?Without ribosomes, the smooth endoplasmic reticulum aids in the concentration and synthesis of several chemicals required by the organism.
The production of necessary lipids like cholesterol and phospholipids is carried out by smooth ER. Steroid hormone synthesis and secretion are also carried out by smooth ER. It is also in charge of glucose metabolism.
The production of proteins in cells is carried out by ribosomes, which are found in the rough endoplasmic reticulum (ER). The cell's smooth ER produces fats or lipids that are necessary for the cell to operate.
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what are 4 major traits that have changed over time since the divergence of chimps from the other human-like primates
All primates are descended from creatures that lived in trees, they all possess characteristics that make them capable of climbing trees, such as a rotating shoulder joint, separated large toes and thumbs for grabbing, and stereoscopic vision.
Geneticists have proposed over the past 45 years that the ancestors of modern humans and chimpanzees parted between 4 and 6 million years ago, and the ancestors of gorillas between 7 and 9 million years ago. However, since chimpanzee and gorilla fossils are scarce, these dates were determined by measuring the number of DNA sequence variations between the three species and dividing that number by an assumed "mutation rate" for primates, or the rate at which mutations appear through time. The issue is that scientists frequently use dates from fossils of other monkey species to compute the mutation rate before applying this rate to African apes and humans.
Hence, divergence evolution creates organ performing different function.
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Which of the following is an example of discontinuous distribution?
(A) Whales
(C) Dipnoi
(B) Molluscs
(D) Birds
Answer:
A
Explanation:
because there are several types and mode of whales
Gallop is a finding in which body system O Gait O Respiratory O CardiovascularO Neuro
Gallop is found in Cardiovascular body system.
What is cardiovascular body system?
The circulatory system (cardiovascular system) supplies all body cells with nutrients and oxygen. It consists of the heart and blood vessels that run throughout the body. Arteries carry blood away from the heart. Veins carry it back to the heart. The vascular system resembles a tree. The "trunk" - the main artery (aorta) - branches into larger arteries, which lead to smaller and smaller vessels. The smallest arteries end in a network of tiny blood vessels known as the capillary network.
The human body has not just one blood circuit, but two circuits that are interconnected. Body circuits supply organs, tissues, and cells with blood, oxygen and other vital substances. The pulmonary circuit is where the fresh oxygen we breathe enters the blood. At the same time, carbon dioxide is released from the blood.
Therefore, Gallop is found in Cardiovascular body system.
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list 20 biomes in Nigeria and Africa
Here is a list of 20 biomes that can be found in Nigeria and Africa:
RainforestDesertSavannaGrasslandWetlandTundraTaigaTemperate deciduous forestTemperate coniferous forestTropical dry forestTropical wet forestMontane forestMangrove forestScrublandWoodlandThicketChaparralMediterranean forestSubtropical forestMountain biomes (such as alpine or subalpine)It's important to note that biomes are large, distinct regions of the world that are characterized by their climate, vegetation, and animal life. These biomes can vary greatly in size and can be found in different parts of the world, including Africa and Nigeria.
which of the following is associated with homo erectus? a) use of habitats always including forested or heavily wooded areas b) the acheulean hand axe c) high amount of sexual dimorphism, similar to modern day great apes d) brain size larger (on average) or as large as modern humans
Acheulean hand axes have a connection to Homo erectus.
Which stone-working sector is related to Homo erectus?According to a study, "Homo erectus" utilized the industries of both Olduvay and Achel. Homo erectus remains, including the tiniest in Africa, and a wide range of stone tools discovered in Gona, Ethiopia, show that earlier humans were more diversified than previously thought in terms of both physical make-up and behavioral traits.
Which of the following tool cultures is most frequently connected to Homo erectus?Acheulean tools were made in Africa, a large portion of West Asia, South Asia, East Asia, and Europe during the Lower Palaeolithic epoch, and they are frequently discovered with Homo erectus fossils.
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why doens't aneuploidy of the sex chromosomes result in extreme abnormalities when compared with aneuploidy of the autosomes?
Sex chromosome-related aneuploidies can also result in human genetic diseases. Because human cells have the capacity to turn off extra X chromosomes through a mechanism known as X-inactivation, these aneuploidies are more easily tolerated than autosomal ones.
What is sex chromosomes ?
A specific form of chromosome involved in determining sex is called a sex chromosome. The two sex chromosomes, X and Y, found in humans and the majority of other mammals, together define an individual's sex.
Male cells include one X and one Y chromosome, while female cells contain two X chromosomes. The sex of a person generated through sexual reproduction is determined by the human sex chromosomes, a typical pair of mammal allosomes. In a diploid cell, autosomes emerge in pairs with members that share the same form but differ from other pairs, whereas allosome pair members may differ from one another and hence affect sex. This is how autosomes and allosomes differ from one another.
In humans, there are 46 chromosomes in total, divided into 23 pairs in each cell nucleus. the initial pairs are called autosomes.
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gene sequencing is used to identify the flu virus. why would you sequence the hemaglutinin or neuraminidase?
In order to effectively induce membrane fusion, the hemagglutinin-neuraminidase (HN) protein, which is in charge of virus attachment, interacts with the fusion protein in a virus type-specific manner.
What part does hemagglutinin play in the spread of the flu?One of the two integral envelope proteins of the influenza virus that are virally coded is hemagglutinin, which is shown on the left. After the virus has been picked up by endocytosis, hemagglutinin is in charge of binding to the host cell and the subsequent fusing of the viral and host membranes in the endosome.
What function do influenza virus Neuraminidase proteins serve?After the intracellular viral replication cycle, influenza virus neuraminidase (NA) plays a crucial role in the release and distribution of progeny virions.
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the cellular machine comprised by rna polymerase, dna template and a nascent mrna is referred to as?
RNA polymerases are the enzymes involved in transcription. RRNA makes up the majority of a RNA in cells; mRNA makes up about 3-5% of a cell's total RNA.
To create a fresh, complementary RNA molecule, RNA polymerase employs a single Stranded dna (the template to make) as a template. Termination is the procedure that puts a stop to transcribing. The RNA sequences that indicate that the translation is finished rely on termination. Where does the transcription of a gene to mRNA by RNA polymerase start? It begins following a certain nucleotide pattern known as a promoter. What role does RNA polymerase play? The expanding strand of RNA receives nucleotides as the double helix is unwound. RRNA genes are transcribed by RNA polymerase I, mRNA, miRNA, snRNA, or snoRNA genes are transcribed by RNA polymerase II, while tRNA & 5S rRNA genes are transcribed by RNA polymerase III. Answer and justification Comparisons between DNA and RNA A Template dna strand is needed for polymerases.
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Clients with Type O blood are at higher risk for which of the following GI disorders?
Gastric cancer Duodenal ulcers Esophageal varices Diverticulitis
Clients with Type O blood are at higher risk for: Duodenal ulcers.
What is the most common cause of duodenal ulcer?The majority of ulcers are caused by an infection with the bacteria or germ Helicobacter pylori. The mucus that covers the lining of your stomach and the first portion of your small intestine is damaged by this bacteria (the duodenum). The lining is then penetrated by stomach acid.
The most typical symptom is pain in the upper belly (abdomen), directly behind the sternum. Other signs that might manifest include feeling bloated, queasy, and ill. In some circumstances, complications might be very dangerous.
Thus, duodenal ulcers is the correct answer.
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dr. deridder lesions, or damages, the ventromedial hypothalamus in one group of rats and the lateral hypothalamus in another group. what effect might he expect on the eating behavior of each group of rats?
The effect might he expect on the eating behavior of each group of rats is rats with ventromedial lesions should stop eating and rats with lateral lesions should begin overeating.
When the outer hypothalamus is destroyed the organism stops feeling hungry. When the ventromedial hypothalamus is destroyed, hunger persists even after eating. Initially, he refused to eat but after force-feeding him for a while his eating habits stabilized.
Impulse suppression theory focuses on motivation to maintain homeostasis by meeting basic biological needs. Arousal theory focuses on finding the right level of stimulation to achieve optimal performance. The hypothalamus is a key site of action in the leptin-mediated regulation of glucose metabolism.
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Which cell can transfer the most DNA?A) F+ cellB) R cell C) Hfr cellD) B cellE) F- cell
C) Hfr cells transfer the most DNA
How do HFR cells function?When one bacterial cell mates with another, it tries to transfer a copy of a F factor as well as a chunk of or an entire chromosome to a recipient bacterium since the F factor is integrated into the recipient bacterium's genome.
What distinguishes a F+ cell from a Hfr cell?The main distinction between F+ strains & Hfr would be that F+ strains contain free-floating F plasmids inside the cytoplasm, whereas Hfr strains contain F plasmids integrated onto their chromosome.
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colchicine is a drug that blocks the assembly of microtubules. if dividing cells are treated with colchicine, at what stage of mitosis would you predict the arrest would occur?
The correct option is D : Prophase is the initial stage of mitosis, which is the process by which the duplicated genetic material carried in the nucleus of a parent cell is separated into two identical daughter cells.
During prophase, the nucleus's combination of DNA and proteins, known as chromatin, condenses.
Colchicine's inhibit the development of spindles during mitotic metaphase. As a result, it hinders chromosomal separation during the anaphase stage. Colchicine is a mitotic inhibitor, which means it suppresses the M phase.
Colchicine, an alkaloid drug derived from the corm of the autumn crocus (Colchicum autumnale), arrests mitosis in metaphase by interfering with the formation of spindle fibrils, thereby slowing centromere division and preventing centriole division.
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Full Question
Colchicine is a drug that is used in plant breeding to create polyploids. It blocks the assembly of microtubules. If dividing cells are treated with colchicine, at what stage of mitosis would you predict the arrest would occur?
A. late anaphase
B. metaphase
C. G1 of interphase
D. prophase
E. telophase
What is the effect of uneven heating of the earth's surface on the environment
When people speak about convection, they are usually referring to the uneven heating that occurs on the surface of the earth.
Consequences of an inconsistent heating system:
Because of the disparity in temperature distribution, certain areas of the environment are hotter than others, and there are also shifts in volume and tension as a result.
It generates updrafts, which in turn may lead to thunderstorms and other types of severe weather.
The Earth has moved slightly on its axis.
Because the sun's rays are directed directly at the equator, the temperature there is higher than in other parts of the planet.
As you approach farther north or further south of the equator, they drop down in an incline or at an angle.
Because of this, the temperature of the earth is uneven, which in turn shapes the wind and the flow of the sea and makes it possible for life to exist.
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06.7 . During many epidemics health-care professionals emphasize the importance of community mitigation strategies, such as wcaring masks, frequent hand-washing and social distancing; Why it important for people to adopt these strategies? These stralegies are only effective with full compliance. everyone must be encouraged t0 practice them . These strategies are tne best way to reduce the length of lire Ihal person able t0 transmit disease These strategies help reduce transmission; even when drug-based treatments and vaccines are unavallable These strategies help the population achieve herd immunity: which doesn"t require that everyone is immune
The correct answer option(c) These strategies help reduce transmission; even when drug-based treatments and vaccines are unavallable.
Surveillance strategies include rapid diagnosis, screening, reporting, case management reporting, contact investigations, and the monitoring of trends. It is clear that surveillance is necessary to quickly identify and respond to a pandemic influenza outbreak.
Proper hand washing is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infections in hospitals. If you are a patient, don't be afraid to remind friends, family and health care providers to wash their hands before getting close to you. Other steps health care workers can take include: Covering coughs and sneezes.
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What do we call the transparent, protective layer that light passes through as it enters the eye? a. Pupil. b. Iris. c. Cornea. d. Lens. e. Fovea.
The transparent, protective covering that allows light to enter the eye is referred to as the cornea.
What is the function of cornea?Safeguarding internal eye structures, assisting with refractive power, and concentrating light on the retina with the least amount of scattering and optical deterioration are just a few of the important roles played by the cornea in the eye.
What causes the cornea to fail?Failure can happen for a variety of causes, but the most frequent one is endothelial rapidly oscillating, which can happen because of transplant rejection or "endothelial exhaustion," in which enough epithelial cells perish to cause edema in the cornea. The cornea becomes hazy as a result, and vision deteriorates.
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which ear disorder occurs when movement over-stimulates the hair cells found in the inner ear? motion sickness tinnitus vertigo otitis media
Motion sickness ear disorder occurs when movement over-stimulates the hair cells found in the inner ear.
Motion sickness affects those who become queasy in cars, on ships, or in the air. Cold sweats, nausea, and vomiting are symptoms of the condition. Women and children are more prone to motion sickness, although it may affect everyone. You may take actions when traveling to lower your chance of getting sick. The scopolamine patch and other medications can stop nausea.
Who might get motion sickness?
An estimated one in three people get motion sickness at some point. Women, and children age two to 12 are most at risk. Still, the condition can affect anyone.
These factors increase your chances of getting motion sickness:
Family history of motion sickness.Hormonal birth control.Inner ear disorders.Menstrual periods.Migraines.Parkinson’s disease.PregnancyLearn more about motion sickness: to visit this link
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Psychotherapies that attempt to increase the understanding of a client's motives are known as _______ therapies.
a. insight
b. action
c. biomedical
d. psychoanalytic
Psychotherapies that attempt to increase the understanding of a client's motives are known as insight therapies.
What is Psychotherapy?
The term "psychotherapy" (also known as "talk therapy") refers to a range of therapeutic approaches that are used to help patients recognize and alter unhelpful feelings, thoughts, and behaviors. The majority of psychotherapy sessions involve a patient meeting one-on-one with a qualified mental health professional or in a group with other patients. There are five main types of psychotherapy.
What is insight therapy?
Insight therapy is a type of medical care where a therapist works with a patient to help them comprehend how their past beliefs, ideas, feelings, and experiences affect how they are feeling right now.
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male elephant seals fight each other, sometimes to the death, for the chance to mate. they are often several times larger than females of their species with larger, more imposing teeth. this is an example of: a) intrasexual selection b) intersexual selection c) balanced polymorphism d) polyandry
Elephant seal males engage in combat, sometimes to the death, in an effort to mate. With bigger, more intimidating teeth, they are frequently several times bigger than females of their species. Intersexual selection is demonstrated here.
What is a prime instance of intersex selection?To get the attention of the female, males frequently compete with one another. In species where males create leks, or groups of males gathered together to demonstrate to females, an extreme example of intersexual selection can be found.
What do inter- and intrasexual selection mean?Success in securing a territory through intrasexual selection and success in copulation and fertilization through intersexual selection might have an impact on the same or distinct sexually dimorphic traits.
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how does the structure of the protein hemoglobin contribute to its function?
The structure of the protein affects the function that the heme group serves. The heme group is responsible for binding oxygen molecules in hemoglobin.
Why is hemoglobin low, and what does that mean?Your levels of hemoglobin may fall if an illness or condition impairs your body's capacity to make red blood cells. Because your body isn't getting enough oxygen when your hemoglobin level is low, you need take action.
Low hemoglobin: what causes it?Taking iron supplements and making dietary changes are the typical treatments for this kind of anemia. Receiving iron via a vein may be necessary in this case for certain persons. It is necessary to identify the source of the bleeding and stop it if blood loss—other than that associated with menstruation—is the cause of iron deficiency.
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A client with kyphosis has what abnormal findings?
When seen from behind, a typical spine appears straight. The upper back region of a spine with kyphosis, however, exhibits signs of a forward curving of the backbones (vertebrae), giving the body an unnaturally rounded or "humpback" appearance. Hence, there is unusually rounded thoracic curve.
Kyphosis is the term for the abnormal rounding of the upper back caused by an excessive spine bend. Hunchback or round back are other terms for the condition where there is a perceptible bend. Kyphosis typically affects teenagers, though it can occur at any age. Kyphosis typically only causes mild problems and may not even require therapy. Rarely, a patient may need to utilize back braces or engage in exercises to strengthen their spine and improve their posture. However, kyphosis can be painful, cause significant spinal deformity, and make breathing difficult in severe cases. Patients with severe kyphosis may require surgery to decrease the abnormal spinal curve and treat their symptoms.
The complete question is:
A client with kyphosis has which abnormal finding?
a. Exaggerated lateral spinal curvature
b. Unusually rounded thoracic curve
c. Abnormally concave lumbar spine
d. An S curved spine
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the component part of the aec the functions to measure the amount of radiation trasmitted it called?
The component part of the AEC the functions to measure the amount of radiation transmitted are known as detectors, cells, chambers or sensors, which suggests that all of the options are correct.
AEC is the acronym of Automatic Exposure Control, which includes ionization chambers which measures the exiting and striking photons from the patients body and the receptor screen. AEC device determines the exposure time. It consists of a density control panel which enables the radiologist to terminate the photon emission once a prescribed amount of photons are released into the body. AEC is widely used in radiographic and mammographic imaging systems. Detectors and sensors are included to sense the amount of photons emitted by the device.
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To refer to complete question, see below:
The component parts of the AEC that function to measure the amount of radiation transmitted are called
I. detectors
II. cells
III. chambers
IV. sensors
Who should sign the health
records of a sheep or goat that is
for sale?
A. Future owner
B. Current veterinarian
C. Future veterinarian
D. Current owner
Answer:
Explanation:
answer is d
1) In aerobic respiration the majority of energy is conserved for ATP synthesis by feeding NADH into the electron transport chain: During this process, NADH is oxidized to NAD and Oz is reduced to HzO. Diagram an electron transport chain leading from NADH to Oz that clearly indicates how energy is conserved in this process. Be sure to include the names of enzymes and clearly show the fate of the protons and electrons produced and consumed by these reactions_ 2) In very general terms there are two kinds of electron carriers used in living organisms a) What are they? b) Why is this important? c) Name at least two of each type_ 3) In E. coli the oxidation of NADH coupled to the reduction of O2 usually allows translocation of 8 protons_ a) The actual number of protons translocated ranges from 2 to 8. What enzyme(s) accounts for this difference? Why is the number of protons different? b) In Pseudomonas species 10 protons are translocated during the same process. What enzyme accounts for this difference? How is this difference achieved? 4) In aerobic respiration the majority of energy is conserved for ATP synthesis by feeding NADH into the electron transport chain: During this process, NADH is oxidized to NAD and Oz is reduced to HzO. a) How much energy (ie_AG) is available from the oxidation of NADH coupled to the reduction of 02? b) In one sentence describe how the energy conserved in electron transport converted into ATP? 5) In organism "X "the number of ATP produced per NADH oxidized is 2, while in organism "Y the number is 3. a) Assuming that NADH oxidation in organism "X" results in the translocation of 8 protons, and translocation of 10 protons in organism "Y what accounts for the difference in ATP yield between the two organisms? Your answer must include a molecular explanation of ATP synthesis that numerically accounts for the difference_ b) If 45 kJlmol are required to synthesize ATP from ADP and Pi, what is the magnitude of the proton motive force (AP or PMF) required for ATP
The conversion of NADH to its oxidized state, NAD, is necessary for both aerobic and anaerobic metabolism; otherwise, the cell will eventually run out of this coenzyme.
NAD is replenished in aerobic conditions when the electrons from NADH molecules are transferred to the mitochondria and the electron transport chain. Pyruvate molecules are carried to the mitochondria under aerobic circumstances, where they engage in the TCA cycle and ultimately undergo oxidation to carbon dioxide. More NADH molecules are produced during the TCA cycle, which is how ATP is made. The regeneration of NAD and the decrease of pyruvate occur simultaneously in anaerobic circumstances. Fermentation is the term used to describe NAD's anaerobic renewal. Fermentation in mammalian tissues converts pyruvate to lactate by transferring electrons from pyruvate to NADH.
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in cats, short fur is dominant over long fur. if two cats that are both homozygous dominant for fur length are bred, which combination of offspring best represents the likely outcome of the cross?
In cats, short fur predominate over long fur. If two cats are mated and both are homozygous for fur length, the combination of offspring that best represents the likely outcome of the mating may be 1:1.
What if the parent is homozygous dominant?If a parent is homozygous (i.e. AA) and affected by the disease, all offspring may inherit the dominant allele and be affected by the disease.
How do you know if it's dominant or recessive?If the trait is dominant, one of the parents must have the trait. Dominant traits do not skip generations. If the trait is recessive, neither parent may be heterozygous, so they do not have the trait.
What is the difference between homozygotes and heterozygotes?Each gene contain two alleles or versions. Being homozygous for a particular gene means that we inherit two identical versions and is the opposite of the heterozygous genotype with different alleles. People with recessive traits like blue eyes or red hair are always homozygous for this gene
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transformation is a process in which bacteria take up new dna released by dead cells and integrate it into their own genomes. in streptococcus pneumoniae (which causes many cases of pneumonia, inner ear infections, and meningitis), the ability to carry out transformation requires from 105 to 124 genes, collectively termed the com regulon. if csp interacts with a receptor that activates a regulator, which heat map represents the expected outcome of a deletion of each of the three genes? bright blue color indicates a high level of expression and bright red color indicates a low level of expression.
The microorganisms that cause pneumococcal illness. It can cause ear infections, blood infections, and pneumonia. Meningitis is the medical term for the inflammation of the meninges, which envelop the brain and spinal cord.
What contributes to pneumonia in the majority of cases?Adult pneumonia is frequently brought on by bacteria. Pneumococcus pneumoniae, often known as pneumococcus bacteria, is the most frequent cause of pneumonia in the United States, while many different forms of bacteria can also cause the disease.
Inner ear infection brought on by pneumoniaThe eustachian tubes that connect the middle ear to the back of the throat can get infected with streptococcus pneumonia and result in acute otitis media. It may also result in hearing loss in extreme circumstances.
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Where do fern antheridia develop?
On the underside of fully developed haploid gametophytes, ferns grow haploid antheridia.
The interior components of pollen grains from seed-producing plants resemble fern gametophytes most closely, which only have antheridia.As sporophytes or gametophytes, they carry out alternation of generation in ferns.Both the male and female sexual organs are carried by the fern gametophytes. In ferns, the female reproductive organs are known as archegonia while the male reproductive organs are known as antheridia.The antheridia of the fern gametophyte resemble pollen grains, which are the male reproductive organs of seed-bearing plants.The male sex organs are referred to as antheridia, and the female sex organs are referred to as archegonia. The male gametes, known as antherozoids, are expelled by antheridia.
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I need help on this can someone help me on it please
1) The energy of the various trophic levels increases from the bottom upwards.
2) This is because of the fact that less energy is available at higher trophic levels.
3) This is because the number of the prey decreases making the food of the predators scare.
4) The most energy is available at the lowest trophic level since they trap the energy directly from the sun
What is the food web?We know that the food web shows the movement of the energy in the ecosystem. The energy pyramid shows the way that the energy in terms of the trophic levels. The organisms that are at the lower trophic levels do have more energy than the organisms at the higher trophic levels.
The producers which are the green plants can be found at the lower trophic levels in the ecosystem.
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The primary structure of a protein refers to its… a. Ability to form coils. b. Sequence of amino acids. c. Interaction with two or more polypeptides. d. Tendency to combine as subunits of one or more protein chains
The amino acid sequence of a protein's polypeptide chain is referred to as its primary structure, while the local spatial arrangement of a polypeptide's backbone (main chain) atoms is referred to as secondary structure.
The locations of the primary structural functional groups in amino acids can be categorised as alpha-, beta-, gamma-, or delta-amino acids; further classifications relate to polarity, ionisation, and the type of side chain group (aliphatic, acyclic, aromatic, containing hydroxyl or sulfur, etc.). The second-largest component of human muscles and other tissues, after water, is amino acid residues, which are found in proteins. Aside from serving as protein residues, amino acids also take part in the production of proteins and the transport of neurotransmitters, among other activities. They are believed to have had a crucial part.
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Calculate the solute potential of a 2.0 M sucrose solution at 20oC under standard atmospheric condition. Take into account that sucrose doesn't ionize in water, so its ionization constant (i) is 1.
Solute capability may be calculated the usage of the method Ѱs = -iCRT. The value is -4.87 bars solute potential.
The solute capability is a bad fee so long as there are solutes in solution. “i” is the wide variety of ions the solute dissociates (or breaks up) into. The extra ions the solute can cut up into, the decrease the solute capability.
Here we have the values as ;Concentration= 2.0 MT = 20 ° C so We will convert this to K as 273 + 20 =293 K.i= 1.Then the Ѱs = -iCRT is used.Ѱs = -iCRT = - 1 * 2.0 * 8. 314 * 293.Ѱs = -4.87 bars.Read more about solute;
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Which eukaryotic cell-cycle event is missing " binary fission?
a. DNA duplication
b. karyokinesis
c. cell growth
d. cytokinesis
(b) Karyokinasis eukaryotic cell-cycle event is missing " binary fission.
DNA replication, cell development, DNA segregation, and cell division are all required steps in the process of binary fission. Because bacteria lack an actual nucleus, the process of karyokinesis, or cell division, is not possible in bacteria.
As a result of the fact that cell growth is a component of the binary fission process, option (a) is not correct.
Because the process of binary fission involves DNA duplication as one of its steps, choice (b) is not valid.
Because cytokinesis is an integral part of the process of binary fission, choice (d) is not appropriate.
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