which of the following may represent the sequence of one strand of a dna palindrome recognized by a restriction enzyme?
5' ATGGAT 3'
5' ATGATG 3'
5' ATGGTA 3'
5' ATGCAT 3'

Answers

Answer 1

To produce reproducible fragments and unique gel electrophoresis, these enzymes break DNA at set places relative to their recognition sequence.

What series constitutes a palindrome?

When the sequences reading 5' (five-prime) to 3' (three prime) forward on one strand match the sequences reading 3' to 5' on the complementary strand with which it forms a double helix, they are said to be palindromic.

A DNA sequence: what is it?

Finding the nucleotide sequences of DNA molecules is a skill called DNA sequencing. Name at least two available techniques for DNA sequencing. One technique of sequencing is by hand. chemical sequencing using maxam-gilbert and sanger chain termination.

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what kind of body cavity is characteristic of the animals in the phyla covered in this lab exercise?

Answers

Coelemate kind of body cavity is characteristic of the animals in the phyla covered in this lab exercise

The ability of the inner mesenteric layer, which is primarily made of connective tissue, to sustain the central intestine in the middle of the animal is a benefit of a genuine Coelemate . Otherwise, gravity would pull the gut down and drastically reduce body size in those animals that have a body cavity needed for locomotion. The body sizes of coelomates are far bigger than those of any other group of animals. The coelom has varied significance to the morphology and variety of the different phyla within the coelomates. For annelids and other related phyla, it is crucial for their ability to burrow. However, in arthropods, where locomotion has been transferred to limbs supported by an exoskeleton rather than a coelomic hydroskeleton, it has largely lost this significance. the suspension

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What is the K value for the Cimetidine inhibition? a)0.48 pM b) 500 pM c)240 pM d)115 pM

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The K value for the Cimetidine inhibition is the concentration of inhibitor needed to reduce the activity of an enzyme by 50%. In this case, the K value for the Cimetidine inhibition is d) 115 pM (picomolar).

The K value for the Cimetidine inhibition was determined through an in vitro experiment, where the enzyme activity was measured in the presence of varying concentrations of Cimetidine. The K value was determined to be 115 pM when the enzyme activity was reduced by 50%.

Cimetidine is a histamine H2 receptor antagonist, which inhibits the action of histamine on the gastric parietal cells of the stomach, thereby reducing the production of gastric acid. As such, Cimetidine is commonly used to treat peptic ulcers and other gastric acid-related disorders.

In conclusion, the K value for the Cimetidine inhibition is 115 pM (picomolar). This value is important for understanding the effectiveness of Cimetidine in inhibiting gastric acid production, and is a key factor in determining the appropriate dosage of Cimetidine for treating particular medical conditions.

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axons of motor neurons of the ssomatic and autonomic nervous system senf fibers via the

Answers

Motor neuron axons of the autonomic and somatic nervous systems are connected to them by cholinergic fibers.

What do you call a motor neuron's axon?

Motor neuron axons, or efferent fibers, convey information away from the central nervous system.The somatic system (SNS) and the parasympathetic (visceral) nervous system are the two main efferent systems (ANS).Skeletal muscles are innervated by somatic neurones, which are part of the somatic nervous system.

Where can you find motor axons?

Sensory and/or motor axons, which are projections of a nerve cell bodies make up peripheral nerves.These nerve cell bodies are found in the dorsal horns of the spinal cord or brain stem, dorsal root ganglia (neurones), autonomic ganglion (autonomic neurons), and autonomic ganglia (neurogenic neurons) of the nervous system.

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the partially digested fluid that passes from the stomach into the small intestine is a. bile. b. mucus. c. saliva. d. feces. e. chyme.

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The partially digested fluid that passes from the stomach into the small intestine is e. chyme.

Chyme: The food stays in the stomach for 4-5 hours. The chyme is the food that thoroughly mixes with the stomach's acidic gastric juice through the muscular wall's churning motions. The food is ready to enter the small intestine once chyme has formed.

Chyme has two main functions: first, it makes food more surface area so that digestive enzymes can finish their work, and second, it makes various digestive glands release their secretions. Enzymes cannot function properly unless they are in close proximity to their substrate molecules.

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when a large amount of h accumulates between the inner and outer mitochondria membranes, this describes:

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Chemiosmosis is characterized by a significant buildup of h between the inner and outer mitochondrial membranes.

Protons, also known as hydrogen ions, will diffuse from an area with a high proton concentration to an area with a low proton concentration. Using an electrochemical gradient of protons across a membrane, ATP can be produced. The term "chemiosmosis" refers to a process that is similar to osmosis in that it involves the passage of water across a selective membrane.By means of chemiosmosis, ATP is produced by the enzyme ATP synthase. In order to create ATP, it phosphorylates adenosine diphosphate (ADP) by using the free energy difference created by protons passing across the membrane. In mitochondria and chloroplasts, as well as in the majority of bacteria and archaea, ATP is produced by chemiosmosis. For instance, during photosynthesis, an electron transport chain in the stroma (fluid) of chloroplasts pumps H+ ions (protons) into the thylakoid gaps across the membrane. As protons travel through ATP synthase, the energy that has been saved is used to photo-phosphorylate ADP, creating ATP.

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the accumulation of toxic chemicals up a food chain through consumption of contaminated organisms is called .

Answers

Answer:

Biomagnification

Explanation:

Biomagnification is the buildup of toxins in a food chain.

Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane (also known as DDT) concentration is parts per million. When the trophic level increases, so does the toxic buildup.

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some sizable regions of different chromosomes of the human genome are more than 99 percent nucleotide identical with one another. these regions were overlooked in the production of the draft genome sequence of the human genome because of their high level of similarity. of the techniques discussed in this chapter, which would allow genome researchers to identify the existence of such duplicate regions?

Answers

The human reference genome has only covered the euchromatic portion of the genome since it was first published in 2000, leaving significant heterochromatic portions incomplete.

In order to address the remaining 8% of the genome, the Telomere-to-Telomere (T2T) Consortium has created the T2T-CHM13, a 3.055 billion base pair sequence of the entire human genome. This sequence corrects errors in earlier references, adds nearly 200 million base pairs of new sequence, and contains 1956 predicted genes, 99 of which are predicted to be protein-coding.

The completed areas, which open up these intricate regions of the genome to variational and functional studies, include all centromeric satellite arrays, recent segmental duplications, and the short arms of all five acrocentric chromosomes.

The Genome Reference Consortium (GRC) first published the current human reference genome in 2013 and most recently updated it in 2019. This reference, which has been continuously developed for the past 20 years, has its roots in the publically financed Human Genome Project.

The GRC assembly was made from sequenced bacterial artificial chromosomes (BACs) that were ordered and oriented along the human genome by means of radiation hybrid, genetic linkage, and fingerprint maps, in contrast to the rival Celera effort and most contemporary sequencing projects based on "shotgun" sequence assembly.

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at 40x, how many individual blood cells can be seen in the viewing field?

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40x magnifies the viewing field to reveal 583.33 distinct blood cells. Due to their rounded shape, blood cells may be recognized. They don't have cell walls as plant cells do.

At a total magnification of 40x (a scanning microscope), there may be counted 583.33 unique blood cells. The diameter of a 40x viewing field of view is 4200 m, whereas the normal size of a red blood cell is 6.2-8.2 m (7.2 m). So, 583.33 is the response. Blood cells appears as separate cells without nuclei when seen using a light microscope at a magnification of 40X.

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Chemicals that enhance urinary output are called

Answers

Chemicals that enhance urinary output are called diuretics.

What are diuretics?

Diuretics, often known as water tablets, assist your kidneys in excreting more water and salt through your urine. Diuretics work by removing surplus fluid from the body and lowering blood pressure. Diuretics are also beneficial if you have excess fluid accumulating as a result of heart failure or other medical conditions.

What is a diuretics used for?

Water pills, often known as diuretics, are frequently used to treat high blood pressure.

What are the most common diuretics?

chlorthalidone.

hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide)

metolazone.

indapamide.

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which process produces the highest number of reduced electron carriers and thus the greatest potential for generating atp?

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The majority of the ATP generated during cellular respiration is produced during the glycolysis stage.

Of the three major stages of cellular respiration, the electron transport chain produces the most ATP. Per glucose molecule, glycolysis results in the net production of 2 ATP.

The first step is to capture and destabilize the glucose, the second is to split it into two molecules with three carbons, and the third is to extract the energy from the chemical bonds of the glucose to produce a small number of ATP molecules, as well as pyruvate and NADH molecules.

A total of 2 ATP is produced during the glycolysis process, which converts glucose into pyruvate and energy (Glucose + 2 NAD+ + 2 ADP + 2 Pi --> 2 Pyruvate + 2 NADH + 2 H+ + 2 ATP + 2 H2O). Phosphorylation is made possible by the hydroxyl groups. Glucose 6-phosphate is the specific kind of glucose used in glycolysis.

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interspecific competition often leads to what disastrous outcome for the less fit species

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Extinction is frequently caused by interspecific competition.

Less suited species may receive a smaller amount of the resources both species require. As a result, it is less probable that individuals from that species will survive, and it could even become extinct.

What is Interspecific competition?

The competition between members of various species is known as interspecific competition. We also recognize two types of competition under this category, but unlike intraspecific rivalry, which involves individuals from the same population, here the competition is between members of different species.

Additionally, there is interspecies rivalry between organisms of different species for resources. For instance, in ocean ecosystems, sharks, dolphins, and seabirds frequently consume the same species of fish. Direct and indirect competition both exist.

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which of the following is not true about the earliest primate-like fossils? a) they were rodent-like, resembling tropical squirrels b) they had large brains relative to living primates c) some exhibited a nail instead of a claw on the hallux or big toe d) they exhibited primate-like cuspal patterns on their molar teeth

Answers

The most primitive primate known from reliable fossil evidence is Dryomomys. (Only isolated teeth and jaw fragments from the ape Purgatorius, which dates back 65 million years, have been discovered.

Which of the following concerning the oldest fossils that resemble primates is untrue?

Palaeontologists have discovered the earliest primate skeleton ever discovered, which belonged to an animal that lived among trees 55 million years ago in what is now central China.

Can you describe the appearance of the early primates?

Proto-primates are the first mammals that resembled primates. They were around the size of squirrels and looked like tree shrews. The fossil data now available is widely dispersed and comes primarily from North Africa.

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The majority of carbon dioxide in the blood is transported by ________. a. binding to hemoglobin, b. dissolution in the blood, c. conversion to bicarbonate, d. binding to plasma proteins.

Answers

The majority of carbon dioxide in the blood is transported by (Option C.) conversion to bicarbonate. Which is generated through a reaction between carbon dioxide and water.

Transport of Carbon Dioxide in the Bloodstream

The majority of carbon dioxide in the blood is transported by conversion to bicarbonate. This conversion of carbon dioxide to bicarbonate is catalyzed by carbonic anhydrase, an enzyme found in the red blood cells. Through this reaction, carbon dioxide combines with water to form carbonic acid, which is then broken down into bicarbonate and hydrogen ions.

The hydrogen ions are then released into the bloodstream, while the bicarbonate is used to buffer the pH of the blood. The bicarbonate is then transported to the lungs, where it is released in exchange for oxygen and carbon dioxide. This process ensures that the body is able to maintain the proper pH balance in the blood.

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which of the following is not an artery that branches off the aortic arch?

Answers

The right atrioventricular artery isn't an artery that breaks off the aortic arch; it is not a straight branch of the aorta.

What are arteries and what do they do?

Arteries: Your body receives oxygen-rich blood from the heart through these robust, muscular blood veins. They don't carry a lot of blood, but they can handle a lot of stress and stress from your blood flow. Only 10% – 15% of the blood in your body at any given moment is in the arteries.

What does artery and vein mean?

Blood channels called arteries carry oxygen-rich blood from the heart to the rest of the body. Blood arteries called veins return low-oxygen blood from the body to the heart.

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which statement best explains why crossing-over during meiosis causes variation in genes in a population?

Answers

Answer:

Crossing Over

Explanation:

Crossing over is a cellular process that happens during meiosis when chromosomes of the same type are lined up.

the timing of a mutation during development has negligible effects on the severity of the genetic defect. State True or False your answer:
a. True
b. False

Answers

The severity of something like the genetic abnormality is little impacted by the time of a mutation through development. This assertion is untrue.

What does mutation entail?

( myoo -TAY-shun) Any modification to a cell's DNA sequence. Mistakes in cell division can result in mutations, as can exposure to environmental DNA-damaging substances .Mutations might be deadly, helpful, or ineffectual.

Is it better or worse to have mutations?

Depending on the situation or place, the impacts of mutation might be advantageous, detrimental, or neutral. The majority of non-neutral mutations are harmful. The effect of including a mutation and its likelihood of being unhealthy increase generally with the number of nitrogenous bases that are altered by the mutation.

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when looking at a ventral view of the sheep brain, which of the cranial nerves can be seen emerging from the floor of the midbrain?

Answers

The cranial nerve that can be seen emerging from the floor of a sheep's midbrain is the Trochlear nerve

The midbrain is a part of the brain that serves as the connection between various parts of the brain, specifically between the pons and the diencephalon. It contains more than ten types of cranial nerves.

The Trochlear nerve (cranial nerve IV) is a motor nerve. It's located in the midbrain, specifically from the posterior surface of the midbrain. The trochlear nerve is the only cranial nerve decussating peripherally, at the superior medullary velum after leaving the brainstem. It causes cranial nerve nuclei deficits to appear as a loss of function of the contralateral superior oblique muscle.

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polysynaptic reflexes involve multiple synapses while monosynaptic reflexes only involve a single synapse. true/false

Answers

It is accurate to say that while monosynaptic reflexes only involve a single synapse, polysynaptic reflexes involve several synapses.

How do polysynaptic reflexes work?

It is the type of reflex that involves several synapses. There may be one or many interneurons involved in the reflex arc. As a result, afferent and efferent neurons communicate indirectly and broadly.

Describe the monosynaptic reflex.

Definition/Introduction. The monosynaptic stretch reflex, also known as the muscle stretch reflex and deep tendon reflex, is a reflex arc that enables clear communication between the sensory and motor neurons that innervate the muscle.

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the pecking behavior of laughing gull chicks becomes more accurate with time. this is most likely an example of

Answers

The pecking behavior of laughing gull chicks becomes more accurate with time is most likely an example of learning.

What does pecking accomplish?

Pecking is the act of a bird using its beak to probe an object or area in search of food or for other reasons. A bird may also battle or attack another bird via pecking. Numerous elements that have been investigated and reported in relation to this behavior can be divided into two categories: genetics, hormonal status, and societal impulses are internal influences.

What environment do Laughing Gulls inhabit?

Coastal bays, piers, beaches, and salt marshes. are typically found in coastal areas, with salt marshes and beaches being the most common locations, but also extending several miles inland to rivers, farms, and landfills. in Florida and near the Salton Sea in California, both well inland. Following protection, populations have grown over the past century. The oldest Laughing Gull recorded had at least 22 years on it.

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What happens to the energy in a system of magnets when the magnetic force causes two magnets to move? Group of answer choices a The potential energy in the system increases. b The kinetic energy in the system decreases. c Some kinetic energy changes into potential energy. d Some potential energy changes into kinetic energy.

Answers

The magnetic force changes potential energy into kinetic energy because the magnet is moved against the magnet force is .D

What is magnetic force ?

Magnetic force can be defined as repulsion that arises between electrically charged particles because of their motion. Examples of magnetic force is a compass, a motor, the magnets that hold stuff on the refrigerator and also train tracks.

There are two types of magnetic forces such as:

Attractive force: Unlike poles (north-south) of a magnet attract each other. Repulsive force: Like poles (north-north; south-south) of a magnet repel each other.

Therefore when opposite poles of the magnets approach they attract each other. Any north-south combination will pull them together but when two like poles come together they push each other apart.

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In which direction does Earth rotate? (the subject is earth science)

A: eastward around its axis
B: in an ellipse around the Sun
C: counterclockwise around the Sun
D: from north to south around its axis

Answers

Earth rotates at eastward around its axis.

Which Way Does Earth Rotate and Why?Actually, there isn't a single correct response; it all depends on where on Earth you are. If you were floating above the earth and looked down at the North Pole, it would appear that the earth was rotating counterclockwise. The rotation is said to be clockwise when observing the South Pole from underneath the Earth. Because Earth revolves from west to east, the sun "rises" in the east and "sets" in the west, which helps to explain this phenomena. Just as the day in North America is about to break, picture yourself staring down at Earth from the sun.

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Which one of the following is a stop codon ?O UAG
O UAC
O AUG
O UCA

Answers

The stop codon is "UAG," also known as amber. Stop codons are sequences of three nucleotides in RNA that signal the end of protein synthesis. When the ribosome reaches a stop codon during translation, it releases the completed protein and the process is terminated. There are three stop codons in the genetic code: "UAG," "UAA," and "UGA." These are also known as the amber, ochre, and opal codons, respectively. "UCA" is not a stop codon.

at thanksgiving dinner you surprise your family by telling them that a potato is a stem and not a root. assuming you had a microscope handy, what anatomical feature could you show them to prove it is a stem?

Answers

Distinct vascular bundles arranged in ring. potato is a dicot stem, dicot stem is a part of plant consisting of nodes, internodes. a distinguishing feature of diet stem is vascular bundles are arranged in a ring. Thus potato tuber is a stem, not root that helps in vegetative propagation. And this could be linked to Primordia.

How do you prove that potato tuber is a stem and not a root?In potato, the evidence of stem nature is by the presence of eyes on its brownish corky surface. It is a pit like structure and represents a node and axillary bud is present in it. Thus potato tuber is a stem, not root that helps in vegetative propagation.Potato is classified as a stem. Because it has many nodes known as eyes. The space between each eye is internodes. The potato eye grows into a shoot and a new plant.

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a nosocomial infection is group of answer choices always present, but is inapparent at the time of hospitalization. only a result of surgery. acquired during the course of hospitalization. always caused by pathogenic bacteria. always caused by medical personnel.

Answers

The nosocomial infection is group of answer choices always present in the acquired during the course of hospitalization.

They might also additionally arise in distinctive regions of healthcare delivery, which includes in hospitals, long-time period care facilities, and ambulatory settings, and can additionally seem after discharge. HAIs additionally consist of occupational infections that could have an effect on staff.

Nosocomial infections are infections sufferers accumulate even as admitted to a health-care facility and typically broaden forty eight hours or later after admission. These infections can result in severe issues like sepsis or even death.

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if dna is damaged or incompletely replicated in s phase, the inhibition of which of these molecules prevents the cell from entering m phase?

Answers

Inhibition of Cdc25 molecules stops the cell from entering m phase if DNA is damaged or incompletely replicated in the s phase.

What exactly is DNA?

Deoxyribonucleic Acid is the name given to DNA. It is an organic substance with a distinct molecular make-up. All prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells contain it.

There are three distinct DNA types:

A-DNA is a right-handed double helix that resembles the structure of B-DNA.

B-DNA: A right-handed helix, this is the most frequent DNA configuration.

Z-DNA: Z-DNA is a left-handed DNA whose double helix winds zigzag to the left. Andres Wang and Alexander Rich made the find.

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Lipids are large complex molecules called

Answers

These are referred to as macromolecules. The majority of macromolecules are polymers, which are lengthy chains of monomeric components.

The structure and function of all four kinds of big biological molecules will next be investigated: carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids.

Large organic molecules, known as macromolecules in biological systems, can contain hundreds or thousands of atoms. The majority of macromolecules are polymers,

which are molecules made up of a single unit (monomer) repeated multiple times. Four of the six electrons in carbon are accessible for bonding with other atoms.

The structure and function of all four kinds of big biological molecules will next be investigated: carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids.

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pair up the nucleotide bases with their complementary partners.

Answers

Purine guanine always pairs with pyrimidine cytosine in a DNA sequence, while purine adenine always pairs with pyrimidine thymine. This is called base pairing rule in DNA.

What is Chargaff's rule?

According to Chargaff's criteria, guanine and cytosine should be equal in amount in the DNA of every species and organism, and adenine and thymine should be equal in amount. Additionally, there should be a 1:1 stoichiometric ratio between the purine and pyrimidine bases (A+G=T+C).

What is the base pairing rule of DNA and RNA?

The bases of DNA and RNA are also joined by chemical bonds and follow precise base pairing principles. Adenine (A) pairs with uracil (U) in DNA/RNA base pairing, and cytosine (C) pairs with guanine (G). When an RNA polymerase creates a complementary mRNA copy of a DNA "template" sequence, DNA is converted to mRNA.

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heterozygous individuals perpetuate some alleles that have lethal effects in homozygous individuals. a mutated allele (ml ) associated with taillessness in manx cats (left) is an example. cats homozygous for this allele (mlml ) typically die before birth due to severe spinal cord defects. in a case of incomplete dominance, cats heterozygous for the ml allele and the normal, unmutated allele (m) have a short, stumpy tail or none at all. two mlm cats mate. what is the probability that any one of their surviving kittens will be heterozygous?

Answers

Because MLML is deadly, the likelihood that any one kitten among the survivors will be heterozygous is 2/3. A mating of two ML cats results in 1/4 MM, 1/2 MLM, and 1/4 MLML.

A cell, a nucleus, or an individual organism is said to be heterozygous if it has different or non-identical alleles for a specific trait at the same loci on homologous chromosomes. Contrary to homozygous, in which the alleles are identical, it signifies that the alleles that code for the same gene or trait are different. A diploid is a living being or a cell having two chromosomal groups. The first pair is from the mother, while the second is from the father. A homologous paternal chromosome exists for every maternal chromosome.

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imagine an antibiotic is administered to a sick patient. the antibiotic treatment kills 99% of the infectious bacteria. the remaining bacteria that survived the treatment are able to reproduce, and their offspring are also resistant to that antibiotic treatment. this process is known as .

Answers

The bacteria have high genetic variability and high reproductive rates.

Antibiotics are drugs that combat infections due by bacteria in human beings and animals by way of either killing the bacteria or making it hard for the microorganism to grow and multiply. bacteria are germs.

The primary forms of antibiotics consist of Penicillins, for example, phenoxymethylpenicillin, flucloxacillin, and amoxicillin. Cephalosporins, for instance, cefaclor, cefadroxil, and cefalexin. Tetracyclines, for instance, tetracycline, doxycycline, and lymecycline.

Antibiotics are for bacterial infections best. This consists of infections such as bloodstream infections, skin abscess/impetigo, bacterial pneumonia, urinary tract infections, streptococcal pharyngitis, and a few center ear infections.

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Tumor mutational load predicts survival after immunotherapy across multiple cancer types

a. True
b. False

Answers

Despite the fact that TMB is linked to better survival in patients receiving ICI across a wide range of cancer types, there might not be a single accepted definition of high TMB. The statement is true.

What is Tumor?When cells become damaged or old, they die and are replaced by new cells. Erroneous or damaged cells start to multiply and mature when they shouldn't when this regular process fails. These cells can expand into tumor tissue growths. Tumors may or may not be malignant (benign).Tumors that are both benign and malignant are possible (cancer). Benign tumors can grow significantly, but they do not invade or spread to nearby tissues or to other parts of the body. A cancerous tumor may encroach on nearby tissues or spread there. They can also spread to various parts of the body through the lymphatic and circulatory systems.

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