The nurse closely monitors a client with urinary incontinence based on the understanding that this client is at greater risk for developing a urinary tract infection.
What is urinary incontinence?Urinary incontinence is a condition when a person finds it difficult to hold back urination so that they wet themselves. Urinary incontinence is generally experienced by the elderly and is more common in women than in men.
Urinary incontinence can occur due to pressure on the bladder, for example by coughing, laughing, lifting weights, or exercising. This happens because the muscles of the urinary tract are too weak to hold urine so the sufferer is unable to hold back urination. However, if this continues, it can cause urinary tract infections.
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the nurse is caring for an infant who was injured in a severe automobile accident. the child experienced several fractures and is in significant pain. the child's mother questions if this will impact her child later in life. what information should be provided by the nurse?
Yes, it will impact the child later in life as experiences with pain even in infancy can influence an individual's response to pain later.
Which is the most appropriate way to assess a child's pain?In infants, pain is difficult to assess correctly and reliably, and no one approach of pain assessment has been proved for children of all ages. Because pain is a subjective feeling, self-reporting approaches are widely accepted as the most effective pain indicators. The Neonatal/Infant Pain Scale is primarily used in infants under the age of one year. Before, during, and after an operation, a number score is awarded to each of the following: facial expression, cry, breathing rate, arms, legs, and level of awareness. A score of 3 or above indicates pain.
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as the baby boomer generation ages, more and more joint replacement surgeries take place each year. hip replacement surgery is the gold standard of all joint replacement surgeries, with many patients able to walk just a few hours after surgery and return home the very next day. in contrast, knee replacement surgery usually requires hospital stays of several days, followed by weeks to months of physical therapy. what best explains why the recovery after hip replacement surgery is so much faster than after knee replacement surgery?
More structures than the hip joint stabilise the knee joint.
An operation to replace a hip is significantly less painful. After using crutches for a while, people's hips feel normal again. However, the knee doesn't feel completely normal for six to twelve months after total knee surgery. As a result, full recovery times for replacement hips are typically quicker than those for replacement knees. A complete recovery typically takes 3–12 months for a knee replacement and 2–6 months for a hip replacement.An operation to replace a hip is significantly less painful. After using crutches for a while, people's hips feel normal again. But even after recovering from a total knee replacement, it takes six to a year for the knee to feel normal.
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discuss a patient interaction in which there was transference, countertransference, prejudice/biases or judgments that you may be making about the patients or that they are verbalizing about you.
Subconsciously connecting a current person with a former relationship is known as transference. A new client, for instance, reminds you of a former partner.
Responding to them with all the memories and emotions associated with that previous connection is known as countertransference.In therapy, this refers to a client projecting their feelings about someone else onto their therapist. Transference is defined as the redirection of feelings toward a specific person onto someone else. Redirecting a therapist's feelings toward the client is known as countertransference.How then does transference differ from countertransference? The opposite of transference is essentially countertransference. Contrary to countertransference, which is the therapist's emotional response to the client, transference concerns the client's emotional response to the therapist.To know more about Doctor here
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which finding will the nurse expect during the assesment when a client with ahistory of chronic myelogenous leuemia and splenomegaly
The nurse will look for left upper quadrant soreness during the examination of a patient who has a history of chronic myelogenous leukemia and splenomegaly.
Normal spleens are not palpable, but splenomegaly, which frequently goes hand in hand with chronic myelogenous leukemia, causes a palpable and tender lump in the left upper abdomen. These conditions have no impact on urine output. Increased metabolic rate brought on by leukaemias causes weight loss. Anemia results from decreased erythrocyte production and increased erythrocyte breakdown associated with leukemia and splenomegaly.
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what is the purpose of a spacer or extender used with a metered-dose inhaler?
A spacer is an accessory for metered-dose inhalers. It helps the medicine to reach till lungs instead of inhaling it through the mouth.
It is frequently advised to use a spacer since using the proper technique with a metered-dose inhaler can be challenging. A spacer is a part of meter dosed inhalers which is used to direct medicine to lung airway instead of giving it through the mouth. This improves the medication's effectiveness and reduces negative effects.
Steps to Use a Spacer with an MDI (Meter Dosed Inhalers)
Shake the spacer after inserting the inhaler or canister.Breathe out.In your mouth, place the spacer mouthpiece.Once, apply pressure on the inhaler.Inhale gently (for 3-5 seconds).10 second breath hold.To learn more about inhalers click here:
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which nursing intervention has the highestpriority when providing care to a client after an arthroscopy?
The loftiest precedence nursing intervention when furnishing care to a customer after an arthroscopy is to cover the customer’s vital signs.
This includes taking their temperature, palpitation, respiration rate, and blood pressure. It's important to cover these vital signs nearly to insure that the customer is recovering meetly and that there are no signs of infection or farther complications. also, it's important to observe the customer for signs of pain, anxiety, and discomfort, and administer pain drug as demanded. It's also important to cover the customer’s urine affair and insure acceptable hydration situations. It's also important to check the gash point for signs of infection, as well as to give dressing changes and crack care as demanded.
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during a well-child visit for a 2-month-old infant, the nurse explains the need to perform a hearing screening on the child within the next few months. the child's mother reports she has not noticed any deficits and does not see the need for this being done. which response by the nurse is indicated?
Unfortunately, baby hearing loss is frequent, so it's judicious to have your child's hearing checked before they come 6 months old to rule out any issues. A six- month old should have their hailchecked. However, this will grease early intervention, If necessary.
What about the nursing leadership roles?A nanny leader makes choices and attends patient care enterprises while supervising a platoon of nursers.They're committed to enhancing patient health issues and retain superior clinical knowledge.A nanny leader's main duties include effects like keeping up with medical exploration developments.Leadership capacities are used by clinical and bedside nursers to plan, direct, and support case care as well as other healthcare platoon members.They're also patient advocates and have strong communication capacities.No matter what their title, nursers in all positions are anticipated to parade leadership, and they must push both themselves and the assiduity to make important leadership doctrines.A leadership position involves managing a group of people or an entire association.Communication chops are pivotal for a nanny leader, especially when it comes to patient care.These chops are necessary for any strong leader and are more important for a nanny leader.Because it encourages better case issues and increased job satisfaction among staff nurses, exploration reveals that the transformational leadership style in nursing is generally regarded as the gold standard in nursing leadership.Learn more about nursing leadership role here:
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difference between cardioversion and defibrillation
Defibrillation and cardioversion have fundamental differences: Defibrillation Asynchronous energy delivery is what defibrillation is. Energy delivery synchronized with the QRS complex is known as cardioversion.
Which two types of cardioversion are there?Cardioversion can be of two different forms. Drugs that can calm a hyperactive heart are used in chemical cardioversion. One or more swift electric shocks are administered to the heart during electrical cardioversion.
What distinguishes defibrillation from cardioversion?The timing of the transmission of electrical current is one of the primary distinctions between cardioversion and defibrillation. In CARDIOVERSION, the supply of the electrical current is timed to the electrical events occurring in the patient; in DEFIBRILLATION, the delivery of the current is abrupt and untimed.
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A nurse is assisting with the preparation of an education program regarding advance directive for newly hired staff. Which of the following information should be included about living wills
Living wills specify a client's preferences for medical care in the event of a terminal illness. So, option 1 is correct.
Advance health directives can aid in making decisions for doctors and careers if you are terminally ill, gravely injured, in a coma, suffering from late-stage dementia, or are close to the end of your life. Your choices for additional medical decisions, such as pain management or organ donation, as well as the medical treatments, are outlined in a living will, a legally binding document. There must be written advance health directives. States have different requirements and forms for creating legal documents. Depending on where you live, a form might need to be witnessed or notarized. You can seek a lawyer to help you with the process even though it isn't usually necessary.
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The above question is incomplete. Check below the complete question -
A nurse is assisting with the preparation of an education program regarding advance directive for newly hired staff.
Which of the following information should be included about living wills ?
1) Living wills specify a client's preferences for medical care in the case of a terminal disease.
2) To serve at the conclusion of class, prepare a healthy dinner.
3) The measurement of the client's oxygen saturation.
4) Chatting with friend, a nurse on another ward, about changes to a client's care plan.
Laboratory tests which can contribute toward the diagnosis of Glanzmann Thrombasthenia include all of the following EXCEPT:A. PT and aPTTB. Non-anticoagulated blood films (e.g. smears from a finger stick)C. Platelet aggregation testsD. Flow cytometry
The results of laboratory tests with severe Glanzmann Thrombasthenia demonstrate no platelet aggregation in response to any physiologic agonists and minimal or no clot retraction.
What is clot retraction?A blood clot "shrines" over a period of days and is known as clot retraction. In doing so, the blood vessel wall's edges at the site of the injury are gradually brought back together to repair the harm that was done.
Platelets trapped in the fibrin mesh of the clot must release various coagulation factors in order for the clot to retract. Thus, inability to retract may indicate thrombocytopenia or the uncommon condition thrombasthenia. Before this condition manifests, blood clot prevention may be beneficial.
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A researcher develops a 7-point Likert scale to evaluate feelings of well-being in patients who are undergoing chemotherapy. The researcher administers this measure to other, similar patients in other medical centers.
Answer: A Likert scale is a type of rating scale that is often used in survey research to measure attitudes, beliefs, or feelings. The 7-point Likert scale developed by the researcher in this scenario is designed to evaluate feelings of well-being in patients who are undergoing chemotherapy. The researcher intends to use this scale to measure the patients' self-reported feelings of well-being and to gather data on how well the patients are coping with the chemotherapy.
The researcher administers this measure to other, similar patients in other medical centers. This allows the researcher to gather a larger sample size and to generalize the findings from the study to a larger population of patients who are undergoing chemotherapy. Additionally, administering the measure in other medical centers allows the researcher to control for potential confounding variables that may be unique to the original medical center.
It is important to note that in order to ensure the validity and reliability of the measure, the researcher should ensure that the study is conducted in a controlled environment and that the sample size is large enough, also the researcher should analyze the data using appropriate statistical methods.
Explanation:
The researcher administers this measure to the same patients at other medical centers. This is done to improve test-retest reliability.
What is Likert scale?
A Likert scale is defined as a type of rating scale often used in survey research to measure attitudes, beliefs, or feelings, where in this scenario the 7-point Likert scale developed by the researcher is used to measure feelings of well-being is designed to evaluate the patients who are undergoing chemotherapy.
The researcher wants to use this scale to measure patients' self-reported feelings of well-being and collect data on how well patients are coping with chemotherapy, so they administered this measure to similar patients at other medical centers.
This allows the researcher to collect a larger sample size and generalize the findings from the study to a larger population of patients who are undergoing chemotherapy.
Thus, the researcher administers this measure to the same patients at other medical centers. This is done to improve test-retest reliability.
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the client received epidural anesthesia during labor and had a forceps delivery after pushing for 2 hours. at 6 hours postpartum, the client's systolic blood pressure (bp) dropped 20 points, the diastolic bp dropped 10 points, and her pulse is 120 beats per minute. the client is very anxious and restless. the nurse is told that the client has a vulvar hematoma. based on this diagnosis, the nurse would plan which action?
The first few days after delivery, your bleeding (also called lochia) is bright red; it changes to dark red, then brown, much like a normal period.
What is epidural anesthesia?
Epidural anesthesia is a technique for perioperative pain management with multiple applications in anesthesiology.An epidural is the most common type of anesthetic used for pain relief during labor.You'll likely experience a minor pinch when your provider injects the local anesthetic to numb the area before the epidural procedure. You may feel pressure, tingling, a burning sensation or momentary shooting pain when your provider injects the epidural. Or you may not feel anything.
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When John grabbed the handle of a hot pan on his stove, he sustained burns on the ____ surface of his hand.
A) superior
B) palmar
C) plantar
D) pronate
John burnt the palmar aspect of his finger when he grabbed this same bottom of something like a hot pan from his stove.
Burns are what?An infection to the skin and perhaps other organic tissue known as a burn is one that is primarily brought on by heat, radiation, radioactivity, electricity, friction, or contact with chemicals. Once a portion or all of body's natural cells and perhaps other tissues are damaged by liquids, mechanical (heat) burns result.
What kind of burn is the most painful?Burns to the skin's surface hurt the most at first. A patient feels agonizing agony at the least alteration in the air currents passing by the exposed superficial dermis. Nerve endings become sensitive and vulnerable to stimuli when the protective layer of the epidermis is absent.
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a benign tumor that arises in, or resembles, glandular tissue is called
the nurse has given dietary instructions to a client to minimize the risk of osteoporosis. the nurse determines that the client understands the recommended changes if the client verbalizes the intention to increase intake of which foods? select all that apply.
Osteoporosis clients stated the intention to increase their intake is milk and processed products, green vegetables, and fish.
What is osteoporosis?Osteoporosis is a condition when bone density decreases so that bones become porous and break easily. Osteoporosis rarely causes symptoms and is usually only discovered when the sufferer falls or suffers an injury that causes a broken bone. Osteoporosis is caused by a decrease in the body's ability to regenerate bone so that bone density decreases.
Some foods that can help with osteoporosis recovery are:
Milk and its processed productsSpinachSalmon, sardines, tunaWhite tofuCheeseYour question is incomplete. Maybe the meaning of your question is:
The nurse has given dietary instructions to a client to minimize the risk of osteoporosis. the nurse determines that the client understands the recommended changes if the client verbalizes the intention to increase intake of which foods? select all that apply.
Milk and processed products, green vegetables, and fish.Meat and preparationsLearn more about the prevention of osteoporosis here :
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as part of a class presentation, a nursing instructor describes the characteristics shared by all cultures. which description of culture being tacit indicates that the teaching was successful?
The description of culture being tacit which indicates that the teaching by nurse was successful is: (A) Culture is mostly unexpressed.
Tacit is the word that means the expression of something without the use of words or speech. Since something is not expressed by the means of words, it is considered to be unexpressed. This is the reason why culture is said to ne unexpressed.
Culture is a broad term that comprises of social beliefs, norms, knowledge, art, morals, law, custom, etc. Culture can be considered as the way of living life which is passes on from generation to generations.
The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
As part of a class presentation, a nursing instructor describes the characteristics shared by all cultures. which description of culture being tacit indicates that the teaching was successful?
A) Culture is mostly unexpressed.
B) Cultures do not remain static.
C) Culture is a functional and integrated whole.
D) Patterns of cultural behavior are acquired.
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you respond to a college campus for a young male who is acting strangely. after law enforcement has secured the scene, you enter the patient's dorm room and find him sitting on the edge of the bed; he appears agitated. as you approach him, you note that he has dried blood around both nostrils. he is breathing adequately, his pulse is rapid and irregular, and his blood pressure is 200/110 mm hg. treatment for this patient includes:
First Officer Responsibilities at a Crime Scene: First Responder Duties The first police officer on the scene of a crime can correctly safeguard, preserve, and, in some situations, acquire evidence, even with limited knowledge of evidence and its preservation.
Wait for the police before entering a scene you believe might be unsafe. Protecting a crime scene also entails safeguarding the first responders. Never let a rescuer stay on the scene by themselves, especially if the suspect hasn't been found yet. Be alert that the suspect might be around or present. evaluating the situation when you arrive and coordinating with other people there, including the police. assessing a patient's condition and determining if they need to be transferred or treated right away.
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The thermic effect of food accounts for approximately ______ of energy consumed each day.
O 5% to 10%
O 11% to 15%
O 16% to 20%
O None of these
Approximately 10% of daily energy expenditure is attributable to thermic effects of meals.
What proportion of your daily energy is provided by food consumption?About 10% The increase in energy required to absorb, digest, and process food is known as the thermic effect of food. Generally speaking, it accounts for 10% of an individual's total energy usage.
What does the body use up, say, 50% or more of its energy each day?The biggest daily energy expenditure is determined by the body's BMR (50–80 per cent of your daily energy use). Your body utilizes energy to breakdown the food and liquids you consume as well as to absorb, transport, and store their contents. This process is known as the thermogenic effect of food (also known as thermogenesis).
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two years ago, a client was prescribed a medication to control hypercholesterolemia. now the health care provider prescribes a higher dose of the medication due to enzyme induction. a student nurse asks the nurse to explain the change in the drug dosage. the nurse explains that with chronic administration, some drugs stimulate liver cells to produce:
Reasons for hyperlipidemia Smoking, eating poorly, & seldom exercise are just a few of the lifestyle factors that can contribute to high blood cholesterol. Associated medical disorders like high blood pressure or diabetes might also cause it. abetes.
What is the main reason for high cholesterol?Causes of Hyperlipidemia consuming a diet heavy in trans and saturated fats, which are frequently found in processed food and animal meat. eating foods rich in cholesterol, like red meat and dairy products with added fat.
If I have hypercholesterolemia, what foods should I avoid?Vegetables, fruit, and healthful grains in abundance. a wide range of nutritious, high-protein foods, including legumes (like beans and lentils), nuts, seeds, and fish and seafood in particular. A heart-healthy diet plan can also include smaller portions of eggs & lean chicken.
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the nurse should caution an older adult client against using diphenhydramine hydrochloride because of what increased risk?
Diphenhydramine hydrochloride is the antihistamine generally used to treat disinclinations or to help with sleep.
For aged grown-ups, this drug carries an increased threat of side goods, including doziness, confusion, and difficulty concentrating. In some cases, this drug can also beget an irregular twinkle or indeed an increase in the threat of cascade. Aged grown-ups should be advised against the use of this drug and should bandy the pitfalls and benefits of this drug with their healthcare provider before taking it. also, they should be apprehensive of any other specifics they're taking and how they could interact with diphenhydramine hydrochloride, as this could increase the threat of side effect.
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the nurse is called to a client's room 15 minutes after the client has received a new medication. the client reports pruritus as well as nausea. the nurse notes that the client appears pale, is sweating, and has begun to cough and wheeze. the nurse determines that the client is experiencing what type of reaction related to the new medication?
Although the physiologic similarities with an itch and nausea may not be immediately apparent, they both play a part in the body's defense mechanism against irritants and toxins by inducing scratching & vomiting, respectively. Additionally, in some disorders like uraemia, itch and nausea usually coexist.
What conditions can have nausea as a symptom?In contrast to popular belief, nausea and vomiting are symptoms of a wide range of medical illnesses, including infection (sometimes known as "stomach flu"), foodborne illness, motion sickness, overeating, obstructed intestines, illness, concussion and brain injury, appendicitis, and migraines.
When should I worry if I feel queasy?Consult your doctor right away if: Vomiting can last for more than 2 days in adults, for 24 hours in children under two, and for 12 hours in newborns. It has been more than a month since you last experienced episodes of nausea and vomiting. You've lost weight without cause, and you've also been sick to your stomach.
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transfer of an infectious agent through a contaminated object or person.
The introduction of an infectious agent through a contaminated intermediate object or person is known as indirect transmission. It is challenging to ascertain how indirect transmission happens in the absence of a point-source outbreak.
However, a wealth of data in the Guideline for Hand Hygiene in Health-Care Settings indicates that contaminated hands of healthcare workers are significant contributors to transmission via indirect contact. Opportunities for transmission via indirect contact include:
If healthcare workers do not wash their hands before touching another patient after touching an infected or colonized body site on one patient or a contaminated inanimate object, they risk spreading germs to that patient.
If patient-care items, such as electronic thermometers and glucose monitors, that have been contaminated with blood or bodily fluids are transferred without being cleaned and disinfected between patients, they may spread pathogens.
Toys that are shared among young patients run the risk of spreading harmful bacteria like Pseudomonas aeruginosa or respiratory viruses like respiratory syncytial virus and.
Inadequately cleansed equipment (such endoscopes or surgical instruments) between patients before disinfection or sterilization, or instruments with manufacturing flaws that hinder the efficiency of reprocessing, may spread bacterial and viral infections.
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Which statements made by a nursing student indicate that the student has an appropriate knowledge base regarding the pregnancy hormone human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)? Select all that apply.1."Maximum level of human chorionic gonadotropin is reached at term."2."Human chorionic gonadotropin is the hormone responsible for a positive pregnancy test."3."Human chorionic gonadotropin may be present as early as 8 to 10 days following conception." 4."Human chorionic gonadotropin is produced by the trophoblastic cells that surround the developing embryo."5."Human chorionic gonadotropin preserves the function of the ovarian corpus luteum so that estrogen and progesterone are produced before placental functioning."
The hormone that causes a positive pregnancy test, human chorionic gonadotropin, can be detectable as young as 8 to 10 weeks after conception, according to a nursing student.
How does pregnancy develop? What is it?The period during which a newborn develops inside of the woman's pregnancy or uterus is known as a pregnancy. When counting beginning with the last menstrual cycle through delivery, a pregnancy typically lasts approximately four to six weeks, or just about 9 months.
What occurs initially when you become pregnant?The onset of mild spotting could be among the early signs of pregnancy. Recurrent bleeding, also referred as embedding, takes place when a fertilized egg attaches to the womb's wall about ten to fourteen before fertilization.
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they are brought to a room and evaluated by the md who requests a glucose check. glucometer reads 456 mg/dl. the md places the following order in the mar: iv ns bolus stat 20 ml/kg over 20 minutes how many ml of ns will be administered iv?
The IV dosage of ns would be 454 ml.
What is a normal saline IV bolus?It's a crystalloid liquid that is injected intravenously. Its indications list both adult and child population as potential causes of electrolyte and hydration problems. It can have different concentrations; the two that are being discussed here are 0.9% and 0.45%.
What does a diabetes glucometer do?The amount of sugar in a blood sample is measured using a small instrument known as a glucose monitor or glucometer. It is frequently sufficient to use a drop of blood from a finger pinch on a testing kit. A april device that rapidly pinch the fingertip or a particular needle (lancet) can be used to pinch a finger.
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antihypertensive medications that stimulate rather than inhibit type 2 and 4 angiotensin ii receptors is
The medications are ARBs, thia-zide diu-retics, and DiC-CBs are generally thought to upregulate angiotensin II production,
Angi-otensin receptor blockers (ARBs), additionally called angi-otensin II receptor antag-onists, are used to deal with excessive blood stress and coronary heart failure. They also are used for persistent kidney disorder and prescribed following a coronary heart attack. They encompass irbesartan, valsartan, losartan and candesartan. ARBs are desired for sufferers who have negative reactions to ACE inhibitors. (SOR A, primarily based totally on a meta-analysis.) ARBs reason much less cough than ACE inhibitors, and sufferers are much less probable to stop ARBs due to negative effects.
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Complete question:
What medications stimulate type 2 and 4 angiotensin II receptors, antihypertensive medications that stimulate rather than inhibit type 2 and 4 angiotensin ii receptors is?
hyperventilation respiratory acidosis or alkalosis
Describe the anatomic position where the nurse should expect to find the fundus at each time period listed below. Drops 1 cm each daya. 1-2 hours after delivery umbilicus
b. 12 hours after delivery one cm above or at level of umbilicus
c. 2 days after delivery two cm below the umbilicus
d. 7 days after delivery descends in level each day until it isn't palpable above the pubis symphysis
Option C: The time period the nurse should expect to find the fundus is 2 days after delivery two cm below the umbilicus.
The anatomic position where the nurse should expect to find the fundus at 2 days after delivery: The nurse should expect to find the fundus two cm below the umbilicus. It will continue to soften and become less palpable. By this time, the uterus should have returned to its non-pregnant size and shape, and the fundus will not be palpable anymore.It's worth noting that these are general guidelines and the location of the fundus may vary depending on the individual client's recovery and healing process. The nurse should also monitor the client for signs of complications such as bleeding, infection, or retained placenta, which can affect the fundus location and the healing process.
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Paper-based medical records still exist; however, they are inefficient, easy to misplace and misfile, and costly to manage, move, and store.
Indicate whether the statement is true or false
The statement is true that Paper-based medical records still exist; however, they are inefficient, easy to misplace and misfile, and costly to manage, move, and store
Paper-based medical records still exist, but they are becoming increasingly inefficient due to the rise of electronic medical records (EMRs). These paper-based records are difficult and time-consuming to manage, move, and store, and they are prone to errors such as misfiling, misplacing, and loss. In addition, paper-based records have limited access and limited use of data.
For instance, physicians in different locations cannot easily access the same patient records, and data analysis is nearly impossible. Furthermore, paper-based records are costly to maintain, as they require extensive storage space and require physical transport for archival.
In contrast, EMRs are far more efficient and convenient, as they offer real-time patient information, provide easy access to data, and can be retrieved and analyzed quickly. As such, paper-based medical records are becoming increasingly obsolete in the modern healthcare system.
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what is the purpose of placing a child in cervical traction after sustaining a fractured cervical vertebra
A number of cervical disorders can be symptomatically treated with cervical traction, a non-invasive treatment. Although it may provide short-term symptom alleviation, there is little information on its long-term safety and therapeutic effectiveness.
The interprofessional team's role in providing care for patients who need cervical traction is highlighted in this activity, which discusses the indications, contraindications, and techniques involved in performing cervical traction.
Hippocrates originally is the mentioned spinal traction as a method of treating kyphosis in the fourth century BC, when it was already a common procedure. Later, it was used for additional spinal disorders such myelopathy and cervical discomfort.
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a 26-year-old cisgender woman with hiv recently moved due to a job relocation and is seen in a new clinic. she informs the medical provider that she completed the hepatitis b vaccine series about 1 year ago. which one of the following serologic patterns represents immunity to hepatitis b that has been acquired through immunization?
The following serologic patterns indicate acquired immunity to hepatitis B from immunization: HBsAg negative, anti-HBc negative, and anti-HBs positive.
One of the most significant obstacles to HIV testing has been recognized as which of the following?Patients generally described cost as the biggest deterrent to getting tested for HIV, followed by uncertainty about where to get specialized care, lack of risk perception, and worry that the results would be embarrassing.
When did the CDC publish its first policy statement urging routine HIV testing across all healthcare settings?Recommendations for routine human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) testing of adults, adolescents, and pregnant women in healthcare settings were released by the CDC in 2006.
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