Correct, to calculate estimated energy needs using the equations developed by the Food and Nutrition Board, one needs information about the individual's height, age, weight, and gender.
This information is used to determine the individual's basal metabolic rate (BMR), which is the amount of energy the body needs to function at rest. The BMR is then adjusted for physical activity level and other factors to estimate the individual's total energy needs. These calculations are used to determine the appropriate calorie intake for an individual based on their physical activity level and other factors.
The Food and Nutrition Board (FNB) of the National Academy of Sciences has developed equations to estimate energy needs based on an individual's age, gender, weight, and height. These equations are used to determine an individual's Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR), which is the amount of energy the body needs to function at rest. The BMR is then adjusted for physical activity level and other factors to estimate the individual's total energy needs.
The Harris-Benedict equation is one of the most widely used equations developed by the FNB to estimate BMR.
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which statements are related to nursing roles and function changes in the health care organization? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
By evaluating the need for change, incorporating changes into educational activities, and employing cooperation, facilitation, and problem-solving abilities to assist the change process, the nursing professional development (NPD) practitioner performs the role of a change facilitator.
There is hierarchical communication between charge nurses, between charge nurses and the team leader, and between the team leader and the team members. alteration requester. the person in charge of coming up with, creating, and submitting a change request. Change the implementor/assignee/owner. the person designated as the CR's owner for the duration of the request lifetime.Approver of changes. The main objective of care management is to increase patient health. Along the way, the strategy hopes to increase patient participation, decrease hospital visits, and enhance care coordination. Software for care management can greatly assist healthcare professionals in achieving such objectives.
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A nurse is reinforcing teaching about home safety with an older adult client. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
One of the very next client statements demonstrates an awareness of the instruction: "According to the stated statement, I should engage in supervised exercise program."
What does a nurse do?A nurse's main responsibility is to take care of patients by attending to their physical requirements, avoiding disease, and treating medical disorders. Nurses must watch and monitor while documenting any pertinent data to support therapeutic decision-making.
What, in plain terms, is a nurse?A professional with specialized training in providing care for the sick and disabled is referred to as a nurse. Nurses work together with doctors and other medical professionals to seek treatment and keep clients healthy and active.
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the primary reason that telehealth is now available for learners when it was not allowed in the past ____
The primary reason that telehealth is now available for learners when it was not allowed in the past is due to the COVID-19 pandemic and the need for social distancing.
How does telehealth compare to in-person learning in terms of effectiveness and outcomes?Telehealth and in-person learning both have their own advantages and disadvantages when it comes to effectiveness and outcomes. Telehealth allows for greater flexibility and accessibility, particularly for learners who live in remote or underserved areas. It also allows for continuity of care and education during times of crisis or quarantine. However, it may lack the personal interactions and hands-on experiences that in-person learning provides. Studies have shown that telehealth can be just as effective as in-person learning for certain types of care and education, but more research is needed to fully understand its impact. Ultimately, the choice between telehealth and in-person learning should be based on the specific needs and preferences of the learners and the type of education or care being provided.
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Overweight mothers have a greater risk of having high blood sugar levels. This can lead to all of the following EXCEPT:
high blood pressure.
preeclampsia.
still birth.
gestational diabetes.
Mothers who are overweight are more likely to have high sugar levels. All of the following, excluding elevated blood pressure, can result from this.
How high should blood pressure be?
What are the usual readings for blood pressure? A blood pressure of less then 120/80 mmHg is considered normal. No of your age, you may make a daily effort to maintain a healthy blood pressure range.
When is the blood pressure at its maximum during the day?
There is a daily rhythm to blood pressure. Typically, a person's blood pressure begins to increase a few minutes before they awaken. It keeps rising throughout the day, reaching its peak at noon. Typically, in the mid evening and early evening, blood pressure declines.
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Which of the following statements BEST describes DNA?
A.
DNA are the same as genes.
B.
All living things contain DNA.
C.
There are three bases that compose DNA.
D.
Billions of people in the world have the same genetic code.
Answer:
all living things contain DNA
Explanation:
Answer: All living things contain DNA. (B)
Explanation: took the test
The term cirrhosis, obstructive jaundice, and acute viral hepatitis describe physiological conditions in which organ system
This may happen if you have disorders that impair liver function or liver damage. Hepatic jaundice is frequently brought on by liver cirrhosis.
Hepatic jaundice: what causes it?
Hemolytic anaemia, which results in an excessive amount of heme breakdown, is the most frequent cause of pre-hepatic jaundice. When the extrahepatic biliary route between the liver & duodenum is partially or completely blocked, post-hepatic jaundice, also known as obstructive jaundice, results.
What causes hepatic jaundice to worsen?
Unconjugated & conjugated bilirubin levels can both increase due to hepatic phase impairment. Higher bilirubin synthesis, increased re-absorption of urobilinogen from of the colon, or slower hepatic clearance or urobilinogen can all lead to increased urine excretion of the substance.
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Patients who are not breathing on their own and need to have long-term ventilatory support will often have a ____________ for insertion of a breathing tube
Patients who are not breathing on their own and need to have long-term ventilatory support will often have a tracheostomy for insertion of a breathing tube.
A tracheostomy is a hole made in the front of the neck to allow a tube to be placed into the windpipe (trachea) to assist breathing. The tube can be attached to an oxygen supply and a breathing machine called a ventilator if necessary.
So let's get started. As a general rule, a breathing tube or an endotracheal tube will normally stay in your loved one's throat or larynx for no more than two weeks, unless there are specific and rare conditions.
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Research on health, disease and longevity clearly shows that individuals who eat a diet of predominately plant foods have better long-term health outcomes than those who eat a diet heavy in animal products.T/F
Health, disease, and longevity research clearly reveals that people who consume a diet high in plant foods had better long-term health results than people who eat a diet high in animal products. True.
What specific plant foods have been shown to have the greatest impact on long-term health outcomes?
There are several plant foods that have been shown to have a significant impact on long-term health outcomes. Some of the most notable include:
Leafy green vegetables: These are a great source of vitamins, minerals, and antioxidants, which can help to protect against chronic diseases such as cancer and heart disease.
Berries: Berries are high in antioxidants and anti-inflammatory compounds, which can help to protect against cancer and other chronic diseases.
Whole grains: Whole grains are a great source of fiber, vitamins, and minerals, which can help to reduce the risk of heart disease and diabetes.
Legumes: Legumes, such as beans, peas, and lentils, are a great source of protein, fiber, and other essential nutrients, and have been shown to help lower cholesterol and blood sugar levels.
Nuts and seeds: These are a great source of healthy fats, protein, and antioxidants, which can help to protect against heart disease and other chronic diseases.
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The main roll of a health and accident and disability insurance is to
Answer:
The main roll of a health and accident and disability insurance is to help pay and protect people who was in an accident that can not financially pay for due to said injury, illness, or disability.
Explanation:
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According to the proximodistal growth pattern, which of the following is likely to show growth earlier? a. toes b. fingers
c. fine motor skills d. gross motor skills
According to the proximodistal growth pattern, brain is likely to grow sooner.
The extremities of the body are more likely to grow first, according to the proximodistal growth pattern.
According to the proximodistal principle, development occurs from the center of the body outward. The trunk of the body grows before the extremities of the arms and legs according to this principle. The proximodistal principle also governs the development of the ability to use various parts of the body.
Proximodistal development is the progression of motor development from an organism's center to its periphery. A child learning to move her shoulders before learning to control fine finger movement is a classic example.
Adjective. proximodistal (not comparable) (not comparable) (anatomy) A line that extends from the center of the body to the distal ends of appendages. (anatomy) A path that extends from the center of a local structure to its distal ends.
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In which of the following does the nature of learning involve a neutral stimulus becoming a conditioned stimulus (CS) through its association with an unconditioned stimulus (US)?
a. classical conditioning
b. operant conditioning
c. cognitive learning
d. instrumental learning
three softball players discussed their batting averages after a game. probability player 1 six tenths player 2 five ninths player 3 four sevenths compare the probabilities and interpret the likelihood. which statement is true? player 1 is more likely to hit the ball than player 2 because p(player 1) > p(player 2) player 2 is more likely to hit the ball than player 1 because p(player 2) > p(player 1) player 3 is more likely to hit the ball than player 1 because p(player 3) > p(player 1) player 2 is more likely to hit the ball than player 3 because p(player 2) > p(player 3) question 2(multiple choice worth 2 points) (likelihood mc) the dog shelter has labradors, terriers, and golden retrievers available for adoption. if p(terriers)
The first statement is true: player 1 is more likely to hit the ball than player 2 because p(player 1) > p(player 2).
Are Labradors very smart?Coren polled over 200 professional dog obedience judges, asking them to rank 110 dog breeds according to their intelligence. In general, he says, poodles, retrievers, Labradors and shepherds are the most intelligent dogs, able to learn as many as 250 words, signs and signals.
Is it hard Owning a Labrador?Labradors make perfect family pets, given the right socialisation, as with all breeds. They bond well with the whole family and are affectionate and loving. Their patient nature makes them ideal for children. Grooming is very simple, with a weekly brush usually enough to keep the coat in tip-top condition.
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A network's physical topology refers to the arrangement of the cabling and how the devices connect to each other. A point-to-point topology is typically used for WAN connections or wireless bridges. A network's logical topology often depends on the central device's electronics.
So that a network's network structure pertains to the configuration of the cable and the connections between the devices, all claims are valid. WAN links or wireless bridges often use a point-to-point architecture.
Can you define a rational person?A rational person speaks clearly so that others who are listening may understand what they are hearing and assess the veracity of what they are hearing. He is sure to clarify his specific interpretation of any more abstract concepts, such "freedom" or "equality," if he uses them.
Is logic a good thing?Because it may assist you in making critical decisions, resolving issues, coming up with innovative solutions, and setting goals—all of which are essential for advancing your career—logical thinking is significant.
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which of erikson's psychosocial stages of development refers to the conflict of creating an identity separate from one's parents?
Dr. Estevez prepares a set of questions to ask college students about their drinking behavior and their attitudes toward alcohol. Dr. Estevez is undertaking a(n):
A. survey research.
B. case study.
C. naturalistic observation.
D. archival research.
Dr. Estevez prepares a set of questions to ask college students about their drinking behavior and their attitudes toward alcohol. Dr. Estevez is undertaking a survey research.
Alcohol use definitely has a significant impact on social behaviours, such as increased hostility, self-disclosure, sexual adventuresomeness, and many others. According to research, these effects can be attributed to our perceptions about the effects of alcohol. Less is known about the effects of alcohol on these behaviour.
A cognitive explanation has begun to emerge, namely that alcohol hinders the information processing required to suppress reaction impulses—the capacity to predict negative implications of the response, to recall blocking norms, and so on. Alcohol's harm to inhibitory processing gives initiating pressures more control over the reaction, enhancing its ferocity. Each published test of alcohol's influence on a social or socially relevant conduct was graded (validated against independent judges) to determine whether it was under a high or low inhibitory conflict in the current meta-analysis.
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a health history evaluation or questionnaire is most likely completed in the following circumstance: ___
In order to uncover important risk variables for the person before workers begin laboratory work.
What role does health play?Your lifestyle should include a commitment to good health. A wellness can aid in the prevention of chronic diseases and debilitating conditions. Your self-esteem , self-image depend on how you feel about yourself and how well you take care of your physical and mental well-being. Keeping a healthy lifestyle means getting good care of your body.
Who made health possible?The individual who is credited with inventing medicine is Hippocrates. Even the Hippocratic Corpus, a compendium of some 70 medical books, was authored by him. Hippocrates is regarded as the founder the modern medicine by many historians.
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__________ is a type of disorder in which an individual may have a partial or complete loss of physical function that does not have a medical explanation.
Choose matching definition
O somatization disorder
O have become comfortable with using their illness to avoid challenges
O Conversion disorder
O the symptoms are difficult to differentiate, depending on the mental disorder
Answer: A {Somatization Disorder}
Explanation:
Somatization is a type of disorder in which an individual may have a partial or complete loss of physical function that does not have a medical explanation.
People might very well overestimate the likelihood for celebrity marriages to end in divorce, since celebrity divorces tend to be highly publicized. The overestimation could be explained in terms of (1%) A the representativeness heuristic. B. information overload C. the availability heuristic. D. the anchoring and adjustment heuristic.
Given that celebrity divorces are frequently covered in the media, people may grossly overestimate likelihood that celebrity marriages would result in divorce.
Heuristic thinking definition?Intuitions are mental short cuts that can make it easier to solve problems and make probabilistic decisions. These generalisations, or rules-of-thumb, lessen cognitive strain and can be useful for making snap judgements, but they frequently lead to illogical or incorrect conclusions.
Which three sorts of heuristics are there?The 3 heuristics that attracted the greatest attention were representativeness, anchoring and adjustment, and availability. The availability heuristic refers to the tendency to estimate the probability of an event based on how fast examples of it come to mind.
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the most immediate treatment to prevent placental hypoperfusion in a pregnant woman who is lying on her back is to:
Placing a pregnant lady in a left lateral recumbent position is the fastest way to prevent placental hypoperfusion.
Blood flow to the growing fetus is decreased by a poor placental perfusion. Premature birth, prenatal growth restriction, and placental abruption are all examples of fetal difficulties. Placental hypoperfusion is a dangerous pathological condition that affects fetuses and their offspring's growth and development and can result in a variety of unfavorable clinical outcomes, including growth restriction, low birth weight, and preterm labor.
Early prenatal care will help to ensure the mother's health as much as possible during the pregnancy. The growth of the child can be hampered by smoking, drinking, and other recreational drugs. By avoiding these medications, you may be able to avoid pregnancy issues including placental insufficiency.
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bro how do i write this essay Long Text (essay)
To answer the question: "Why do people obey?" research and define the difference between obedience and conformity. Next, research and report on the Milgram experiments, including how they were conducted, the results, the controversy, and what we can learn from them.
Which stages of Kohlberg's stages of moral reasoning do the different test subjects correlate with (that is, those who kept administering the shocks, those who questioned it, and those who refused)?
How can Milgram’s experiment and Kohlberg’s stages of moral reasoning be applied to various events throughout world history?
Consider current events in which authority figures have used their influence to cause harm to nations, ethnicities, and/or entire groups of people.
What are the overall implications of society reaching Postconventional Stages wherein people are driven by ethics rather than laws?
The essay on Why do people obey?" as well as the difference between obedience and conformity. is given below
Why do people obey?"The question of why people obey is a complex one that has been studied by many researchers in the fields of psychology and sociology. One way to approach this question is to examine the difference between obedience and conformity, as well as the factors that influence these behaviors. Additionally, examining the Milgram experiments and their results can provide insight into why people obey, as well as the moral reasoning that underlies this behavior.
Obedience and conformity are both forms of social influence, but they differ in important ways. Obedience refers to a change in behavior that is a result of direct commands or orders from an authority figure. Conformity, on the other hand, refers to a change in behavior that is a result of the individual's desire to fit in with the group.
Therefore, the Milgram experiments, which were conducted in the 1960s, were designed to study obedience to authority. The experiments were conducted by Stanley Milgram, a psychologist at Yale University, and involved participants administering electric shocks to a "learner" (who was actually an actor) when they answered questions incorrectly. The results of the experiments revealed that the majority of participants were willing to obey the authority figure and administer the shocks, even when they were causing the "learner" distress.
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in multi-cultural groups, therapists must address the clinical factor of universality by doing which of the following?
In multi-cultural groups, therapists must address the clinical factor of universality by appreciating diversity in all forms.
The contesting of the culturally enclosed understanding of a group's organization, objectives, methods, and practices analyzing ourselves as social and cultural beings taking on unconventional roles
According to DeLucia-Waack (1996), the multicultural context of group work necessitates attention to two tasks:
1) adapting group work theories and techniques to different cultures in a way that is consistent with cultural beliefs and behaviors; and
2) developing a theory and practice of group work that fully utilizes member diversity as a means of promoting change and growth.
Group counsellors must be willing and able to dispute the culturally enclosed view of a group's structure, aims, procedures, and practices in addition to having a thorough awareness of the spectrum of cultural similarities and variances among their clients.
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The complete question is:
in multi-cultural groups, therapists must address the clinical factor of universality by doing which of the following?
1. Assist group members in learning about the cultural differences.
2. Minimize the cultural differences within the group.
3. Help the group move past a focus on concrete cultural differences to transcultural human responses to situations.
4. The therapist should do nothing as that would be interfering in the group process.
Do you think that weight training helps with social development?
Answer:
It can help with social development. As you gain more muscles, you become more confident in yourself. That leads you to talk to more people.
Explanation:
:)
the dri for sodium for healthy people is set at select but select is the adequate intake for adults.
a. true
b. false
For most adults, the American Heart Association advises limiting sodium intake to no more than 2,300 milligrams (mg) per day, with optimum limits of no more than 1,500 mg per day.
The majority of the salt consumed in many high-income nations comes from processed foods and meals served outside the home, accounting for around 75% of total salt consumption. The majority of sodium consumption in many low- and middle-income nations comes from salt applied at home in cooking and at the table, as well as from condiments like fish sauce and soy sauce. When there isn't enough information to determine the average need, a dietary suggestion is employed. A population's demands are thought to be met by the daily average nutrient consumption of a typical healthy population. This quantity is known as an appropriate intake.
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tolerable upper intake levels (ul) for nutrients are the result of increased use of large doses of supplements and the increased availability of fortified foods.
Because more people are taking supplements in high dosages and because fortified foods are more widely available, it is necessary to establish Tolerable Upper Input Levels (UL) for certain nutrients.
What are fortified foods?
Overview. With little risk to health, fortification is the deliberate addition of one or even more micronutrients (such as vitamins and minerals) to a food or condiment in order to enhance the nutritional value of the food supply and benefit the general public.
An illustration of fortified food?
a food that provides additional nutrients or nutrients that are not ordinarily present. Examples include salt having iodine added and milk with extra vitamin D.
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When out at a popular restaurant, Cara looks over the menu to see that every plate comes with some type of
carbohydrate. Cara knows that it's not wrong to have grains but that her choice of grains matters. To stick with her
health goals, which would be Cara's BEST choice?
Cara's best choice for sticking with her health goals would likely be to choose a whole grain option over a refined grain option. Whole grains, such as quinoa, brown rice, or whole wheat bread, are a better choice because they contain all parts of the grain, including the bran, germ, and endosperm. This means they have more fiber, vitamins, and minerals than refined grains, which have had the bran and germ removed. Whole grains have been linked with a lower risk of heart disease, diabetes, and certain cancers, as well as improved digestion and weight management.
the patients intestinal obstruction was most likely caused by scar tissue from ________, a chronic inflammation, usually affecting the ileum and characterized by cobblestone ulcerations along the intestine wall
The patients intestinal obstruction was most likely caused by scar tissue from Crohn disease a chronic inflammation, usually affecting the ileum and characterized by cobblestone ulcerations along the intestine wall.
Crohn's disorder can be categorized as inflammatory bowel sickness (IBD). It results in the swelling of the tissues (inflammation) of the digestive tract, which could result in following problems like abdominal aches, intense diarrhea, fatigue, weight loss, and malnutrition. Crohn's disease affects adults as wells as the children. Crohn's disorder also referred to as local enteritis or ileitis, it is a lifelong shape of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). The circumstance results in inflammation and irritation the digestive tract — particularly both the intestines: small and huge intestines. Crohn's disease can result in diarrhea and belly cramps.
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Which of the following explains why you are not constantly aware of the pressure of your wristwatch on your arm or your shoes on your feet?
a. Sensory adaptation.
b. Sensory gating.
c. Sensory conflict.
d. Perceptual localization.
Because of sensory adaptation, you are not always conscious of the stress of your shoes or wristwatch on your arm.
What types of sensory adaptations are there?Your pupils expand to allow for more light when you enter a dark room or go outside at night, which helps your eyes finally get used to the darkness. Your eyes become accustomed to bright light in a similar way to just how your pupils contract while you are in it.
Which two kinds of sensory adaptation are there?Dark adaption and light adaptation pertain to the sense of sight when it comes to sensory adaptation. Dark adaptation describes alterations in the receptors' sensitivity in response to less intense light. Three modifications in the visual system represent the three stages of the dark adaption process.
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When a definitive diagnosis has been established, codes such as pain and fever or not coded
When a diagnosis has not been established (confirmed) by the provider, codes that describe symptoms and signs, rather than diagnoses, are appropriate for reporting purposes."
When the practitioner has not established a linked, definitive (confirmed) diagnosis, the rules say that codes describing symptoms and indications are appropriate for reporting purposes.
When a procedure is not finished, use the -52 modifier to bill the CPT code for that service (reduced services). This informs the payer that only a fraction of the work RVUs were done, and that full payment may not be justified.
There is no time limit for using a sequela code. The residue may be seen right away, as in a cerebral infarction, or it may appear months or years later, as in a stroke.
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Which of the following is the best initial treatment for a person with moderate to severe depression?
A)drug therapy exclusively
B)electroconvulsive therapy
C)psychoanalysis and amphetamines
D)drug therapy combined with psychotherapy
Drug therapy in conjunction with psychotherapy is the best initial course of treatment for someone with moderate to severe depression.
Patients with mild, moderate, or severe major depressive disorder may begin treatment with antidepressant medication.
The most efficient way to encourage recovery is through a combination of medication and psychotherapy.
Choosing an antidepressant — SNRTIs or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors are used as the first line of treatment for severe unipolar major depression (SSRIs). According to studies, cognitive therapy is just as effective as antidepressants and interpersonal or psychodynamic therapy in treating depression. It has been demonstrated that the combination of cognitive therapy and antidepressants is an effective treatment for severe or persistent depression.
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Subjects in the low-carb diet group lost significantly more weight than subjects in the low-fat diet group during the first six months. At the end of a year, however, the average weight loss for subjects in the two groups was not significantly different. (a) Why did researchers randomly assign the subjects to the diet treatments? (b) Explain to someone who knows little statistics what "lost significantly more weight" means. (c) The subjects in the low-carb diet group lost an average of 5.1kg in a year. The subjects in the low-fat diet group lost an average of 3.1kg Explain how this information could be consistent with the fact that weight loss in the two groups was not significantly different.
Within the first six months, participants in the low-carb diet lost noticeably more weight than those in the reduced diet group.
What should a low-carb diet avoid?Bread, pasta, potato, and other root foods, grains like rice and corn, oats, beans, and lentils, milk, honey, sweets like cookies, candies, & desserts, beer, wine, and carb grams fruit like bananas, grape, and apples should all be avoided when following a low-carb diet.
Is keto better than low-carb?Most people might find the keto diet to be too restricted, which would result in poor long-term adherence. Additionally, the ketogenic diet is much more likely to result in adverse consequences ( 13 ). Therefore, for the majority of people, a low-carb diet is probably a superior choice.
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