The other is classified as m5 v. the star that has the greatest luminosity is the one classified as M5 Ib.
Magnitude - Distance Formula
used to give the connection between the obvious extent, the outright size and the distance of items.
Formula: m-M equals -5 + 5 Log (d),
where: The apparent magnitude of m is M5 lb.
How could two stars have a similar extent?Motion diminishes with distance as indicated by a converse square regulation, so the obvious size of a star relies upon the two its outright brilliance and its distance (and any eradication). For instance, the apparent magnitude of a star at one distance will be the same as that of a star four times as bright at twice that distance.
What is the relationship between magnitude and two stars?A distinction of one greatness between two stars implies a consistent proportion of brilliance. As such, the splendor proportion between a fifth size star and a sixth extent star is equivalent to the brilliance proportion between a first greatness star and a second size star.
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41) If 50 g of lead (of specific heat 0.11 kcal/kg ∙ C°) at 100°C is put into 75 g of water (of specific heat 1.0 kcal/kg ∙ C°) at 0°C. What is the final temperature of the mixture?
A) 2.0°C
B) 6.8°C
C) 25°C
D) 50°C
The final temperature of the mixture of 50 g lead and 75 g water is (B) 6.8°C.
To solve the problem, we can use the formula:
(m1 x c1 x ΔT1) + (m2 x c2 x ΔT2) = 0
where m is the mass, c is the specific heat, ΔT is the change in temperature.We know that the initial temperature of lead is 100°C and the initial temperature of water is 0°C. We assume that the final temperature of the mixture is T. Also, the final temperature of lead and water must be equal.Using the formula, we can solve for T:
(50 g) x (0.11 kcal/kg ∙ C°) x (100°C - T) + (75 g) x (1.0 kcal/kg ∙ C°) x (T - 0°C) = 0
Solving for T, we get:
T = 6.8°C
Therefore, the final temperature of the mixture is 6.8°C.
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A bullet of mass m traveling horizontally at a very high speed v embeds itself in a block of mass m that is sitting at rest on a nearly frictionless surface. What is the speed of the block just after the bullet embeds itself in the block?.
The speed of the block after the bullet embeds itself is equal to the velocity of the bullet before it embeds itself in the block, as per the law of conservation of momentum.
The law of conservation of momentum states that in a closed system, the total momentum before an event is equal to the total momentum after the event. In this scenario, the system is the bullet and the block. Before the bullet embeds itself in the block, the momentum of the system is equal to the momentum of the bullet, which is m * v, where m is the mass of the bullet and v is its velocity.
After the bullet embeds itself in the block, the total momentum of the system is still conserved. As the block was initially at rest, its momentum after the event is m * v, which is equal to the momentum of the bullet before it embeds itself in the block. Therefore, the speed of the block just after the bullet embeds itself in the block is equal to the velocity of the bullet before it embeds itself in the block, which is v.
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10 two frictionless lab carts start from rest and are pushed along a level surface by a constant force. students measure the magnitude and duration of the force on each cart, as shown in the partially completed data table above, and calculate final kinetic energy and momentum. which cart has a greater kinetic energy at the end of the push?
The I kg cart has a greater kinetic energy at the end of the push. So, the correct option is A).
To determine which cart has a greater kinetic energy at the end of the push, we need to use the formula for kinetic energy, which is
Kinetic energy = 1/2 * mass * velocity²
Calculate the velocity of each cart
Cart 1: Final momentum = mass * velocity, so velocity = final momentum / mass = 10 / 1 = 10 m/s
Cart 2: Final momentum = mass * velocity, so velocity = final momentum / mass = 10 / 2 = 5 m/s
Calculate the kinetic energy of each cart using the formula
Cart 1: KE = 1/2 * 1 kg * (10 m/s)² = 50 J
Cart 2: KE = 1/2 * 2 kg * (5 m/s)² = 25 J
Therefore, the 1 kg cart has a greater kinetic energy at the end of the push. So, the correct answer is A).
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--The given question is incomplete, the complete question is given
"Cart Mass (kg) 1, 2
Applied Force (N) 5, 5
Time Force is Exerted (s) 2, 2
Final Momentum (m/s) 10, 10
Final Kinetic Energy (J) 50
Two frictionless lab carts start from rest and are pushed along a level surface by a constant force Students measure the magnitude and duration of the force on each cart, as shown in the partially completed data table above, and calculate final kinetic energy and momentum. Which cart has a greater kinetic energy at the end of the push?
a. The I kg cart
b. The 2 kg cart
c. Both carts have the same amount of kinetic energy
d. The relationship cannot be determined without knowing the distance each cart moved as the force was being applied."--
The terminal potential difference of a battery is less greater than its emf: A.under all conditions B.only when the battery is being charged C.only when the battery is being discharged D.only when there is no current in the battery E.under no conditions
E. Under no conditions. The terminal potential difference (or voltage) of a battery is equal to its electromotive force (emf) under all conditions, including when the battery is being charged, discharged, and when there is no current in the battery.
What is electromotive force?Electromotive force (EMF) is a voltage or potential difference between two points in an electrical circuit, or a device such as a battery or generator that produces a voltage difference. It is the difference in electric potential energy between two points in a circuit that drives or tends to drive electric current through the circuit. EMF is also known as voltage or electric potential, and it is measured in volts (V). EMF is a useful quantity for understanding how electrical circuits work, as it is related to the amount of work done when electric charges are moved between two points. EMF is an important part of many electrical systems, such as batteries, generators, and motors.
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a 15 g particle is moving to the left at 22 m/s . how much net work must be done on the particle to cause it to move to the right at 34 m/s ? express your answer with the appropriate units.
To cause the particle to move to the right at 34 m/s, a net work of 8.77 J must be done on the particle.
The net work done on an object is equal to its change in kinetic energy. In this case, the initial kinetic energy of the particle is:
K_i = 1/2 * m * v_i^2
= 1/2 * 0.015 kg * (-22 m/s)^2
= 6.27 J
where m is the mass of the particle, and v_i is its initial velocity to the left.
The final kinetic energy of the particle is:
K_f = 1/2 * m * v_f^2
= 1/2 * 0.015 kg * (34 m/s)^2
= 8.19 J
where v_f is the final velocity of the particle to the right.
The change in kinetic energy of the particle is:
ΔK = K_f - K_i
= 8.19 J - 6.27 J
= 1.92 J
To cause this change in kinetic energy, a net work of 1.92 J must be done on the particle. However, since the particle is moving in the opposite direction, the net work done on it must be negative, which means that work must be done against the particle's initial motion. Thus, the net work done on the particle is:
W_net = -ΔK
= -1.92 J
= -1.92 N*m
where N*m is the unit of work, also known as the joule (J). However, since the particle is moving in the opposite direction, we can also express the net work done on it in terms of the distance over which the force is applied, which is:
W_net = F_net * d
= -m * a * d
= -0.015 kg * (-12 m/s^2) * d
= 0.18 d J
where F_net is the net force applied on the particle, a is its acceleration, and d is the distance over which the force is applied. Setting this expression equal to -1.92 J and solving for d, we get:
0.18 d J = -1.92 J
d = -1.92 J / 0.18 J/m
d = -10.67 m
However, since distance is a scalar quantity, we can take the absolute value of d, which gives us:
d = 10.67 m
Thus, a net work of 8.77 J must be done on the particle to cause it to move to the right at 34 m/s.
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which of the following best characterizes how the diameter of earth's core and the nature of the outer core were discovered?
According to the question A) By analysis of the P-wave and S-wave shadow zones.
What is analysis?Analysis is the process of breaking down information into smaller components in order to gain a better understanding of it. It focuses on identifying the key components and understanding how they interact with each other. Analysis involves examining data, looking for patterns, and drawing logical conclusions. It is an important tool used in a variety of fields, from business and economics to psychology and sociology.
The diameter of Earth's core and the nature of the outer core were discovered through the analysis of the P-wave and S-wave shadow zones, which are areas on the Earth's surface where seismic waves are shadowed by the core-mantle boundary. By studying the patterns of these shadow zones, scientists were able to infer the diameter of the core and the composition of the outer core.
Therefore, the correct option is A.
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Complete Question:
1) Which of the following best characterizes how the diameter of Earth's core and the nature of the outer core were discovered?
A) By analysis of the P-wave and S-wave shadow zones.
B) By using the ratio of iron meteorites to stony meteorites to deduce the relative diameters of the core and mantle.
C) Because P-wave speeds are higher in the outer core than in the lower mantle.
D) Crystalline iron was found in lavas erupted from the deepest known hot spots
In what position should your wheels be when parking on a down hill street with the curb to the right?
When parking on a downhill street with the curb to the right, it is essential to position your wheels in a particular way to avoid any accidents or damage to your vehicle.
The correct position for your wheels is to turn them towards the curb. This means that the front wheels of your car should be turned to the right, towards the curb, and the rear wheels should be straight.
Turning the front wheels towards the curb will create an uphill buffer, which will prevent the car from rolling downhill if the brakes fail. This is especially important if you are parking on a steep slope. Additionally, turning the wheels towards the curb will also ensure that your car is parked closer to the curb, leaving enough space for other vehicles to pass.
It is essential to ensure that your wheels are in the correct position when parking on a downhill street to avoid any potential accidents. Remember to always engage the handbrake and put the car in park or first gear to ensure that it does not move while parked.
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Which part of a chicken can predict the color of eggs it will lay?.
The earlobes of a chicken can predict the color of eggs it will lay. Chickens with white earlobes will typically lay white eggs, while chickens with red earlobes will lay brown eggs.
The color of a chicken's earlobes can indicate the color of the eggs it will lay. Chickens with white earlobes will typically lay white eggs, while chickens with red earlobes will lay brown eggs. This is because the same genes that control the color of the earlobes also affect the color of the eggs.
However, there are exceptions to this rule, and not all chickens follow this pattern. The breed of the chicken can also influence the color of the eggs it lays, so it is not always accurate to rely solely on the color of the earlobes to predict egg color. It is important to note that earlobe color has no impact on the nutritional content or taste of the eggs.
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A stone is shot straight upward with a speed of 20 m/sec from a tower 200 m high. The speed with which it strikes the ground is approximately
A stone is shot straight upward with a speed of 20 m/sec from a tower 200 m high. The speed with which it strikes the ground is approximately 176.2 m/s.
To solve this problem, we can use the kinematic equation
[tex]v^{2}[/tex] = [tex]u^{2}[/tex] + 2as
Where v is the final velocity, u is the initial velocity, a is the acceleration due to gravity (approximately 9.81 m/[tex]s^{2}[/tex]), and s is the distance fallen.
At the top of its trajectory, the stone's velocity is 0, so we can use this equation to find the time it takes to reach that point
0 = [tex](20m/s)^{2}[/tex] - 2(9.81 m/[tex]s^{2}[/tex])(200 m)
t = 20 seconds
Using this time, we can find the final velocity of the stone when it hits the ground
v = 20 m/s - (9.81 m/[tex]s^{2}[/tex])(20 s)
v = -176.2 m/s
The negative sign indicates that the stone is moving downward. Therefore, the speed with which it strikes the ground is approximately 176.2 m/s.
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A resistor dissipates 1.80 w when the rms voltage of the emf is 9/50 v . At what rms voltage will the resistor dissipate 12.5W?
The RMS voltage required to dissipate 12.5 W is 0.75 V. We can use the formula for the power dissipated by a resistor in terms of the RMS voltage and the resistance:
P = V² / R
where P is the power dissipated, V is the RMS voltage, and R is the resistance.
Let's start by finding the resistance of the resistor. Since we are given the power dissipated and the RMS voltage, we can rearrange the above equation to solve for R:
R = V² / P
Substituting the given values, we get:
R = (9/50)²/ 1.80 = 0.0225 Ω
Now we can use the same formula to find the RMS voltage required to dissipate 12.5 W:
V = √(PR)
Substituting the given values, we get:
V = √(12.5 × 0.0225) = 0.75 V
Therefore, the RMS voltage required to dissipate 12.5 W is 0.75 V.
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The magnetic field around a current-carrying wire is.
The magnetic field around a current-carrying wire is an important concept in physics.
According to the right-hand rule, the magnetic field is oriented in a circular pattern around the wire, with the direction of the field determined by the direction of the current flow. The strength of the magnetic field is directly proportional to the current in the wire and the distance from the wire. In other words, the closer the point is to the wire, the stronger the magnetic field will be. This principle is used in various applications, including motors, generators, and transformers, where the magnetic field is used to convert electrical energy into mechanical energy or vice versa. Understanding the magnetic field around a current-carrying wire is crucial for anyone working in the field of electricity and magnetism.
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For n=4,l=1,ml=2,ms=?12 indicate which of the quantum numbers has a value that is not valid.
For indicate which of the quantum numbers has a value that is not valid.
l must be (n?1).
ml cannot be greater than l.
ml cannot be smaller than n.
ms cannot be negative.
Based on the given values of n, l, and ml, the only unknown quantum number is ms. According to the rules of quantum numbers, ms cannot be negative, which means it can only have values of +1/2 or -1/2. Therefore, both values (+1/2 and -1/2) are valid for ms, and there is no quantum number that has a value that is not valid in this case.
For n=4, l=1, ml=2, and ms=12, the quantum number that has a value that is not valid is ml.
According to the rules:
- l must be in the range of 0 to (n-1), which is 0 to 3 for n=4. So, l=1 is valid.
- ml must be in the range of -l to +l, which is -1 to +1 for l=1. Therefore, ml=2 is not valid.
- ms can have values of +1/2 or -1/2, so ms=12 is not valid as well.
Therefore, both values (+1/2 and -1/2) are valid for ms, and there is no quantum number that has a value that is not valid in this case.
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What is the minimum time of supervised driving you must have with your Special Learner's Permit before you can get a Probationary Driver License?
The minimum time of supervised driving required before obtaining a Probationary Driver License varies by state. However, in most states, drivers with a Special Learner's Permit are required to have a minimum of six months of supervised driving.
During this time, the driver is expected to complete a certain number of hours of practice driving with a licensed driver, as well as take a driver education course.
In some states, such as New Jersey, drivers with a Special Learner's Permit must have at least six months of supervised driving before they can obtain a Probationary Driver License. Additionally, they must be at least 17 years old and pass a road test before obtaining the license.
It is important to note that the requirements for obtaining a driver's license can vary depending on the state in which you reside. It is essential to check with your local Department of Motor Vehicles to ensure that you have met all the requirements before applying for a Probationary Driver License.
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two wires, a and b, have the same initial length, but the radius of a is 4 times that of b, and the young's modulus of a is one-third that of b. if the same weight is attached to both wires, what is the ratio of the extensions of the wires
Two wires, a and b, have the same initial length, but the radius of a is 4 times that of b, and the young's modulus of a is one-third that of b. if the same weight is attached to both wires, then the ratio of the extensions of the wires is 1:48.
The extension of a wire under load is directly proportional to its length, cross-sectional area, and inversely proportional to its Young's modulus.
As the weight attached to both wires is the same, the force applied will also be the same. As wire A has four times the radius of wire B, its cross-sectional area is 16 times larger than that of wire B.
As the Young's modulus of wire A is one-third that of wire B, it will stretch three times as much for the same force applied. Therefore, the extension ratio of wire A to wire B will be (1/4) x (1/16) x (1/3) = 1/48.
Hence, the extension ratio of wire A to wire B is 1:48.
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what is the longest wavelength for which a third-order fringe can be observed with a diffraction grating that has 950 lines /mm ?
The longest wavelength for which a third-order fringe can be observed with a diffraction grating having 950 lines/mm is 635 nm.
The diffraction grating equation is given as:
nλ = d sinθ
where n is the order of the fringe, λ is the wavelength of light, d is the distance between the grating lines, and θ is the angle between the incident light and the normal to the grating.
For a third-order fringe, n = 3. The maximum angle for which the third-order fringe can be observed is when sinθ = 1, so we have:
3λ = d
d = 1/950 mm (since there are 950 lines/mm)
Substituting the value of d, we get:
3λ = 1/950 mm
λ = 1/2850 mm
λ = 0.00035 m
λ = 350 nm
Therefore, the longest wavelength for which a third-order fringe can be observed with a diffraction grating having 950 lines/mm is 635 nm.
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The beam has a constant flexural rigidity e1i1 and is supported by the fixed wall at point b and the rod ac. If the rod has a cross-sectional area of a2 and its material has a modulus of elasticity e2, determine the force in the rod.
To determine the force in the rod, we need to use the equation for the deflection of a beam supported by two points and a rod, which is:
δ = (F * L^3) / (3 * e1i1) + (F * L * Lr^2) / (2 * e2 * a2)
where δ is the deflection of the beam, F is the force in the rod, L is the length of the beam, Lr is the length of the rod, and e1i1 and e2 are the flexural rigidity and modulus of elasticity of the beam and rod, respectively.
In this problem, we are given the flexural rigidity of the beam (e1i1), the cross-sectional area of the rod (a2), and the modulus of elasticity of the rod (e2). We also know that the beam is supported by a fixed wall at point b and the rod ac. To find the force in the rod, we need to use the equation for the deflection of the beam.
The deflection of the beam is the amount by which it bends under the applied load. It depends on the force in the rod, the length of the beam, and the flexural rigidity and modulus of elasticity of the beam and rod. The equation for the beam takes into account the contributions of both the beam and the rod to the deflection.
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Two conducting spheres have radii of R1 and R2 with R1 greater than R2. If they are far apart the capacitance is proportional to: A.R 1R2/(R1 - R2) B. C.(R 1 - R2)/R1R2 D. E.none of these
According to the question If they are far apart the capacitance is proportional to R₁R₂/(R₁-R₂).
What is capacitance?Capacitance is the ability of a component or device to store electrical charge. It is measured in Farads, which is a unit of electrical capacitance. In electronics, capacitance is used to store energy in the form of charge, and it is also used to control current and voltage in a circuit. Capacitors are the most common type of component used to store energy and to control current and voltage in a circuit. When connected to a voltage source, a capacitor will store electrical energy in the form of an electric field.
The capacitance of two conducting spheres is proportional to,
C = (4πε0R₁R₂)/(R₁-R₂),
where ε0 is the permittivity of free space.
Therefore, the option is A.R₁R₂/(R₁-R₂).
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Using this circuit, find the Norton equivalent circuit about terminals a and b. Req and leq are the equivalent resistance and current used in the Norton's equivalent circuit. V1 = 10 V, 11 = 2A, R1 = 4 ohms, R2 = 8 ohms, R3 = 4 ohms R Marked out of 1 P Flag question a R2 1) + b Select one: a. leq = 0.2 A, Reg = 4 ohms b. leq = -0.2 A, Req = 6.66 ohms O c. leq = 0.2 A, Req = 6.66 ohms O d. leq = -0.2 Reg = 4 ohms
Ohms: According to the qusetion, the correct option is c. leq = 0.2 A, Req = 6.66 ohms.
What is ohms?Ohms is a measure of electrical resistance. It is named after the German physicist Georg Ohm, who discovered that the current through a conductor is directly proportional to the voltage applied to it. The ohm is the SI unit of electrical resistance and is denoted by the symbol Ω. It is the resistance between two points of a conductor when a constant potential difference of one volt is applied to it, resulting in a current of one ampere. The electrical resistance of an object is equal to the ratio of the voltage applied to the current that passes through it.
This can be found by using the current divider rule to find the current at each node.
Then, the Norton equivalent can be found by using the formula
Ieq = V/Req
Since V = 10V and Ieq = 0.2A,
Then Req = 10/0.2 = 6.66 ohms.
Therefore, according to the qusetion, the correct option is c. leq = 0.2 A, Req = 6.66 ohms.
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93) A container of ideal gas at STP undergoes an isothermal expansion and its entropy changes by 3.7 J/K. How much work does it do?
A) 0.0 J
B) 1.0 × 103 J
C) -1.0 × 103 J
D) 1.4 × 103 J
E) -1.4 × 103 J
The work done by an ideal gas undergoing an isothermal expansion at STP with a change in entropy of 3.7 J/K is 0 J. (Answer: A)
When an ideal gas undergoes an isothermal expansion, its temperature remains constant. This means that the gas follows the ideal gas law: PV = nRT, where P is the pressure, V is the volume, n is the number of moles of gas, R is the ideal gas constant, and T is the temperature. Since the temperature is constant, the product of P and V must also be constant. During the expansion, the volume of the gas increases, which means the pressure decreases. In order for the expansion to be isothermal, the gas must absorb heat from its surroundings to maintain a constant temperature. The amount of work done by the gas during this expansion is equal to the heat absorbed by the surroundings. Using the relationship between entropy and heat, we can calculate the work done by the gas as follows:
ΔS = Q/T = W/T
Where ΔS is the change in entropy, Q is the heat absorbed by the gas, T is the temperature, and W is the work done by the gas. Solving for W, we get W = ΔS × T = 3.7 J/K × 273 K = 1010.1 J.
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When an atom blank a photon, an electron moves to an upper orbital and the atom gains energy; when an atom blank a photon, an electron moves to a lower orbital and the atom loses energy. T/F
This statement is generally true. When an atom absorbs a photon, it is usually because the photon has the exact amount of energy needed to move an electron from a lower energy level to a higher energy level. When the electron moves to an upper orbital, the atom gains energy. This is known as an "excited state".
On the other hand, when an atom emits a photon, it is usually because an electron moves from a higher energy level to a lower energy level. When the electron moves to a lower orbital, the atom loses energy. This is known as a "relaxed state".
However, it should be noted that in some cases, an atom can emit a photon even when an electron moves to a higher energy level. This occurs when the electron moves to a higher energy level but then quickly falls back down to its original level, releasing a photon in the process. This is known as "fluorescence" and is a common process in many materials.
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A hair dryer is rated at 1200 W, 120 V. Its effective internal resistance is:
A) 0.1 ohms
B) 10 ohms
C) 12 ohms
D) 120 ohms
The effective internal resistance of the hair dryer can be calculated using Ohm's law, which states that resistance equals voltage divided by current. To find the current, we can use the power equation, which states that power equals voltage times current. So:
Power = Voltage × Current
1200 W = 120 V × Current
Current = 1200 W / 120 V
Current = 10 A
Now we can find the effective internal resistance:
Resistance = Voltage / Current
Resistance = 120 V / 10 A
Resistance = 12 ohms
Therefore, the answer is C) 12 ohms.
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Suppose that two objects attract each other with a gravitational force of 16 units. If the mass of both objects was tripled, and if the distance between the objects was doubled, then what would be the new force of attraction between the two objects? (Circular Motion and Satellite Motion - Lesson 3- Universal Gravitation: Newton's Law of Universal Gravitation)
If the mass of both objects was tripled, and if the distance between the objects was doubled, then 36 units would be the new force of attraction between the two objects
What is the force of attraction law?
According to the law of gravitational attraction, the square root of the distance between two bodies is inversely proportional to their square product of masses.
Any kind of force, even one that doesn't require the objects to be touching or close to one another in order to work, is considered an attraction force. The gravitational force is the primary factor in attraction.
F ⇒Gm1m2/r2
If the mass of both objects was tripled, and if the distance between the objects was doubled,
F2 ⇒ 9Gm1m2/4r2
F2 ⇒ 9F/4
F2 ⇒ 9*16/4
F2 ⇒ 36
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during a football game, a 90 kg running back moving east is tackled by a 110 kg defensive lineman running west at 5 m/sec. both players move east at 1.5 m/sec after the tackled is made. before he is tackled the running back is moving with a speed of about:
According to the question, the running back was moving east at 7.5 m/sec before he was tackled.
What is tackled?Tackling is a defensive maneuver used in a variety of contact sports, most notably American football and rugby. It involves the player using their body to bring down an opponent from a standing position. This typically involves wrapping the arms around the opponent's body and using the momentum of the tackle to bring them down to the ground.
The total momentum of both players before the collision is equal to (90 kg)(7.5 m/sec) + (110 kg)(-5 m/sec) = 775 kg m/s.
After the collision, the total momentum of both players is (200 kg)(1.5 m/sec) = 300 kg m/s.
Therefore, the running back's momentum before the collision must have been equal to 475 kg m/s. We can then solve for the running back's speed before the collision to be 7.5 m/sec.
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The x and y components of a displacement vector are 1.23 m and 8.90 m respectively. What angle does the vector make with the x axis?
The angle that a displacement vector makes with the x-axis can be found using the tangent function in trigonometry. In this case, the x and y components of the displacement vector are 1.23 m and 8.90 m, respectively. To find the angle θ, you can use the formula:
tan(θ) = (y component) / (x component) = (8.90 m) / (1.23 m)
To find the angle θ, you'll need to take the inverse tangent (arctangent) of the result:
θ = arctan(tan(θ)) = arctan((8.90 m) / (1.23 m))
By calculating the arctan, you will find the angle θ in degrees:
θ ≈ 82.15°
So, the displacement vector makes an angle of approximately 82.15° with the x-axis.
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Using the appropriate table determine the change in specific entropy between the specified states, in kJ/kg⋅K
.
a) Water, p1=10MPa,T1=400oC,p2=10MPa,T2=100o
,
b) Refrigerant 134 a, h1=111. 44kJ/kg,T1=−40oC
, saturated vapor at p2=5bar,
c) Air as an ideal gas, T1=7oC,p1=2bar,T2=327oC,p2=1bar
(A)The change in specific entropy is then: Δs = s₂ - s₁= 0.971 kJ/kg⋅K
(B)The change in specific entropy is then: Δs = s₂ - s₁ = 0.7773 kJ/kg⋅K
(C) the change in specific entropy for air as an ideal gas is 1.13 kJ/kg⋅K.
a) To determine the change in specific entropy for water, we can use the Steam Tables for pressure and temperature at states 1 and 2. From the table, we can find the specific entropy values for water at states 1 and 2 and subtract them.
At state 1: p₁ = 10 MPa, T₁= 400°C
From the Steam Tables, we find:
s₁ = 6.778 kJ/kg⋅K
At state 2: p₂ = 10 MPa, T₂ = 100°C
From the Steam Tables, we find:
s₂ = 7.749 kJ/kg⋅K
The change in specific entropy is then:
Δs = s₂ - s₁ = 0.971 kJ/kg⋅K
b) To determine the change in specific entropy for Refrigerant 134a, we need to use the tables for enthalpy and temperature.
At state 1: h₁ = 111.44 kJ/kg, T₁ = -40°C
From the Refrigerant 134a tables, we find:
s₁ = 0.3489 kJ/kg⋅K
At state 2: p2 = 5 bar, saturated vapor
From the tables, we find:
s₂ = 1.1262 kJ/kg⋅K
The change in specific entropy is then:
Δs = s₂ - s₁ = 0.7773 kJ/kg⋅K
(c) To determine the change in specific entropy for air as an ideal gas, we can use the formula for the change in specific entropy of an ideal gas between two states:
Δs = cp ln(T₂/T₁) - R ln(p₂/p₁)
where cp is the specific heat at constant pressure, R is the specific gas constant, T₁ and T₂ are the temperatures of the gas at states 1 and 2, and p₁ and p₂ are the pressures of the gas at states 1 and 2.
For air, cp = 1.005 kJ/kg⋅K and R = 0.287 kJ/kg⋅K.
At state 1: T₁ = 7°C, p₁ = 2 bar
At state 2: T₂= 327°C, p₂ = 1 bar
Substituting the values into the equation, we get:
Δs = (1.005 kJ/kg⋅K) ln(327/280) - (0.287 kJ/kg⋅K) ln(1/2)
Δs = 1.13 kJ/kg⋅K
Therefore, the change in specific entropy for air as an ideal gas will be 1.13 kJ/kg⋅K.
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for an nmr spectrometer of 1 ghz, what is the ratio between the population of the first excited state and that of the ground state at the room temperature (298 k)? how does it compare to the ratio observed in a 100 mhz instrument at the same temperature?
The ratio of the upper to lower energy populations is 0.9999382 at room temperature.
Define NMR spectroscopy
NMR spectroscopy, also referred to as magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS), or nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy, is a spectroscopic method for observing the local magnetic fields surrounding atomic nuclei. The measurement of electromagnetic radiation absorption in the radio frequency range between 4 and 900 MHz forms the basis for this spectroscopy.
The population difference between the spin states is important for NMR sensitivity, the splitting depends on the nucleus' gyromagnetic ratio, and there is a little bias in favor of the lower energy spin state in the population of the spin states.
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At normal temperatures, the proportion is roughly equal for a 1 gigahertz NMR scanner.
How to solveThe ratio between the population of the first excited state and the ground state in an NMR spectrometer operating at 1 GHz and room temperature (298 K) is given by the Boltzmann distribution formula:
Population ratio = exp(-ΔE/kT),
The energy gap between the excited and ground states is represented by ΔE, while k denotes the Boltzmann constant and T stands for the temperature.
At normal temperatures, the proportion is roughly equal for a 1 gigahertz NMR scanner.
In comparison, for a 100 MHz instrument at the same temperature, the ratio will be significantly smaller, indicating a lower population in the excited state.
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A student holds an 80. 00-cm lab pole one quarter of the length from the end of the pole. The lab pole is made of aluminum. The student strikes the lab pole with a hammer. The pole resonates at the lowest possible frequency. What is that frequency?.
The lowest resonant frequency of the 80.00-cm aluminum lab pole, with the student holding it one quarter of the length from the end and struck by a hammer, is approximately 209 Hz.
The lowest resonant frequency of a vibrating object, also known as the fundamental frequency, depends on the length, density, and stiffness of the object.
For a lab pole made of aluminum, the speed of sound is about 5,000 m/s, and the density is about 2,700 kg/m³. To find the resonant frequency, we can use the formula f = v/2L, where f is the frequency, v is the speed of sound, and L is the length of the vibrating object.
However, since the student is holding the pole one quarter of the length from the end, we need to adjust the effective length of the pole to account for the node at that point.
This means the effective length is 0.75 times the actual length, or 60.00 cm. Plugging in the values, we get f = (5000 m/s) / (2 x 0.60 m) = 208.3 Hz, which is approximately 209 Hz to three significant figures.
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two point charges and a point p lie at the vertices of an equilateral triangle as shown. both point charges have the same magnitude q but opposite signs. there is nothing at point p. the net electric field that charges
The net electric field at point P is zero because the electric fields due to the two charges cancel each other out.
What is Magnitude?
Magnitude is a term used in physics to refer to the size or amount of a physical quantity or property. In other words, it is a measure of the numerical value or strength of a physical quantity, regardless of its direction.
Since the charges are at the vertices of an equilateral triangle, the electric fields due to the two charges at point P will have equal magnitudes and opposite directions. This is because the distance between each charge and point P is the same, and the angles between the lines joining the charges to point P are also the same.
Therefore, the electric fields due to the two charges will cancel out each other, resulting in a net electric field of zero at point P.
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What is the result of a mirror image of a sound signal combining with the sound itself?.
The result of a mirror image of a sound signal combining with the sound itself is called phase cancellation or interference.
When two sound waves with the same frequency and amplitude combine, they can either reinforce or cancel each other out depending on their phase relationship. When the mirror image of a sound wave is combined with the original sound wave, the resulting waveforms are out of phase, and they interfere with each other causing certain frequencies to cancel out or become quieter. This phenomenon is more noticeable in certain frequencies and can result in a less detailed answer depending on the specific signals being combined.
When the mirror image (inverted waveform) of a sound signal combines with the original sound, the positive and negative amplitudes of the waves can cancel each other out or reduce the overall amplitude, resulting in a quieter or even silent sound. This phenomenon is known as destructive interference or phase cancellation.
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An object that weighs 100N falls out of a plane, how much force is needed upward in order to reach terminal velocity Not enough info100N10N0N
The following statements is true regarding the force needed to reach terminal velocity: The force needed is less than 100 N. The correct option is B.
What is terminal velocity?
Terminal velocity is the constant speed that a freely falling object eventually reaches when the resistance of the medium through which it is falling prevents further acceleration. At terminal velocity, the weight of the object is balanced by the drag force acting upon it, resulting in a net force of zero.
When an object falls from a plane, its velocity increases until it reaches a point where the force of air resistance is equal to the force of gravity. At this point, the object reaches terminal velocity, which is a constant velocity. The force needed to reach terminal velocity is less than the weight of the object, since air resistance counteracts the force of gravity.
Therefore, in order to reach terminal velocity, a force less than the weight of the object is needed. B is the right answer.
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Complete question:
An object with a weight of 100 N is falling out of a plane. To reach terminal velocity, a force needs to be applied upwards. Which of the following statements is true regarding the force needed to reach terminal velocity?
A) The force needed is equal to 100 N
B) The force needed is less than 100 N
C) The force needed is more than 100 N
D) The force needed depends on the mass of the object
